MP Civil Judge Pre 2009 solved paper of law and General knowledge. Consider this as a model question paper for august 8, 2010 exam.
1. Who administers oath to the Governor of a State?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(C) Advocate General of the State
(D) None of the Above
2. A person whose fundamental rights are violated can move the High Court under-
(A) Article 20 (B) Article 226 (C) Article 32 (D) Article 22
3. Which of the following protects personal freedom?
(A) Quo-warranto (B) Mandamus (C) Habeas Corpus (D) Certiorari
4. Preamble of the Constitution declares India as-
(A) A Socialist Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(D) A None of the above
5. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel
Code of Civil Procedure 1908
6. Power granted to a Court under Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure is known as-
(A) Inherent power
(B) Appellate power
(C) Revisional power
(D) Reviewing power
7. An application for amendment of pleadings is filed under-
(A) Order 6 Rule 17
(B) Order 6 Rule 5
(C) Order 38 Rule 5
(D) Order 21 Rule 1
8. Provisions with regard to res judicata are provided in Section ......... of the Code of Civil Pro cedure, 1908.
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 100
(D) Section 11
9. A person instituting a suit in 'form of a pauper' is known as
(A) Intelligent person
(B) Juristic person
(C) First person
(D) Indigent person
10. A suit shall be instituted in a Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction-
(A) The plaintiff resides
(B) The Stamp Paper for enter ing into the contract was pur chased
(C) Where no cause of action in part or full arose
(D) Where the cause of action wholly or in part arose
Indian Contract Act
11. An Agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor is a-
(A) Legal Contract (B) Voidable Contract (C) Fraudulent Contract (D) Void Contract
12. 'A' and 'B' contract to marry each other, before the time fixed for the marriage, 'A' goes mad, the contract become -
(A) Voidable Contract
(B) Conditional Contract
(C) Contingent Contract (D) Void Contract
13. 'A' proposes by a letter to sell his house to 'B' for certain price, communication of this proposal is complete when-
(A) 'A' dispatches the letter
(B) 'A' has completed writing the letter
(C) 'B' gets information about posting of the letter
(D) 'B' receives the letter
14. Where the order in which reci procal promises are to be per formed is expressly fixed by the contract, they shall be performed in that order; and where the order is not expressly fixed it shall be performed-
(A) In that order which the nature of transaction requires
(B) In the order as one of the parties prefer (C) As desired by the proposal (D) None of the above
15. 'A' promises to obtain for 'B' an employment in public service and '8' promises to pay Rs. 1,000 to 'A', the agreement between 'A' and 'B'-
(A) Is Legal and proper
(B) Can be enforced at the instance of 'B'
(C) Is Void agreement (D) None of the above
16. A person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with the third person is-
(A) A principal
(B) A pawnor
(C) An agent
(D) A bailor
17. Insurance is a-
(A) Contingent contract (B) Wagering contract (C) Contract of indemnity (D) Contract of guarantee
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
18. Copies made from or compared with the original is-
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Inadmissible evidence
(D) None of these
19. Whether confession made to a Police Officer (while not in cus tody) by an accused of an offence can be proved against him and is aEvidence-
(A) Admissible
(B) Not admissible
(C) Partially admissible (D) None of these
20. The following is not the excep tion to the rule of hearsay-
(A) Dying declaration
(B) Res gestae
(C) Medical Expert's Opinion (D) Confession
21. 'A' is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket, the proving that he had a ticket is on-
(A) Prosecution (B) Accused
(C) Complainant
(D) Prosecution witness
The Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code
22. Amongst the following who is not a Revenue Officer as defined under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code?
(A) Commissioner
(B) Collector
(C) Settlement Officer
(D) Chairman, Board of Revenue
23. Revision powers are exercised by the Board of Revenue under of the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code.
(A) Section 40 (B) Section 44 (C) Section 46 (D) Section 50
24. A Bhumiswami can seek parti tion of his agricultural land
(C) Tahsildar
(D) Superintendent of Land Record
25. Which amongst the following is not the duty of a Patel appointed under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code?
(A) To collect and pay Land Revenue into the Gram Kosh
(B) To furnish reports regarding state of his village
(C) To prevent encroachment on waste land, public path and roadways
(D) To maintain land records
26. Who is competent to transfer a revenue case from one District to another under Section 29 of the M. P. Land Revenue Code? '
(A) State Government
(B) Board of Revenue
(C) Chief Secretary
(D) Revenue Minister
27. If a Bhumiswami is dispossessed of the land otherwise then in due course of law who can be ordered for restoration of the possession?
(A) Tahsildar (B) Commissioner (C) Collector (D) S.D.O.
28. Wajib-ul-arz of a village is maintained by the-
(A) Patwari
(B) Kotwar
(C) Sub-Divisional Officer (D) Tahsildar
29. Which one of the following matter is not provided for in a Nistar Patrak; terms and condi tions on which-
(A) Grazing of cattle in the village is permissible
(B) The right to fishing may be obtained by a resident
(C) Wood, Timber or Fuel may be obtained by a resident
(D) Mooram, Kankar or Sand may be obtained by a resident
30. . .... .is not defined in the Code?
Specific Relief Act, 1963
31. The relief provided under the Specific Relief Act, is-
(A) Discretionary
(B) Mandatory
(C) Statutory
(D) Obligatory
32. In a suit for specific performance of contract the plaintiff can seek a relief only if he establishes that-
(A) Prima facie case is in his favour
(B) He was willing and ready to perform his part of the contract (C) Balance of Convenience is in his favour
(D) He may suffer irreparable loss
33. Find out the correct statement. Specific Relief can be granted
(A) For enforcing individual civil rights and not for enforcing a penal law
(B) For enforcing penal law and not for enforcing civil rights
(C) Only for enforcing penal law
(D) For enforcing civil rights and a penal law
34. No suit for recovery of posses sion may be instituted under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act-
(A) Against Government (B) Against a Public Company (C) Against a Private Company (D) Against all of these
35. Find out the incorrect statement in respect of temporary injunc tions-
(A) Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Court
(B) Such as are to continue until a specified time or until the further order of the Court
(C) Regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Cannot be granted at any stage of a suit
36. In which of the following cases money can be afforded for nonperformance of the contract as an adequate relief
(D) Where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by non performance of the contract
37. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced as per the provision of Section 14 of the Act?
(A) Execution of a formal deed of partnership
(B) Contract for the construc tion of any building or execution of any other work on land
(C) Contract which is determin able in its nature
(D) Contract to execute a mor tgage or furnish any other security for repayment of any loan
which the borrower is not willing to repay at once
Transfer of Property Act
38. An instrument as defined under Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means-
(A) A Negotiable Instrument (B) A Transferable Instrument (C) A non-testamentary Instru ment (D) A will
39. Where on a Transfer of Property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, the Transfer is called-
(A) Conditional Transfer (B) Transfer by Interest (C) Absolute Transfer (D) Contingent Transfer
40. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 covers-
(A) Movable Property (B) Immovale Property (C) None (D) (A) and (B) both
41. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a person is said to have notice of a fact when-
know the fact
(D) Is not at all aware of the fact
42. A mortgage by deposit of title deed is called-
(A) Anomalous mortgage (B) English mortgage (C) Equitable mortgage (D) Usufructuary mortgage
43. Which of the following is not an actionable claim?
(A) Right to a Provident Fund Account
(B) Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee succeed in L.L.B. examination
(C) Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee marries a particular woman
(D) Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with a liability
44. .. is defined as a security for repayment of a loan.
(A) Pledge
(B) Mortgage
(C) Lease
(D) None of these
Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyaya laya Adhiniyam
45. The normal term of office of a member nominated to a Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyaya laya Adhiniyam, 1996 is-
(A) Two years
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Six years
46. The State Government establi shes Gram Nyayalaya for every-
(A) District (B) Tahsil (C) Block (D) Circle
47. Every person nominated as a member of the Gram Nyayalaya before assuming office shall submit a declaration to the effect that-
(A) He shall continue to be a member of political party
(B) He shall not pay subscrip tion to any political party date he assumes office
48. A Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 is not empowered to inquire or to try an offence under Section-
(A) 326 LP.C. (B) 323 LP.C. (C) 336 LP.C. (D) 426 LP.C.
49. A Gram Nyayalaya shall no't have exclusive jurisdiction under Section 16(ii) of M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 to inquire and try offences under-
(A) Cattle Trespass Act (B) M. P. Juvenile Smoking Act (C) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (D) Secton 13 of the Public Gambling Act
50. A Gram Nyayalaya should make endeavour to--
(A) Compromise a dispute (B) Should not compromise (C) Should make endeavour to punish the wrong doer (D) None of the above
Madhya Pradesh Accommoda tion Control Act
51. If a landlord contravenes the provision of Sub-section (1) of Section 38 of the M. P. Accom modation Control Act, he shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to- A) Two years (B) . Six months (C) One month (D) Three months
52. A suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide need for non-residential purpose is covered under Section of the Madhya Pradesh Accommoda tion Control Act.
(A) 12(1)(a) (B) 12(1)(b) (C) 12(1)(e) (D) 12(1)(f)
53. The special provision for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement of a land lord as provided under Chapter III-A of the Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act is applicable to-
(A) A widow or a divorced wife (B) A woman in employment in non-governmental establishment
(C) A married woman living with her husband
(D) A business woman
54. Madhya Pradesh Accommoda tion Control Act, 1961 is not applicable to-
(A) Accommodation which is used for non-residential purpose (B) Accommodation which is the property of the Government (C) Accommodation which is the property of a widow
(D) Accommodation which is the property of a minor children
55. No suit for the eviction of a tenant shall be maintainable on the grounds specified under Section 12(1)(e) or 12(1)(f), unless a period of has elapsed from the date of acquisition.
(A) One year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Five years
56. An appeal shall lie from every order of the Rent Controlling Authority made under Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, 1961-
(A) District Judge (B) Collector (C) Commissioner (D) High Court
57. Which of the following act cannot form ground of eviction of the tenant?
(A) Nuisance
(B) Disclaimer of the title of the landlord
(C) Material structural alteration (D) Holding over
58. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(B) A direction to release a person on bail issued even before a person is arrested or is in apprehenSion of arrest
(C) A direction to release a person on bail from judicial custody
(D) A direction to release a person on bail when he is in police custody after being arrested
59. Inherent Powers under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be exercised by-
(A) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(B) Sessions Judge (C) High Court
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
60. Information regarding occur rence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an officer Incharge of a Police Station under which provision of the Code of Crimi nal Procedure, 1973 ?
(A) Section 149
(B) Section 154
(C) Section 155
(D) Section 200
61. A is not entitled to maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
(A) Wife unable to maintain herself
(B) Divorced wife (not re married)
(C) Minor daughter
(D) Divorced wife re-married
62. The Court of Magistrate of the First Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term-
(A) Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 10,000 (B) Not exceeding one year or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
(C) Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
(D) Not exceeding seven years or a fine prescribed under the code
63. An offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or menas as provided under section 326 of IPL is:
(A) Compoundable
(B) Non-Compoundable
(C) Compoundable with the permission of Court
(D) None of the above
64. An inquest report must contain
(A) The names of accused
(B) The apparent cause of death (C) The details of weapons
(D) The details of incident
65. If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Court of Session, he, under Section 202 Cr. P.C, postponing the issue of process against the accused (A) Shall commit the case to the Court of Session
(B) May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer
(C) Shall call upon the com plainant to produce all his wit nesses and examine them on oath
(D) Shall return the complaint for presentation before the Court of Session
Indian Penal Code
66. A person himself does not com mit an offence, he helps or aids another person, he is guilty of (A) Abetment
(B) Conspiracy
(C) Incitement
(D) None of these
67.....of the Indian Penal Code defines 'Murder'.
(A) Section 299
(B) Section 300
(C) Section 301
(D) Section 302
68. Which of the following is not 'Public Servant' within the meaning of Section 21 of the Code?
(A) Municipal Commissioner (B) Member of Parliament (C) MLA
(D) Examiner of University
69. A married man commit adultery if he has intercourse with a/an
a. Unmarried woman
b. Married woman other than his wife
c. any woman except his wife
(D) Unmarried woman without her consent
70. Cruelty to a woman by husband or relative of husband is defined under-
(A) Section 498 A of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 498 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Section 496 of the Indian Penal Code
Part-II GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
71. Who is the Chairperson of Iden tification Authority of India (UIA) ?
(A) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan (B) Nandan Nilekani
(C) E.Shreedharan
(D) M. N. Buch
72. Who won the 2009 Wimbledon on July 5th, 2009 ?
(A) Pete Sampras
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Roger Federer
(D) John McEnroe
73. Which country has the largest Rail Network in the World?
(A) India (B) U. K. (C) China (D) U.s.A.
74. Who is the Union Law Minister of India?
(A) Sharad Pawar (B) Kapil Sibbal (C) Verrappa Moily (D) Hansraj Bharadwaj
75. The Birthday of Late Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, 'President of India', is celebrated as-
(A) Lawyer's Day
(B) Teacher's Day
(C) Children's Day
(D) Father's Day
76. Tirupati is in-
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Karnataka (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala
77. Kanha National Park is situated in which District?
a. Jabal Pur b. Shaldol c. Umaria d. Mandla
78. River Narmada originates from
(A) Bhedaghat
(B) Amarkantak
(C) Dindori
(D) Allahabad
79. Gandhiji started Dandi March in 1930-
(A) Against atrocities commit ted on Harijans
(B) Against imposition of Salt Tax
(C) Against the commencement of Communal Riot
(D) Against prohibition on Indian's participating in elections
80. Who is the author of "My Experiments with Truth" ?
(A) Nehru (B) Tagore
(C) Gandhi (D) Jinnah
81. NASA refers to-
(A) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(B) North Atlantic Space Agency
(C) North Airbase and Space Agency
(D) None of the above
82. ISO. 9000 is a-
(A) Quality Standard Mark (B) Space Project (C) Trade Technique (D) None of these
83. Who among the following made a film on Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Aparna Sen (B) Shyam Benegal (C) James Ivory (D) Richard Attenborough
84. 'Law Day' is observed on
(A) 26th January
(B) 15th August
(C) 26th May
(D) 26th November
85. Which is the longest sea bridge in the country ?
(A) Vidyasagar Setu, Kolkata (B) Bandra-Worli Sea Link, Mumbai
(C) Bhakra-Nangal Project (D) None ofthese
86. Dr. Rajendra Pachauri
a. Banker
(B) Industrialist
(C) Environmentalist (D) Scientist
87. Who is the author of 'Discovery of India' ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Sarojini Naidu (D) Indira Gandhi
88. D.N.A. refers to-
(A) Di-oxyribo Nucleic Acid (B) Di-oxide Nucleic Acid (C) Different Nucleic Acid (D) None of these
89. S.M.S. is-
(A) Short Messaging Sequence (B) Short Messaging Service (C) Short Manageable Service (D) Short and Medium Service
90. Padma Bhushan Award is
(A) Gallantry Award
(B) Bravery Award
(C) Civilian Award
(D) Literary Award
91. Which city is known as the 'City of Joy' ?
(A) Delhi (B) Mumbai (C) Kolkata (D) Chennai
92. Who is the Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court?
(A) Justice R. S. Garg
(B) Justice Dipak Misra
(C) Justice A. K. Patnaik
(D) None of these
93. Who won the ASHES Cricket Test Series held in year 2009 ?
(A) Australia
(B) England
(C) Pakistan
(D) None of these
Who appoints a Judge of a High Court?
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) President of India (D) Chief Justice of India
94. Which of these animals is /lot shown in the National Emblem of India ?
answer:
Ans: bull
answers: 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (C) 21. . (B) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (0) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (D) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (A) 51. (D) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (A) 56. (A) 57. (A) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (B) 61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (A) 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (C) 81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (B) 86 (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (C)
Thursday, July 29, 2010
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STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION RECRUITMENT TO THE POST OF INSPECTOR & SUB-INSPECTOR IN CENTRAL BUREAU OF NARCOTICS (CBN) VIDE CAT. NO. C-2 & C-3 OF ADVT. No. 1/2009 (MPR) DECLARATION OF WRITTEN RESULT
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO THE POST OF INSPECTOR & SUB-INSPECTOR IN
CENTRAL BUREAU OF NARCOTICS (CBN) VIDE
CAT. NO. C-2 & C-3 OF ADVT. No. 1/2009 (MPR)
DECLARATION OF WRITTEN RESULT
The Staff Selection Commission had conducted an examination on 16.05.2010
for recruitment to the posts of Inspector & Sub-Inspector in Central Bureau of
Narcotics (CBN) advertised vide Cat. No. C-2 & C-3 respectively of Advt. No. 1/2009
(MPR). 10904 candidates appeared in the examination.
2. Following is the details of 113 & 95 candidates who have qualified in the
written examination for being called for the Interview/Personality Test for the post of
Inspector & Sub-Inspector respectively in Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN)
3. The cut-off fixed by the Commission for short listing the candidates for Interview
are as follows :
Cut-off for Inspector
SC ST OBC UR Total
Vacancies Reported 03 02 03 06 14
Cut – off marks 115 108 130 136 -
Candidates available 25 15 47 24 113*
* includes 2 Ex-Servicemen candidates.
Cut-off for Sub-Inspector
SC ST OBC UR Total
Vacancies Reported 01 01 03 07 12
Cut – off marks 116 108 123 128 -
Candidates available 9 8 50 26 95*
* includes 2 Ex-Servicemen candidates .
3. The list herein is PROVISIONAL. The candidates whose Roll Numbers figure
in the list would be called for the Interview subject to their fulfilling all the eligibility
conditions/requirements as prescribed for the post in the Notice of Examination
and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their
photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission
certificates, etc. If on verification from the application form, it is found that any
candidate does not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, he/she will not be called for
the Interview.
-2-
4. The category status in respect of candidates belonging to reserve categories
has been indicated along with their roll numbers. It is important for such candidates
for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per the policy of the
Govt., to note that some of them may have been declared qualified for the Interview
in the category mentioned against their roll numbers. If any candidate does not
actually belong to the category mentioned against his roll number, he/she may not
be eligible to be called for the Interview . It is, therefore, in the interest of the
candidates concerned to contact immediately the respective Regional Office of the
Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown
against their roll numbers.
5. Tentatively, the Interview is expected to be conducted in September, 2010.
Qualified eligible candidates who do not receive call letters for the Interview by
20.08.2010 should immediately thereafter contact MPR Regional Office of the
Commission.
6. All future references after declaration of the result may be addressed to
Deputy Director (MPR), Staff Selection Commission, Raipur.
7. The result is also available on the Commission's website : http://ssc.nic.in.
(Satya Prakash)
Under Secretary(C-I)
19.07.2010
RECRUITMENT TO THE POST OF INSPECTOR & SUB-INSPECTOR IN
CENTRAL BUREAU OF NARCOTICS (CBN) VIDE
CAT. NO. C-2 & C-3 OF ADVT. No. 1/2009 (MPR)
DECLARATION OF WRITTEN RESULT
The Staff Selection Commission had conducted an examination on 16.05.2010
for recruitment to the posts of Inspector & Sub-Inspector in Central Bureau of
Narcotics (CBN) advertised vide Cat. No. C-2 & C-3 respectively of Advt. No. 1/2009
(MPR). 10904 candidates appeared in the examination.
2. Following is the details of 113 & 95 candidates who have qualified in the
written examination for being called for the Interview/Personality Test for the post of
Inspector & Sub-Inspector respectively in Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN)
3. The cut-off fixed by the Commission for short listing the candidates for Interview
are as follows :
Cut-off for Inspector
SC ST OBC UR Total
Vacancies Reported 03 02 03 06 14
Cut – off marks 115 108 130 136 -
Candidates available 25 15 47 24 113*
* includes 2 Ex-Servicemen candidates.
Cut-off for Sub-Inspector
SC ST OBC UR Total
Vacancies Reported 01 01 03 07 12
Cut – off marks 116 108 123 128 -
Candidates available 9 8 50 26 95*
* includes 2 Ex-Servicemen candidates .
3. The list herein is PROVISIONAL. The candidates whose Roll Numbers figure
in the list would be called for the Interview subject to their fulfilling all the eligibility
conditions/requirements as prescribed for the post in the Notice of Examination
and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their
photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission
certificates, etc. If on verification from the application form, it is found that any
candidate does not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, he/she will not be called for
the Interview.
-2-
4. The category status in respect of candidates belonging to reserve categories
has been indicated along with their roll numbers. It is important for such candidates
for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per the policy of the
Govt., to note that some of them may have been declared qualified for the Interview
in the category mentioned against their roll numbers. If any candidate does not
actually belong to the category mentioned against his roll number, he/she may not
be eligible to be called for the Interview . It is, therefore, in the interest of the
candidates concerned to contact immediately the respective Regional Office of the
Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown
against their roll numbers.
5. Tentatively, the Interview is expected to be conducted in September, 2010.
Qualified eligible candidates who do not receive call letters for the Interview by
20.08.2010 should immediately thereafter contact MPR Regional Office of the
Commission.
6. All future references after declaration of the result may be addressed to
Deputy Director (MPR), Staff Selection Commission, Raipur.
7. The result is also available on the Commission's website : http://ssc.nic.in.
(Satya Prakash)
Under Secretary(C-I)
19.07.2010
Wednesday, July 28, 2010
ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION FOR SSC TIER II EXAM
ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION FOR SSC TIER II EXAM
1. BIENNIAL - THAT WHICH HAPPENS IN TWO YEARS
2. TRIENNIAL - THAT WHICH HAPPENS IN THREE YEARS
3. - AUDIENCE - A NUMBER OF PEOPLE LISTENING TO A LECTURE
4. CORTEGE - A NUMBER OF MOURNERS FOLLOWING A FUNERAL PROCESSION
5. OMNIPRESENT - ONE WHO IS PRESENT EVERYWHERE.
6. OMNIPOTENT - ONE WHO IS ALL POWERFUL.
7. OMNISCIENT - ONE WHO KNOWS EVERYTHING.
8. POSSE - A NUMBER OF POLICEMEN CALLED TO QUELL A RIOT
9. ANTHOLOGY - THE COLLECTION OF POEMS
10. BOUQUET - A COLLECTION OF FLOWERS
11. OPAQUE - THAT WHICH CANNOT BE SEEN THROUGH
12. PHILANTHROPE - A LOVER OF MANKIND
13. MISANTHROPE - A HATER OF MANKIND
14. ALTRUIST - A LOVER OF OTHERS
15. HANGAR - A PLACE FOR HOUSING AEROPLANES
16. CRECHE - A NURSERY WHERE CHILDREN ARE CARED FOR WILE THEIR PARENTS ARE AT WORK.
17. DORMITORY - THE SLEEPING ROOMS IN A COLLEGE OR PUBLIC INSTITUTION.
18. CHAUFFEUR - ONE WHO DRIVES A MOTOR CAR
19. SCULPTOR - ONE WHO CUTS IN STONES
20. FASTIDIOUS - ONE WHO IS VERY SELECTIVE IN ONE'S TASTE
21. CURATOR - A PERSON INCHARGE OF A MUSEUM
22. LEXUCIGRAOGER - ONE WHO COMOPILES A DICTIONARY
23. AUTOCRACY - GOVERNMENT BY ONE PERSON
24. HOMICIDE - MURDER OF MAN
25. FRATRICIDE - MURDER OF BROTHER
26. CYNIC - ONE WHO SHEERS AT THE AIMS AND BELIEFS OF HIS FELLOWMEN
27. FUGITIVE - ONE WHO RUNS AWAY FROM JUSTICE OR THE LAW.
28. NOVICE OR TYRO - ONE NEW TO ANYTHING INEXPERIENCED
29. MAIDEN - THE FIRST SPEECH DELIVERED BY A PERSON
30. CARNIVOROUS - ONE WHO LIVES ON FLESH
31.ARCHIVES - A PLACE WHERE GOVERNMENT RECORDS ARE KEPT
32. SANATORIUM - A PLACE FOR THE SICK TO RECOVER HEALTH
33. CAPTION - THE HEADING OF NEWSPAPERS ARTICLE, CHAPTER OF A BOOK ETC.
34. AXIOM - A STATEMENT WICH IS ACCEPTED AS TRUE WITHOUT PROOF
35. AGENDA - A LIST OF THE HEADINGS OF THE BUSINESS TO BE TRANSACTED AT A MEETING.
36. FACSIMILE - AN EXACT COPY OF HANDWRITING, PRINTING ETC
37. PLAGIARISM - LITERARY THEFT OR PASSING OFF AN AUTHORS ORIGNIANL WORK AS ONE'S OWN
38. ELGY - A POEM OF LAMENTATION
39. CONVALESCENT - ONE WHO IS RECOVERING HEALTH
40.MORGUE - A PLACE WHERE DEAD BODIES ARE KEPT FOR IDENTIFICATION
41. MORTUARY - A PLACE WHERE DEAD BODIES ARE KEPT FOR POST MORTEM
42. MERCENERY - ONE WHO DOES SOMETHING FOR THE SAKE OF MONEY
43 EPHEMERAL - LASTING ONE DAY
44. INCOGNITO - TRAVELLING UNDER ANOTHER NAME THAN ONE'S OWN
45. FRAGILE - EASILY BROKEN
46. NOSTALGIA - A STRONG DESIRE TO RETUN HOME, HOME SICKNESS
47. VERSATILE - ABLE TO ADAPT ONESELF READILY TO MANY SITUATIONS
48. MONOGAMY - THE PRACTICE OF MARRYING ONE AT A TIME
49. BIGAMY - THE PRACTICE OF HAVING TWO WIVES OR TWO HUSBANDS AT A TIME.
50. POLOYGAMY - THE PRACTICE OF MARRYING MORE THAN ONE WIFE AT A TIME.
51. POLYANDRY - THE PRACTICE OF MARRYING MORE THAN ONE HUSBANDS AT A TIME
52. MISOGYNIST - A HATER OF WOMANKIND
53. PHILOGYNIST - A LOVER OF WOMANKIND
54. BIBLIOPHILE - A LOVER AND CVOLLECTOR OF BOOKS
55. PLEBISCITE - A DECISION MADE BY VOTING
56. STOIC - A PERSON WHO IS INDIFFERENT TO PLEASURE AND PAIN
57. EFFEMINATE - A PERSON WHO IS WOMANISH IN HIS HABITS
58. PHILANDEREER - A MAN WHO AMUSES HIMSELF BY LOVE MAKING
59. VETERAN - ONE WHO HAS A LONG EXPERIENCE
60. AMATEUR - ONE WHO DOES A THING FOR PLEASURE AND NOT AS A PROFESSION
1. BIENNIAL - THAT WHICH HAPPENS IN TWO YEARS
2. TRIENNIAL - THAT WHICH HAPPENS IN THREE YEARS
3. - AUDIENCE - A NUMBER OF PEOPLE LISTENING TO A LECTURE
4. CORTEGE - A NUMBER OF MOURNERS FOLLOWING A FUNERAL PROCESSION
5. OMNIPRESENT - ONE WHO IS PRESENT EVERYWHERE.
6. OMNIPOTENT - ONE WHO IS ALL POWERFUL.
7. OMNISCIENT - ONE WHO KNOWS EVERYTHING.
8. POSSE - A NUMBER OF POLICEMEN CALLED TO QUELL A RIOT
9. ANTHOLOGY - THE COLLECTION OF POEMS
10. BOUQUET - A COLLECTION OF FLOWERS
11. OPAQUE - THAT WHICH CANNOT BE SEEN THROUGH
12. PHILANTHROPE - A LOVER OF MANKIND
13. MISANTHROPE - A HATER OF MANKIND
14. ALTRUIST - A LOVER OF OTHERS
15. HANGAR - A PLACE FOR HOUSING AEROPLANES
16. CRECHE - A NURSERY WHERE CHILDREN ARE CARED FOR WILE THEIR PARENTS ARE AT WORK.
17. DORMITORY - THE SLEEPING ROOMS IN A COLLEGE OR PUBLIC INSTITUTION.
18. CHAUFFEUR - ONE WHO DRIVES A MOTOR CAR
19. SCULPTOR - ONE WHO CUTS IN STONES
20. FASTIDIOUS - ONE WHO IS VERY SELECTIVE IN ONE'S TASTE
21. CURATOR - A PERSON INCHARGE OF A MUSEUM
22. LEXUCIGRAOGER - ONE WHO COMOPILES A DICTIONARY
23. AUTOCRACY - GOVERNMENT BY ONE PERSON
24. HOMICIDE - MURDER OF MAN
25. FRATRICIDE - MURDER OF BROTHER
26. CYNIC - ONE WHO SHEERS AT THE AIMS AND BELIEFS OF HIS FELLOWMEN
27. FUGITIVE - ONE WHO RUNS AWAY FROM JUSTICE OR THE LAW.
28. NOVICE OR TYRO - ONE NEW TO ANYTHING INEXPERIENCED
29. MAIDEN - THE FIRST SPEECH DELIVERED BY A PERSON
30. CARNIVOROUS - ONE WHO LIVES ON FLESH
31.ARCHIVES - A PLACE WHERE GOVERNMENT RECORDS ARE KEPT
32. SANATORIUM - A PLACE FOR THE SICK TO RECOVER HEALTH
33. CAPTION - THE HEADING OF NEWSPAPERS ARTICLE, CHAPTER OF A BOOK ETC.
34. AXIOM - A STATEMENT WICH IS ACCEPTED AS TRUE WITHOUT PROOF
35. AGENDA - A LIST OF THE HEADINGS OF THE BUSINESS TO BE TRANSACTED AT A MEETING.
36. FACSIMILE - AN EXACT COPY OF HANDWRITING, PRINTING ETC
37. PLAGIARISM - LITERARY THEFT OR PASSING OFF AN AUTHORS ORIGNIANL WORK AS ONE'S OWN
38. ELGY - A POEM OF LAMENTATION
39. CONVALESCENT - ONE WHO IS RECOVERING HEALTH
40.MORGUE - A PLACE WHERE DEAD BODIES ARE KEPT FOR IDENTIFICATION
41. MORTUARY - A PLACE WHERE DEAD BODIES ARE KEPT FOR POST MORTEM
42. MERCENERY - ONE WHO DOES SOMETHING FOR THE SAKE OF MONEY
43 EPHEMERAL - LASTING ONE DAY
44. INCOGNITO - TRAVELLING UNDER ANOTHER NAME THAN ONE'S OWN
45. FRAGILE - EASILY BROKEN
46. NOSTALGIA - A STRONG DESIRE TO RETUN HOME, HOME SICKNESS
47. VERSATILE - ABLE TO ADAPT ONESELF READILY TO MANY SITUATIONS
48. MONOGAMY - THE PRACTICE OF MARRYING ONE AT A TIME
49. BIGAMY - THE PRACTICE OF HAVING TWO WIVES OR TWO HUSBANDS AT A TIME.
50. POLOYGAMY - THE PRACTICE OF MARRYING MORE THAN ONE WIFE AT A TIME.
51. POLYANDRY - THE PRACTICE OF MARRYING MORE THAN ONE HUSBANDS AT A TIME
52. MISOGYNIST - A HATER OF WOMANKIND
53. PHILOGYNIST - A LOVER OF WOMANKIND
54. BIBLIOPHILE - A LOVER AND CVOLLECTOR OF BOOKS
55. PLEBISCITE - A DECISION MADE BY VOTING
56. STOIC - A PERSON WHO IS INDIFFERENT TO PLEASURE AND PAIN
57. EFFEMINATE - A PERSON WHO IS WOMANISH IN HIS HABITS
58. PHILANDEREER - A MAN WHO AMUSES HIMSELF BY LOVE MAKING
59. VETERAN - ONE WHO HAS A LONG EXPERIENCE
60. AMATEUR - ONE WHO DOES A THING FOR PLEASURE AND NOT AS A PROFESSION
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION FORTHCOMMING EXAM MODEL PAPER
Answer
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Staff Selection Commission- Central Police Organisations (Sub-Inspectors) Examination September 2003 Question Papers Directions (Qs. 1 to 8) : In these questions, select the related letters/ words/ numbers/figures from the given alternatives. 1. Taste : Tongue : : Walk : ? (a) Pavement (b) Crutch (c) Legs (d) Walking stick Ans: ( c ) Legs 2. CHIMNEY : SMOKE : : ______ : ______ (a) Gun : Bullet (b) House : Roof (c) Clay : Ceramic (d) Tea : Kettle Ans: ( a ) Gun : Bullet 3. DCHG : LIKQP : : FEJI : ? (a) MLSR (b) NMRQ (c) ONTS (d) QPUT Ans: ( None ) 4. CAD : FDG : : XZW : ? (a) IQJ (b) CAD (c) ZBY (d) UWT Ans: ( d ) UWT 5. 5 : 124 : : 7 : ? (a) 342 (b) 343 (c) 248 (d) 125 Ans: ( a ) 342 6. 3265 : 4376 : : 4673 : ? (a) 2154 (b) 5487 (c) 3562 (d) 5784 Ans: ( d ) 5784 Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) : In these questions, select the response which is different from the other three responses. 7. (a) Telephone (b) Tape-Recorder (c) Transistor (d) Telescope Ans: ( d ) Telescope 8. (a) Glue (b) Oil (c) Paste (d) Cement Ans: ( b ) Oil 9. (a) XZUS (b) OQLJ (c) HJFE (d) FHCA Ans: ( c ) HJFE 10. (a) KNPS (b) RUWZ (c) MPRU (d) PRSU Ans: ( d ) PRSU 11. (a) 26 ? 62 (b) 36 ? 63 (c) 46 ? 64 (d) 56 ? 18 Ans: ( d ) 56 ? 18 12. (a) 6958 (b) 7948 (c) 6895 (d) 9783 Ans: ( d ) 9783 Directions (Qs. 13) : In this question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? 13. m__nm__n__an__a__ma__ (a) amammn (b) aammnn (c) ammanm (d) aamnan Ans: ( b ) aammnn Directions (Qs. 14 to 17) : In these questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 14. A, c, f, j, ?, ? (a) ou (b) mo (c) lp (d) rv Ans: ( a ) ou 15. QYK, ?, ISG, EPE (a) NWJ (b) MVI (c) NVI (d) MVJ Ans: ( b ) MVI 16. 10, 22, 46, 94 ? (a) 180 (b) 184 (c) 190 (d) 140 Ans: ( c ) 190 17. 110, 132, 156, ?, 210 (a) 162 (b) 172 (c) 182 (d) 192 Ans: ( c ) 182 Directions (Qs. 18 to 22) : In these questions, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words? 18. (1) Book (2) Words (3) Letters (4) Sentences (5) Chapters (6) Pages (a) 3 2 6 5 4 1 (b) 3 2 5 4 6 1 (c) 3 2 4 5 6 1 (d) 3 2 4 6 5 1 Ans: ( d ) 3 2 4 6 5 1 19. (1) Probation (2) Interview (3) Selection (4) Appointment (5) Advertisement (6) Application (a) 5 6 4 2 3 1 (b) 5 6 3 2 4 1 (c) 5 6 2 3 4 1 (d) 6 5 4 2 3 1 Ans: ( c ) 5 6 2 3 4 1 20. If E = 5, PEN = 35, then PAGE = ? (a) 28 (b) 29 (c) 36 (d) 27 Ans: ( b ) 29 21. If he word ?PORTER? can be coded as ?MBNZQN?, then how can ?REPORT? be written? (a) NQMBNZ (b) NQBMNZ (c) NBQMNZ (d) NQMNBZ Ans: ( a ) NQMBNZ 22. In a certain code, the words ?COME AT ONCE? were written as XLNVZGLMXV. In the same code which of the following would be ?OK? ? (a) LM (b) LP (c) KM (d) KL Ans: ( b ) LP Directions (Qs. 23) : In this question, you have to identify the correct response from the given premises stated according to following symbols. 23. If ?+? means ?minus?, ?-? means ?multiplication?, ?? means ?plus? and ?x? means ?division, then 15 ? 3 + 10 x 5 5 = (a) 52 (b) 48 (c) 22 (d) 5 Ans: ( b ) 48 Directions (Qs. 24 ) : In this question, find the missing number from the given response. 24. 8 7 10 12 13 12 15 17 10 9 ? 14 (a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 21 (d) 25 Ans: ( a ) 12 Directions (Qs. 25) : From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. 25. Given word : ADMINISTRATION (a) STATION (b) TRADITION (c) MINISTER (d) RATION Ans: ( c ) MINISTER Directions (Qs. 26) : A word given in Capital letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one can be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word. 26. IMMEDIATELY (a) DIAMETER (b) DICTATE (c) LIMITED (d) DIALECT Ans: ( c ) LIMITED 27. Suresh starts from a point, walks 2 miles towards the south, turns right and walks 1 ½ miles, turns left and walks ½ mile and then he turns back. What is the direction he is facing now? (a) East (b) West (c) South (d) North Ans: ( d ) North 28. Ashok wants to book a ticket to Madurai. He starts and covers 5 km to reach the Booking Office which is in the East of his house. From there he turns to the North towards the market by traveling 3 km. From there he turns left to his friend Sandeep?s house which is 5 km away. Now he has to get back to his house. How many km he has to cover to reach his house? (a) 8 km (b) 3 km (c) 5 km (d) 6 km Ans: ( b ) 3 km 29. The age of X is 2/3rd that of Y. After 6 years, X will be 46 years old. The present age of Y is (a) 40 years (b) 56 years (c) 60 years (d) 100 years Ans: ( c ) 60 years 30. A is B?s brother, C is A?s mother, D is C?s father, E is B?s son. How is D related to A ? (a) Son (b) Grandson (c) Grandfather (d) Great Grandfather Ans: ( c ) Grandfather 31. In a store, 5 articles A, B, C, D and E are priced differently. Value of ?C? is Rs. 100. ?A? is cheaper than ?C? but costlier than ?B?. ?E? is costlier than ?C? but cheaper than ?D?. Which of the articles is the costliest ? (a) D (b) E (c) B (d) A Ans: ( a ) D 32. Read The following information to answer this question : (i) A B C D E F are six family members (ii) There is one Doctor, one Lawyer, one Engineer, one Pilot, one Student and one Housewife. (iii) There are two married couples in the family. (iv) F, who is a Lawyer, is the father of A. (v) B is a Pilot and is mother of C. (vi) D is grandmother of C and is a housewife. (vii) E is father of F and is a Doctor. (viii) C is brother of A. How many female members are there in the family? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four Ans: ( ? ) GENERAL AWARENESS : 33. Capital output ratio of a commodity measures (a) Its per unit cost of production (b) The amount of capital invested per unit of output (c) The ratio of capital depreciation to quantity of output (d) The ratio of working capital employed to quantity of output Ans: ( d ) The ratio of working capital employed to quantity of output 34. In estimating the budgetary deficit, the official approach in India is to exclude (a) Long term borrowings from the market (b) Borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India (c) Drawing down of the cash balance (d) Borrowings from Reserve Bank in the form of ways and means advance Ans: ( d ) Borrowings from Reserve Bank in the form of ways and means advance 35. In equilibrium, a perfectly competitive firm will equate (a) Marginal social cost with marginal social benefit (b) Market supply with market demand (c) Marginal profit with marginal cost (d) Marginal revenue with marginal cost Ans: ( d ) Marginal revenue with marginal cost 36. The existence of a Parallel Economy or Black Money (a) Makes the economy more competitive (b) Makes the monetary policies less effective (c) Ensures a better distribution of income and wealth (d) Ensures increasing productive investment Ans: ( b ) Makes the monetary policies less effective 37. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme ? (a) Pepsin (b) Rennin (c) Insulin (d) Amylopsin Ans: ( c ) Insulin 38. The ?Theory of Evolution? was put forward by (a) Louis Pasteur (b) Aristotle (c) Gregor Mendel (d) Charles Darwin Ans: ( d ) Charles Darwin 39. Which combination of colours is the most convenient during day and night time? (a) Orange and blue (b) White and black (c) Yellow and blue (d) Red and green Ans: ( d ) Red and green 40. In a human body, the longest bone is in the (a) Vertebral column (b) Thigh (c) Rib cage (d) Arm Ans: ( b ) Thigh 41. Where did the miniature Bani Thani paintings of Indian heritage develop? (a) Guler (b) Mewar (c) Bundi (d) Kishengarh Ans: ( d ) Kishengarh 42. Match the artists and their artforms : Artists Artforms (A) Ustad Allaud-din Khan (1) Bharat natyam (B) Hema Malini (2) Sarod (C) Birju Maharaj (3) Santoor (D) Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma (4) Kathak dance (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (1) (3) (2) (4) (b) (2) (4) (3) (1) (c) (3) (2) (4) (1) (d) (2) (1) (4) (3) Ans: ( d ) (2) (1) (4) (3) 43. A training ship of the Indian Navy, controlled through sails, left on a sixteen month goodwill mission around the world in January 2003. which is that ship? (a) INS Tarangini (b) INS Garuda (c) INS Tir (d) INS Godavari Ans: ( a ) INS Tarangini 44. The headquarters of UNESCO is in (a) New York (b) The Hague (c) Paris (d) Moscow Ans: ( c ) Paris 45. Bronze is an alloy of (a) Copper and Zinc (b) Tin and Zinc (c) Copper and Tin (d) Iron and Zinc Ans: ( c ) Copper and Tin 46. The natural source of hydrocarbon is (a) Crude oil (b) Biomass (c) Coal (d) Carbohydrates Ans: ( a ) Crude oil 47. Which of the following is chiefly present in LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas)? (a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Propane (d) Butane Ans: ( a ) Methane 48. Which British Governor-General introduced Postage Stamp in India? (a) Lord Dalhousie (b) Lord Auckland (c) Lord Canning (d) Lord William Bentinck Ans: ( a ) Lord Dalhousie 49. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was opened in (a) 1852 (b) 1853 (c) 1854 (d) 1855 Ans: ( b ) 1853 50. The famous rock-cut temple of kailasa is at (a) Ajanta (b) Badami (c) Mahabalipuram (d) Ellora Ans: ( d ) Badami 51. World Environment Day falls on (a) June 5 (b) October 2 (c) November 10 (d) November 19 Ans: ( a ) June 5 52. The original name of Swami Dayananda Saraswati was (a) Abhi Shankar (b) Gowri Shankar (c) Daya Shankar (d) Mula Shankar Ans: ( d ) Mula Shankar 53. An element which does not react with oxygen is (a) Chlorine (b) Iodine (c) Helium (d) Nitrogen Ans: ( c ) Helium 54. The instrument that measures and records the relative humadity of air is (a) Hydrometer (b) Hygrometer (c) Lactometer (d) Barometer Ans: ( b ) Hygrometer 55. The shape of our milky way galaxy is (a) Circular (b) Elliptical (c) Spiral (d) None of the above Ans: ( c ) Spiral 56. The different colours of different stars are due to the variation of (a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Density (d) Radiation from them Ans: ( a ) Temperature 57. Coastal Andhra Pradesh and Orissa often face natural disasters due to (a) Cyclones (b) Earthquakes (c) Landslides (d) Tornadoes Ans: ( a ) Cyclones 58. Sex ratio refers to the number of women (a) Per sq. km. In relation to the males (b) Per 1,000 males (c) Per state in relation to the males (d) And the number of men in an area Ans: ( b ) Per 1,000 males 59. River Damodar is called ?Sorrow of Bengal? because it (a) Gets flooded often causing havoc (b) Causes maximum soil erosion (c) Forms number of dangerous waterfalls (d) Is not a perennial river Ans: ( a ) Gets flooded often causing havoc 60. ?Radcliff line? is a boundary line between (a) India and Bangladesh (b) India and Bhutan (c) India and China (d) India and Pakistan Ans: ( d ) India and Pakistan 61. From which constitution of the world, the Indian Constitution has adopted the concept of ?Directive Principles of State Policy? ? (a) Ireland (b) U.S.A. (c) Canada (d) Australia Ans: ( a ) Ireland 62. Which of the following is not an administrative function of a Village Panchayat? (a) Providing sanitation and drainage (b) Providing burial and cremation grounds (c) Providing college education (d) Maintenance of roads, tanks and wells Ans: ( c ) Providing college education 63. The Swadeshi Movement was launched (a) As a protest against the division of Bengal (b) With a view to improve the economic condition of the people by encouraging consumption of Indian goods (c) As a protest against the massacre of Indian people at Jallianwala Bagh (d) Due to the failure of the British government to introduce responsible Government in India Ans: ( a ) As a protest against the division of Bengal 64. The concept of political sovereignty was advocated by (a) Plato (b) John Locke (c) Rousseau (d) Austin Ans: ( c ) Rousseau 65. The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was (a) Nargis Dutt (b) Shabana Azmi (c) Madhubala (d) Meena Kumari Ans: ( a ) Nargis Dutt 66. Which of the following groups suffers the most from high inflation ? (a) Debtors (b) Creditors (c) Business class (d) Holders of real assets Ans: ( b ) Creditors 67. An economy is in equilibrium when (a) Planned consumption exceeds planned saving (b) Planned consumption exceeds planned investment (c) Intended investment equals intended saving (d) Intended investment exceeds intended saving Ans: ( c ) Intended investment equals intended saving 68. The best way in which a bank can avoid loss is to (a) Lend only to individuals known to the bank (b) Accept sound collateral (c) Give only short-term loans (d) Lend only to bank?s old customers Ans: ( b ) Accept sound collateral 69. Which one of the following is left when an hydrogen atom loses its electron? (a) An alpha particle (b) A neutron (c) A proton (d) A beta particle Ans: ( c ) A proton 70. The fundamental scientific principle in the operation of a battery is (a) Acid-base interaction (b) Dialysis (c) Dissociation of electrolytes (d) Oxidation-reduction Ans: ( d ) Oxidation-reduction 71. ?Dykes? are especially constructed in (a) Norway (b) Holland (c) France (d) United Kingdom Ans: ( b ) Holland 72. Colorado in U.S.A. is famous for which of the following landforms? (a) Grand Canyon (b) Grand Craors (c) Great Valleys (d) Great Basins Ans: ( a ) Grand Canyon 73. Daily weather changes in the atmosphere are associated with (a) Troposphere (b) Mesosphere (c) Ionosphere (d) Stratosphere Ans: ( a ) Troposphere 74. Epigraphy means (a) The study of coins (b) The study of inscriptions (c) The study of epics (d) The study of geography Ans: ( b ) The study of inscriptions 75. The 19th century reawakening in India was confined to the (a) Priestly class (b) Upper middle class (c) Rich peasantry (d) Urban landlords Ans: ( b ) Upper middle class 76. Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament ? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (c) Bipin Chandra Pal (d) Lala Lajpat Rai Ans: ( a ) Dadabhai Naoroji 77. Who introduced the permanent settlement in Bengal ? (a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord William Bentinck (d) Lord Curzon Ans: ( a ) Lord Cornwallis 78. Which one of the following metals is used to galvaniese iron (a) Copper (b) Lead (c) Zinc (d) Mercury Ans: ( c ) Zinc 79. The Instrument used to measure the force and velocity of the wind is (a) Ammeter (b) Anemometer (c) Altimeter (d) Audiometer Ans: ( b ) Anemometer 80. To whom can a case of dispute in the election of the President of India be referred to ? (a) Election Commission (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court of India (d) Cabinet Ans: ( c ) Supreme Court of India 81. Which company invented the transistor radio? (a) Sony (b) Texas Instuments (c) Panasonic (d) Telstra Ans: ( b ) Texas Instuments 82. Which amidst the following rural banks has been named after a river ? (a) Prathama Bank (b) Varada Grameen Bank (c) Thar Anchalik Grameen Bank (d) Aravali Kehetriya Grameen Bank Ans: ( b ) Varada Grameen Bank 83. The ?Residuary Powers? (not mentioned in the Union, State or Concurrent lists of the Constitution) are vested in (a) President of India (b) Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha (c) State Legislature (d) Lok Sabha Ans: ( d ) Lok Sabha 84. Plural Theory of Sovereignty emphasizes the importance of (a) State (b) Religion (c) Individuals (d) Associations Ans: ( d ) Associations 85. The war criminals of the Second World War were put to trial in (a) Nuremburg (b) Peiter?sburg (c) Gettysburg (d) Peisburg Ans: ( a ) Nuremburg 86. Indian Institute of Petroleum is located in (a) Visakhapatnam (b) Delhi (c) Dehradun (d) Chennai Ans: ( c ) Dehradun 87. Hay fever is a sign of (a) Malnutrition (b) Allergy (c) Old age (d) Over work Ans: ( b ) Allergy 88. The branch of agriculture which deals with the feeding, shelter, health and breeding of the domestic animals is called (a) Dairy science (b) Veterinary Science (c) Poultry (d) Animal Husbandry Ans: ( d ) Animal Husbandry 89. Which foreign country is closest to Andaman Islands ? (a) Sri Lanka (b) Myanmar (c) Indonesia (d) Pakistan Ans: ( b ) Myanmar 90. Article 243 of the Constitution of India inserted by a Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following ? (a) Extending the benefits of Reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission Recommendations (b) Land Reforms (c) To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages (d) Panchayati Raj System Ans: ( d ) Panchayati Raj System 91. Which of the following Craftsmanships was not practiced by the Aryans ? (a) Pottery (b) Jewellery (c) Carpentry (d) Blacksmith Ans: ( a ) Pottery 92. If the price of an inferior good falls, then its demand (a) Rises (b) Falls (c) Remains constant (d) Can be any of the above Ans: ( d ) Can be any of the above 93. The Marginal Utility Curve slopes downwards from left to right indicating (a) A direct relationship between marginal utility and the stock of commodity (b) A constant relationship between marginal utility and the stock of commodity (c) A proportionate relationship between marginal utility and the stock of commodity (d) An inverse relationship between marginal utility and the stock of commodity Ans: ( a ) A direct relationship between marginal utility and the stock of commodity 94. Mohammed-bin-Qasim conquered Sind in the year (a) 712 A.D. (b) 812 A.D. (c) 912 A.D. (d) 1012 A.D. Ans: ( a ) 712 A.D. 95. Shahjahan built the Moti Masjid at (a) Delhi (b) Jaipur (c) Agra (d) Amarkot Ans: ( c ) Agra 96. The sales-line ?Owner?s pride, neighbours envy? is related to (a) BPL TV (b) Samsung TV (c) Videocon TV (d) Onida TV Ans: ( d ) Onida TV 97. For oil and gas security, India has invested in production fields abroad. In which of the following production companies do the Indian PSUs hold shares? (a) Saudi Aram Co. (b) Sakhalin-I (c) Petronas (d) Chevron Texa Co. Ans: ( b ) Sakhalin-I 98. The words ?Satyameva Jayate? in the State Emblem of India were taken from (a) Upanishads (b) Samaveda (c) Rigveda (d) Ramayana Ans: ( a ) Upanishads 99. Edward Jenner is associated with (a) Cholera (b) Typhoid (c) Small pox (d) Paralysis Ans: ( c ) Small pox 100. A plant with compound leaves is (a) Papaya (b) Coconut Palm (c) Peepal (d) Hibiscus Ans: ( b ) Coconut Palm 101. The scientist who explained about blood circulation for the first time was (a) Antonyvan Leewen Hock (b) William Harvey (c) Gregor Mendel (d) Ronald Ross Ans: ( b ) William Harvey 102. The earliest city discovered in India was (a) Harappa (b) Punjab (c) Mohenjadaro (d) Sindh Ans: ( d ) Sindh 103. Very strong and cold icy winds that blow in the Polar regions are called (a) Typhoons (b) Tornadoes (c) Blizzards (d) Polar winds Ans: ( d ) Polar winds 104. How does the consumer benefit with VAT? (a) It removes tax on tax and thus reduces price-rise (b) It reduces the cost of production (c) Due to the abolition of the sales tax (d) Due to the exemption of small business from the tax within certain limits prescribed by the State Ans: ( c ) Due to the abolition of the sales tax 105. Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune because (a) Mumbai is on the windward side (b) Pune is at a greater elevation (c) Mumbai is a coastal city (d) Pune has greater vegetation than Mumbai Ans: ( a ) Mumbai is on the windward side NUMERICAL ABILITY : 106. The value of 52 + 62 + ???.. + 102 + 202 (a) 755 (b) 760 (c) 765 (d) 770 Ans: ( a ) 755 107. The sum of the first 8 terms of a geometric progression is 6560 and the common ratio is 3. The first term is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Ans: ( b ) 2 108. How many even three-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 1, 2, 5, 6 and 9 without repeating any of the digits ? (a) 120 (b) 48 (c) 40 (d) 24 Ans: ( d ) 24 109. A and B, working separately, can do a piece of work in 10 and 15 days respectively. If they work on alternate days beginning with A, then in how many days will the work be completed? (a) 18 days (b) 13 days (c) 12 days (d) 6 days Ans: ( c ) 12 days 110. Two pipes can fill a tank separately in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in (a) 10 minutes (b) 12 minutes (c) 15 minutes (d) 25 minutes Ans: ( b ) 12 minutes 111. A can complete a work in 6 days while B can complete the same work in 12 days. If they work together and complete it, then the portion of the work done by A is (a) 1/3 (b) 2/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/2 Ans: ( b ) 2/3 112. If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 50% and the height is increased by 50% to form a new cylinder, then the volume will be decreased by (a) 0% (b) 25% (c) 62.5% (d) 75% Ans: ( c ) 62.5% 113. The circum-radius of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm. The in-radius of the triangle is (a) 3.25 cm (b) 3.50 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 4.25 cm Ans: ( c ) 4 cm 114. The missing term in the sequence 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, ?.., 48 (a) 35 (b) 30 (c) 36 (d) 39 Ans: ( a ) 35 115. If (1012 + 25)2 ? (1012 ? 25)2 = 10n, then the value of n is (a) 20 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 5 Ans: ( b ) 14 116. The sum of first sixty numbers from one to sixty is divisible by (a) 13 (b) 59 (c) 60 (d) 61 Ans: ( d ) 61 117. A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to a single discount of (a) 50.0% (b) 56.8% (c) 60.2% (d) 70.28% Ans: ( b ) 56.8% 118. A sells a scooter priced at Rs. 36,000. He gives a discount of 8% on the first Rs. 20,000 and 5% on the next Rs. 10,000. How much discount can he afford on the remaining Rs. 6,000 if he is to get as much s 7% discount on the total ? (a) 5% (b) 6% (c) 7% (d) 8% Ans: ( c ) 7% 119. The marked price of an electric iron is Rs. 690. The shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% and gains 8%. If no discount is allowed, then his gain percent would be (a) 20% (b) 24% (c) 25% (d) 28% Ans: ( a ) 20% 120. The ratio of the ages of two boys is 5 : 6. After two years the ratio will be 7 : 8. The ratio of their ages after 10 years will be (a) 15 : 16 (b) 17 : 18 (c) 11 : 12 (d) 22 : 24 Ans: ( a ) 15 : 16 121. The sum of three numbers is 116. The ratio of the second to the third is 9 : 16 and of the first to the third is 1 : 4. The second number is (a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 34 (d) 36 Ans: ( b ) 32 122. Rs. 180 are to be divided among 66 persons (men and women). The ratio of the total amount of money received by men and women is 5 : 4. But the ratio of the money received by each man and woman is 3 : 2. The number of men is (a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 30 (d) 36 Ans: ( d ) 36 123. The average of a collection of 20 measurements was calculated to be 56 cm. But later it was found that a mistake had occurred in one of the measurements which was recorded as 64 cm, but should have been 61 cm. The correct average must be (a) 53 cm (b) 54.5 cm (c) 55.85 cm (d) 56.15 cm Ans: ( c ) 55.85 cm 124. The average weight of 12 parcels is 1.8 kg. Addition of another new parcel reduces the average weight by 50 g. What is the weight of the new parcel? (a) 1.50 kg (b) 1.10 kg (c) 1.15 kg (d) 1.01 kg Ans: ( c ) 1.15 kg 125. The average age of 20 boys in a class is 12 years. 5 new boys are admitted to the class whose average age is 7 years. The average age of the boys in the class becomes (a) 8.2 years (b) 9.5 years (c) 12.5 years (d) 11 years Ans: ( d ) 11 years 126. If 3x+3 + 7 = 250, the x is equal to (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 Ans: ( c ) 2 127. A die with faces numbered from 1 to 6 is thrown twice. The probability, that the numbers shown up differ by 2, is (a) 1/9 (b) 2/9 (c) 3/9 (d) 4/9 Ans: ( b ) 2/9 128. In the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 15, 20, 29, 40, 53, one number is wrong. The wrong number is (a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 29 (d) 40 Ans: ( a ) 15 129. 1 + 2 + 3 + ??. + 49 + 50 + 49 + 48 + ??. + 3 + 2 + 1 is equal to (a) 1250 (b) 2500 (c) 2525 (d) 5000 Ans: ( b ) 2500 130. The surface area of a sphere is 64 cm2 its diameter is equal to (a) 16 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 2 cm Ans: ( b ) 8 cm 131. Each of the height and base radius of a cone is increased by 100%. The percentage increase in the volume of the cone is (a) 700% (b) 400% (c) 300% (d) 100% Ans: ( a ) 700% 132. A television and a refrigerator were sold for Rs. 12,000 each. If the television was sold at a loss of 20% of the cost and the refrigerator at a gain of 20% of the cost, then the entire transaction resulted in (a) No loss or gain (b) Loss of rs. 1,000 (c) Gain of rs. 1,000 (d) Loss of Rs. 1,200 Ans: ( b ) Loss of rs. 1,000 133. A person sells a table at a profit of 10%. If he had bought the table at 5% less cost and sold for Rs. 80 more, then he would have gained 20%. The cost price of the table is (a) Rs. 3,200 (b) Rs. 2,500 (c) Rs. 2,000 (d) Rs. 200 Ans: ( c ) Rs. 2,000 134. By selling an article at 2/3 of the marked price, there is a loss of 10%. The profit percent, when the article is sold at the marked price, is (a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 35% (d) 40% Ans: ( c ) 35% 135. A moving train, 66 metres long, overtakes another train 88 metres long, moving in the same direction in 0.168 minutes. If the second train is moving at 30 km/r, then at what speed is the first train moving ? (a) 85 km/hr (b) 50 km/hr (c) 55 km/hr (d) 25 km/hr Ans: ( a ) 85 km/hr 136. A man observed that a train 120 m long crossed him in 9 seconds. The speed (in km/hr) of the train was (a) 42 (b) 45 (c) 48 (d) 55 Ans: ( c ) 48 137. A constable is 114 metres behind a thief. The constable runs 21 metres and the thief 15 metres in a minute. In what time will the constable catch the thief ? (a) 19 minutes (b) 18 minutes (c) 17 minutes (d) 16 minutes Ans: ( a ) 19 minutes 138. Joseph?s salary is reduced by 10%. In order to have his salary back to his original amount, it must be raised by (a) 12.5% (b) 11 1/9 % (c) 10% (d) 11% Ans: ( b ) 11 1/9 % 139. How many positive integers less than 1000 are multiples of 11 whose square roots are whole numbers ? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 11 Ans: ( a ) 2 140. The digit in the unit?s place of the product (2137) 754 is (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 9 Ans: ( d ) 9 141. The smallest square number divisible by 10, 16 and 24 is (a) 900 (b) 1600 (c) 2500 (d) 3600 Ans: ( d ) 3600 142. If the compound interest on a sum of money for 3 years at the rate of 5% per annum is Rs. 252.20, then the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate and for the same time is (a) Rs. 220 (b) Rs. 240 (c) Rs. 245 (d) Rs. 250 Ans: ( b ) Rs. 240 143. On a certain sum of money, the compound interest for 2 years is Rs. 282.15 and the simple interest for the same period of time is Rs. 270. The rate of interest per annum is (a) 6.07% (b) 10% (c) 9% (d) 12.15% Ans: ( c ) 9% 144. What sum of money at compound interest will amount to Rs. 650 at the end of the first year and Rs. 676 at the end of the second year ? (a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 600.25 (c) Rs. 625 (d) Rs. 625.25 Ans: ( c ) Rs. 625 145. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C together in 15 days and C and A together in 20 days. In how many days, can A, B and C together do it ? (a) 5 days (b) 10 days (c) 24 days (d) 30 days Ans: ( b ) 10 days 146. The measures of the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 7 : 11. Measures of the angles are (a) 160, 560, 880 (b) 180, 630, 990 (c) 200, 700, 900 (d) 250, 1750, 1050 Ans: ( b ) 180, 630, 990 147. The ratio of the cost price and the selling price of an article is 5 : 6. What is the percentage of profit ? (a) 20% (b) 15% (c) 12.5% (d) 10% Ans: ( a ) 20% 148. Which number is 40% less than 90 ? (a) 36 (b) 54 (c) 50 (d) 60 Ans: ( b ) 54 149. (32)3 + (79)3 ? (111)3 + 3 x 32 x 79 x 111 is equal to (a) 10000 (b) 0 (c) 30007 (d) 1 Ans: ( b ) 0 150. If the ratio of two numbers is 2 : 3 and their L.C.M. is 54, then the sum of the two numbers is (a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 45 (d) 270 Ans: ( c ) 45 151. The population of a village has increased annually at the rate of 25%. If at the end of 3 years it is 10000, then the population in the beginning of the first year was (a) 5120 (b) 5000 (c) 4900 (d) 4500 Ans: ( a ) 5120 152. A moving train passes a platform 50 metres long in 14 seconds and a lamp-post in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is (a) 24 km/hr (b) 36 km/hr (c) 40 km/hr (d) 45 km/hr Ans: ( d ) 45 km/hr 153. A man walks a certain distance and rides back in 4 hours 30 minutes. He could ride both ways in 3 hours. The time required by the man to walk both ways is (a) 4 hours 30 minutes (b) 4 hours 45 minutes (c) 5 hours (d) 6 hours Ans: ( d ) 6 hours 154. The ratio of the two numbers is 4 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 120. The numbers are (a) 30, 40 (b) 40, 32 (c) 24, 30 (d) 36, 20 Ans: ( c ) 24, 30 155. A mixture of 30 litres contains milk and water in the ratio 7 : 3. How much water should be added to it so that the ratio of milk and water becomes 3 : 7 ? (a) 40 litres (b) 49 litres (c) 56 litres (d) 63 litres Ans: ( a ) 40 litres
Tuesday, July 27, 2010
PENDING ALLOCATION CGL 2008 NOTICE
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
Allocation of States/UTs to the finally selected candidates for the post of Auditors /Junior
Accountants and Divisional Accountant under Scheme ‘B’ of Combined Graduate Level
Examination, 2008
The final result of Combined Graduate Level Examination,2008 for the post of Divisional
Accountant and Auditors/ Junior Accountants under Scheme ‘B’ was declared on 23.4.2010 and
the state-wise allocation of the selected candidates was posted on Commission’s website
05.05.2010 and 24.5.2010 respectively wherein it was inter-alia stated that allocation of nonallocated
candidates would be made in due course .
2. While finalising the allocation of States Commission had decided to consider a reserve
category candidate qualifying at UR standards for allocation to his/her State against the first
available reserved vacancy in case all UR vacancies of the State get exhausted. This was done
so that a meritorious reserved category candidate is not put to disadvantage due to qualifying at
unreserved standard. Due to this reason, allocation in respect of lower ranking reserved
candidates (345 candidates for the post of Auditors/ Junior Accountants and 21 candidates for
the post of Divisional Accountants) could not be done. To resolve the matter as early as
possible, vacancy position is being accessed and the matter is under active consideration of the
Commission.
3. All the regional offices of the Commission have also been advised to access the vacancy
position. As soon as the consolidation of all the vacancies is finalized, the allocation of the
pending cases will be done.
(Satya Prakash)
Under Secretary (C.I)
26.7.2010
Allocation of States/UTs to the finally selected candidates for the post of Auditors /Junior
Accountants and Divisional Accountant under Scheme ‘B’ of Combined Graduate Level
Examination, 2008
The final result of Combined Graduate Level Examination,2008 for the post of Divisional
Accountant and Auditors/ Junior Accountants under Scheme ‘B’ was declared on 23.4.2010 and
the state-wise allocation of the selected candidates was posted on Commission’s website
05.05.2010 and 24.5.2010 respectively wherein it was inter-alia stated that allocation of nonallocated
candidates would be made in due course .
2. While finalising the allocation of States Commission had decided to consider a reserve
category candidate qualifying at UR standards for allocation to his/her State against the first
available reserved vacancy in case all UR vacancies of the State get exhausted. This was done
so that a meritorious reserved category candidate is not put to disadvantage due to qualifying at
unreserved standard. Due to this reason, allocation in respect of lower ranking reserved
candidates (345 candidates for the post of Auditors/ Junior Accountants and 21 candidates for
the post of Divisional Accountants) could not be done. To resolve the matter as early as
possible, vacancy position is being accessed and the matter is under active consideration of the
Commission.
3. All the regional offices of the Commission have also been advised to access the vacancy
position. As soon as the consolidation of all the vacancies is finalized, the allocation of the
pending cases will be done.
(Satya Prakash)
Under Secretary (C.I)
26.7.2010
Saturday, July 24, 2010
staff selection commission update news
hello friends we are going to start staff selection commission news alert if you want to join us please follow our site and stay in touch for getting ssc news you can ask us questions. It is your power that give us stranth please comment us or email us for any advice. we shall accept your advice thanks for comming here
Friday, July 23, 2010
COMMENTS ON TIER II
WE ARE LOOKING FOR STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION GRADUATE LEVEL TIER II EXAM. IF YOU ARE GOING TO APPER THE ABOVE SAID EXAM. WE WANTS YOUR COMMENTS ON SSC TIER II EXAM. WE KNOW THERE IS 6200 VACANCY IN THIS EXAM OTHER THAN CPO SI (2000 VACANCY) WHAT YOU THINK WILL BE OVERALL CUTOFF MARKS FOR INTERVIW PLESE COMMENT ABOUT THIS. Let's guess
CPO EXAM FEMALE 2009 CUTOFF MARKS FOR INTERVIEW
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors in CPOs Examination, 2009.
Declaration of result of written examination
for calling the female candidates for Interview.
Staff Selection Commission conducted the Central Police Organizations Examination,
2009 on 06.09.2009 for recruitment to the post of Sub-Inspectors in Central Police
Organizations (CPOs) for which written result was declared on 30.4.2010 wherein it was,
inter-alia, mentioned that result in respect of female candidates whose additional list was
issued on 25.3.2010 and those candidates whose review medical was yet to be held would be
declared subsequently applying the same standard /cut-off.
2. The Commission has now finalized the result of such candidates and following is the
details of 56 (55 female+01 male) candidates who have been declared successful in the
written Part (Paper-I+II) and found medically fit, for being called for the Interview.
3. As per the cut-off earlier fixed by the Commission, the number of female candidates
who have qualified for interview is as under:-
Category SC ST OBC UR TOTAL
Cut-off marks out of
500
168 168 168 185 --
Candidates available 14 04 31 06 55
4. One male candidate namely Shri Ravindra Kumar, Roll No.3010000261 (OBC-male)
who had been found medically fit in re-medical has also qualified in the written examination
on the same cut-off as fixed for the category and is eligible for being called for interview.
5. This list is PROVISIONAL. The candidates whose roll numbers figure in the list would
be called for Interview subject to their fulfilling all the eligibility conditions/requirements as
prescribed for the post in the 'Notice' of this Examination.
6. The category status in respect of candidates belonging to the reserve category has
been indicated along with their roll numbers. It is important for such candidates for whom
certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per the policy of the Government, to note that
some of them may have been declared qualified for the Interview in the category mentioned
against their roll numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category
mentioned against his/her roll number, he/she may not be eligible to be called for the
Interview. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to contact immediately
the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong
to the categories shown against their roll numbers.
7. The interview schedule of the short-listed candidates would be finalized shortly and
call letters would be issued by the respective Regional Offices of Commission in due course.
The list of candidates herein is also available on the Commission's Website:
http://ssc.nic.in
(Satya Prakash)
Under Secretary (C.I)
22.07.2010
Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors in CPOs Examination, 2009.
Declaration of result of written examination
for calling the female candidates for Interview.
Staff Selection Commission conducted the Central Police Organizations Examination,
2009 on 06.09.2009 for recruitment to the post of Sub-Inspectors in Central Police
Organizations (CPOs) for which written result was declared on 30.4.2010 wherein it was,
inter-alia, mentioned that result in respect of female candidates whose additional list was
issued on 25.3.2010 and those candidates whose review medical was yet to be held would be
declared subsequently applying the same standard /cut-off.
2. The Commission has now finalized the result of such candidates and following is the
details of 56 (55 female+01 male) candidates who have been declared successful in the
written Part (Paper-I+II) and found medically fit, for being called for the Interview.
3. As per the cut-off earlier fixed by the Commission, the number of female candidates
who have qualified for interview is as under:-
Category SC ST OBC UR TOTAL
Cut-off marks out of
500
168 168 168 185 --
Candidates available 14 04 31 06 55
4. One male candidate namely Shri Ravindra Kumar, Roll No.3010000261 (OBC-male)
who had been found medically fit in re-medical has also qualified in the written examination
on the same cut-off as fixed for the category and is eligible for being called for interview.
5. This list is PROVISIONAL. The candidates whose roll numbers figure in the list would
be called for Interview subject to their fulfilling all the eligibility conditions/requirements as
prescribed for the post in the 'Notice' of this Examination.
6. The category status in respect of candidates belonging to the reserve category has
been indicated along with their roll numbers. It is important for such candidates for whom
certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per the policy of the Government, to note that
some of them may have been declared qualified for the Interview in the category mentioned
against their roll numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category
mentioned against his/her roll number, he/she may not be eligible to be called for the
Interview. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to contact immediately
the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong
to the categories shown against their roll numbers.
7. The interview schedule of the short-listed candidates would be finalized shortly and
call letters would be issued by the respective Regional Offices of Commission in due course.
The list of candidates herein is also available on the Commission's Website:
http://ssc.nic.in
(Satya Prakash)
Under Secretary (C.I)
22.07.2010
Thursday, July 22, 2010
TIER II MATH MODEL PAPER
1. The LCM of 2/9, 4/15 & 1/30 is how many times the HCF of 7/15, 21/40 & 14/15?
1. 160/7
2. 7/160
3. 120/7
4. 90/7
2. 0.0874 + 1.236 - 0.0012 + ? = 1.489
1. 0.1568
2. 0.1578
3. -0.1668
4. 0.1658
3. 30% of 300 - 40% of 400 + 50% of 500 = ?
1. 1800
2. 180
3. 18
4. 18000
4. If 243 x 162 = 39366, then 3936.600 ÷ 0.243 = ?
1. 1620
2. 16200
3. 162
4. 162000
5. 114.01 + 222.01 + ? = 400
1. 63.98
2. 43.78
3. 736.02
4. -53.98
6. The difference between the circumference and the radius of a circle is 37 cm (use p = 22 / 7). The diameter of the circle is
1. 7 cm
2. 14 cm
3. 33 cm
4. 37 cm
7. The LCM of two multiples of 12 is 1056. If one of the numbers is 132, the other number should be
1. 12
2. 72
3. 96
4. Data inadequate
8. The average of seven results is 5; the average of first three is 3, and that of the last three is 7. The fourth result is
1. 6
2. 5
3. 4
4. 3
9. A man walking at the speed of 4 kmph crosses a square field diagonally in 3 minutes. The areaof the field is
1. 20000 sq m
2. 25000 sq m
3. 18000 sq m
4. 19000 sq m
10. The area of a rectangular field is 144 sq m. If the length is increased by 5 m, its area increases by 40 sq m. The length of the field is
1. 12 m
2. 14.4 m
3. 16 m
4. 18 m
11. A, B and C are partners and make a profit of Rs. 4800 which is distributed among them in the ratio 6:5:4. The difference of the amounts A and C received is
1. Rs. 640
2. Rs. 1290
3. Rs. 1280
4. Rs. 1600
12. A, B, & C enter into a partnership with investments in the ratio 3:4:9. If at the end of the year, B's share of profit is Rs. 6175, what is the total profit?
1. Rs. 24300
2. Rs. 24600
3. Rs. 24700
4. Rs. 24100
13. X and Y enter into a partnership. X contributes Rs. 8000 and Y contributes Rs. 10000. At the end of six months they introduce Z, who contributes Rs. 6000. After the lapse of three years, they find that the firm has made a profit of Rs. 9660. Find the share of each.(in Rs.)
1. X-3240, Y-4200, Z-2200
2. X-3360, Y-4400, Z-2100
3. X-3360, Y-4200, Z-2100
4. 3260, Y-4000, Z-2200
14. Umedh Singh and Zorawar Singh invested in a business. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio 2:3. If Umedh Singh invested Rs. 24, the amount invested by Zorawar Singh was
1. Rs. 36
2. Rs. 16
3. Rs. 30
4. Rs. 48
15. Abdul and Aamir invest respectively Rs. 30000 and Rs. 40000 in a business. Abdul receives Rs. 100 per month out of the profit for running the business and the rest of the profit is divided in proportion to the investments. If in a year Abdul totally receives Rs. 3900, what does Aamir receive?
1. Rs. 3500 2. Rs. 3600
3. Rs. 3900
4. Rs. 4200
16. 7 women and 6 men can do what 4 men and 11 women can do in the same time. 19 women can do the same job in how much time?
1. Same
2. Half
3. One-third
4. Two-third
17. If A can walk a certain distance in 40 days when he takes rest 9 hours each day; how much long will he take to walk the same distance twice as fast and rest twice as long each day?
1. 50 days
2. 45 days
3. 38 days
4. 16 days
18. If 20 men or 25 women or 30 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days by working 10 hours a day, then how many men with 10 women and 18 boys can do 3 ¼ times the same work in 26 days by working 8 hours daily?
1. 35 men
2. 30 men
3. 40 men
4. 48 men
19. Some persons can do a job in 12 days. Two times the number of those persons will do half of that job in
1. 6 days
2. 4 days
3. 12 days
4. 3 days
20. 400 men working 9 hrs a day complete ¼ th of the work in 10 days. The number of additional men, working 8 hrs a day, required to done the remaining work in 20 days is
1. 675
2. 275
3. 250
4. 225
21. 25% of 240 will be how much more than 33.33% of 180?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 6
4. Nil
22. 350% of a number is what percent of 250% of that number?
1. 40%
2. 44%
3. 140%
4. 71%
23. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width decreased by 20%, the area of therectangle will
1. Decrease by 4%
2. Increase by 4%
3. Decrease by 1%
4. Not change at all
24. A shopkeeper increases the price of a commodity by 25% and again increases it by 20%. The net percent increase is
1. 45%
2. 40%
3. 50%
4. 47%
25. The cost of a pant is 60% of the cost of a coat and 300% of the cost of a shirt. If all three cost Rs. 2160, the cost of the shirt will be
1. Rs. 290
2. Rs. 280
3. Rs. 360
4. Rs. 240
26. If sold for Rs. 247.50, an object gives a profit of 12.5%. The cost price is
1. Rs. 210
2. Rs. 220
3. Rs. 224
4. Rs. 225
27. A fruit seller purchases oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 5 and sells them at 2 for Rs. 4. His profit in the transaction is
1. 20%
2. 25%
3. 15%
4. 10%
28. A merchant sold his goods for Rs. 75 at a profit percent equal to the cost price. His cost price is
1. Rs. 50
2. Rs. 60
3. Rs. 80
4. Rs. 100
29. A man buys an article at ¾ th of its value and sells it for 20% more than its value. His profit based on the cost is
1. 45%
2. 50%
3. 60%
4. 75%
30. The LCM of numbers 12, 18, & 24 is how much more than their HCF?
1. 66
2. 69
3. 70
4. 72
31. Find the minimum number of square tiles of equal size for the floor of a room which is 1 m 4 dm 7 cm long and 1 m 8 dm 2 cm wide.
1. 250
2. 266
3. 140
4. 145
32. The average of first five prime numbers is
1. 5.40
2. 5.70
3. 5.60
4. 5.80
33. The average weight of 8 men is increased by 1.5 kg when one of them who weighs 65 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man is
1. 76 kg
2. 76.5 kg
3. 76.7 kg
4. 77 kg
34. A man distributed Rs. 100 equally among his friends. If there had been five more friends, each would have received one rupee less. How many friends did he have?
1. 20
2. 30
3. 40
4. 50
35. In an exam, the average was found to be 50 marks. After detecting computer errors, the marks of 100 candidates had to be changed from 90 to 60 each and the average came down to 45. The total number of candidates who took the exam was
1. 600
2. 700
3. 500
4. 400
Answers
1. 15221 6. 23214 11. 13312 16. 11242 21. 43134 26. 21131 31. 53411
1. 160/7
2. 7/160
3. 120/7
4. 90/7
2. 0.0874 + 1.236 - 0.0012 + ? = 1.489
1. 0.1568
2. 0.1578
3. -0.1668
4. 0.1658
3. 30% of 300 - 40% of 400 + 50% of 500 = ?
1. 1800
2. 180
3. 18
4. 18000
4. If 243 x 162 = 39366, then 3936.600 ÷ 0.243 = ?
1. 1620
2. 16200
3. 162
4. 162000
5. 114.01 + 222.01 + ? = 400
1. 63.98
2. 43.78
3. 736.02
4. -53.98
6. The difference between the circumference and the radius of a circle is 37 cm (use p = 22 / 7). The diameter of the circle is
1. 7 cm
2. 14 cm
3. 33 cm
4. 37 cm
7. The LCM of two multiples of 12 is 1056. If one of the numbers is 132, the other number should be
1. 12
2. 72
3. 96
4. Data inadequate
8. The average of seven results is 5; the average of first three is 3, and that of the last three is 7. The fourth result is
1. 6
2. 5
3. 4
4. 3
9. A man walking at the speed of 4 kmph crosses a square field diagonally in 3 minutes. The areaof the field is
1. 20000 sq m
2. 25000 sq m
3. 18000 sq m
4. 19000 sq m
10. The area of a rectangular field is 144 sq m. If the length is increased by 5 m, its area increases by 40 sq m. The length of the field is
1. 12 m
2. 14.4 m
3. 16 m
4. 18 m
11. A, B and C are partners and make a profit of Rs. 4800 which is distributed among them in the ratio 6:5:4. The difference of the amounts A and C received is
1. Rs. 640
2. Rs. 1290
3. Rs. 1280
4. Rs. 1600
12. A, B, & C enter into a partnership with investments in the ratio 3:4:9. If at the end of the year, B's share of profit is Rs. 6175, what is the total profit?
1. Rs. 24300
2. Rs. 24600
3. Rs. 24700
4. Rs. 24100
13. X and Y enter into a partnership. X contributes Rs. 8000 and Y contributes Rs. 10000. At the end of six months they introduce Z, who contributes Rs. 6000. After the lapse of three years, they find that the firm has made a profit of Rs. 9660. Find the share of each.(in Rs.)
1. X-3240, Y-4200, Z-2200
2. X-3360, Y-4400, Z-2100
3. X-3360, Y-4200, Z-2100
4. 3260, Y-4000, Z-2200
14. Umedh Singh and Zorawar Singh invested in a business. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio 2:3. If Umedh Singh invested Rs. 24, the amount invested by Zorawar Singh was
1. Rs. 36
2. Rs. 16
3. Rs. 30
4. Rs. 48
15. Abdul and Aamir invest respectively Rs. 30000 and Rs. 40000 in a business. Abdul receives Rs. 100 per month out of the profit for running the business and the rest of the profit is divided in proportion to the investments. If in a year Abdul totally receives Rs. 3900, what does Aamir receive?
1. Rs. 3500 2. Rs. 3600
3. Rs. 3900
4. Rs. 4200
16. 7 women and 6 men can do what 4 men and 11 women can do in the same time. 19 women can do the same job in how much time?
1. Same
2. Half
3. One-third
4. Two-third
17. If A can walk a certain distance in 40 days when he takes rest 9 hours each day; how much long will he take to walk the same distance twice as fast and rest twice as long each day?
1. 50 days
2. 45 days
3. 38 days
4. 16 days
18. If 20 men or 25 women or 30 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days by working 10 hours a day, then how many men with 10 women and 18 boys can do 3 ¼ times the same work in 26 days by working 8 hours daily?
1. 35 men
2. 30 men
3. 40 men
4. 48 men
19. Some persons can do a job in 12 days. Two times the number of those persons will do half of that job in
1. 6 days
2. 4 days
3. 12 days
4. 3 days
20. 400 men working 9 hrs a day complete ¼ th of the work in 10 days. The number of additional men, working 8 hrs a day, required to done the remaining work in 20 days is
1. 675
2. 275
3. 250
4. 225
21. 25% of 240 will be how much more than 33.33% of 180?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 6
4. Nil
22. 350% of a number is what percent of 250% of that number?
1. 40%
2. 44%
3. 140%
4. 71%
23. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width decreased by 20%, the area of therectangle will
1. Decrease by 4%
2. Increase by 4%
3. Decrease by 1%
4. Not change at all
24. A shopkeeper increases the price of a commodity by 25% and again increases it by 20%. The net percent increase is
1. 45%
2. 40%
3. 50%
4. 47%
25. The cost of a pant is 60% of the cost of a coat and 300% of the cost of a shirt. If all three cost Rs. 2160, the cost of the shirt will be
1. Rs. 290
2. Rs. 280
3. Rs. 360
4. Rs. 240
26. If sold for Rs. 247.50, an object gives a profit of 12.5%. The cost price is
1. Rs. 210
2. Rs. 220
3. Rs. 224
4. Rs. 225
27. A fruit seller purchases oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 5 and sells them at 2 for Rs. 4. His profit in the transaction is
1. 20%
2. 25%
3. 15%
4. 10%
28. A merchant sold his goods for Rs. 75 at a profit percent equal to the cost price. His cost price is
1. Rs. 50
2. Rs. 60
3. Rs. 80
4. Rs. 100
29. A man buys an article at ¾ th of its value and sells it for 20% more than its value. His profit based on the cost is
1. 45%
2. 50%
3. 60%
4. 75%
30. The LCM of numbers 12, 18, & 24 is how much more than their HCF?
1. 66
2. 69
3. 70
4. 72
31. Find the minimum number of square tiles of equal size for the floor of a room which is 1 m 4 dm 7 cm long and 1 m 8 dm 2 cm wide.
1. 250
2. 266
3. 140
4. 145
32. The average of first five prime numbers is
1. 5.40
2. 5.70
3. 5.60
4. 5.80
33. The average weight of 8 men is increased by 1.5 kg when one of them who weighs 65 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man is
1. 76 kg
2. 76.5 kg
3. 76.7 kg
4. 77 kg
34. A man distributed Rs. 100 equally among his friends. If there had been five more friends, each would have received one rupee less. How many friends did he have?
1. 20
2. 30
3. 40
4. 50
35. In an exam, the average was found to be 50 marks. After detecting computer errors, the marks of 100 candidates had to be changed from 90 to 60 each and the average came down to 45. The total number of candidates who took the exam was
1. 600
2. 700
3. 500
4. 400
Answers
1. 15221 6. 23214 11. 13312 16. 11242 21. 43134 26. 21131 31. 53411
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