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staff selection commission

staff selection commission assistant sub inspector in cisf job advertisement

(TO BE PUBLISHED IN THE EMPLOYMENT NEWS/ROZGAR SAMACHAR DATED

29-05-2010)

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION

Date of Exam: 29-08-2010

Closing Date : 28-06-.2010

NOTICE

Assistant Sub-Inspector (Exe) in CISF Examination 2010

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Commission will hold an All India Examination for recruitment to the post of Sub-Inspector

(Exe) in the Central Industrial Security Force Graduation from a recognized University

or equivalent is the minimum educational qualification. The Examination will comprise

of Written Objective Type followed by Physical Endurance Test/Medical Examination

and Interview/personality test.

2 In view of the huge number of applicants, scrutiny of the eligibility and other aspects will

not be undertaken before the Written Examination and, therefore, the candidature will be

accepted only provisionally. Candidates are advised to go through the requirements of

educational qualification, age, etc and satisfy themselves that they are eligible before

applying. Copies of supporting documents will be sought only from those candidates who

qualify in the Written Examination. When scrutiny is undertaken after the Written

Examination, if any claim made in the application is not found substantiated, the

candidature will be cancelled and the Commission’s decision shall be final.

3. CANDIDATES IN THEIR OWN INTEREST ARE ADVISED TO GO THROUGH THE DETAILED

INSTRUCTIONS CONTAINED IN THIS NOTICE AND ALSO AVAILABLE ON THE WEBSITE OF

THE COMMISSION: http://ssc.nic.in CAREFULLY BEFORE APPLYING.

4. Candidates seeking reservation benefits for SC/ST/OBC/ EXS must ensure that they

are entitled to such reservation as per eligibility prescribed in the Notice .They should

also be in possession of the certificates in the prescribed format in support of their

claim at the time of application, through the copies of the certificates will be sought

only after the Written Examination.

5. Candidates belonging to the Physically Handicapped category are not eligible to apply for

this examination.

6. Central Government civilian employees/servants claiming age relaxation should be in

possession of a certificate in the prescribed format from their office, in respect of the length

of continuous service which should be for not less than three years in the immediate

period preceding the closing date for receipt of application. They should continue to have

the status of Central Government civilian servants/employees from the date of application till

the time of appointment in the event of their selection.

7. FEE: RUPEES ONE HUNDRED ONLY(Rs.100/-)

Fee is exempted for Women candidates and candidates belonging to

Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, and Ex-Servicemen eligible for

reservation.

2

8. CLOSING DATE: 28.06.2010. For candidates residing in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh,

Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Jammu and Kashmir, Lahaul and Spiti District and

Pangi Sub Division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands,

Lakshadweep and for candidates residing abroad – 05.07. 2010. APPLICATIONS RECEIVED

LATE WILL NOT BE ENTERTAINED.

9. Only a single application will be entertained. Candidature in respect of multiple applications

will be rejected.

10 MOBILES AND OTHER ELECTRONIC GADGETS ARE BANNED WITHIN THE

PREMISES OF THE EXAMINATION CENTRES.

11 CANDIDATES DESIROUS OF SUBMITTING ON LINE APPLICATIONS MAY DO SO

SUCH CANDIDATES SHOULD RETAIN THEIR REGISTRATION NUMBER

ASSIGNED TO THEM ON LINE FOR CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE

COMMISSION. THEY ARE NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT PRINT OUTS OF THEIR

APPLICATION TO THE COMMISSION.

F. No. 4/9/2010–P&P. The Staff Selection Commission will hold the Assistant Sub-

Inspectors (Exe.) in CISF Examination, 2010 on SUNDAY the 29th of August, 2010. This

is a Group-‘C’ Non-Gazetted post in the pay scale of PB-2 (Rs.5200-20200) with Grade Pay

of Rs.2800/-

2. Vacancies & Reservation as follows -: The number of vacancies to be filled from the

examination is 1000.

UR SC ST OBC Total Ex-servicemen

Male

candidates

455

135

67

243

900

10% of ESM (in round

figure)

Female

Candidates

51

15

07

27

100

Total 506 150 74 270 1000

The number of vacancies is provisional and may increase or decrease.

Note I: Candidates selected for appointment are liable to serve anywhere in India i.e.

all these posts carry All India Service Liability (AISL).

Note II :Firm number of vacancies in each category of posts will be determined in due

course.

3

3. NATIONALITY/CITIZENSHIP :

A candidate must be either :

(a) a citizen of India, or

(b) a subject of Nepal, or

(c) a subject of Bhutan, or

(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India, before the Ist January, 1962 with the

intention of permanently settling in India, or

(e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East

African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania ( Formerly

Tanganyika and Zanzibar ), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the

intention of permanently settling in India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above shall be a

person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary will be admitted to the

Examination provisionally but the offer of appointment will be given only after the necessary

eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.

4. (A) AGE LIMIT 20-25 years as on 28.06.2010, i.e. the normal closing date for receipt of

application. Candidates should not have been born earlier than 29.06.1985 and not later than

28.06.1990.

Note I : The upper age limit is relaxable for Central Gvoernment Civilian Employees as per extant

Government order.

Note II : As per the Recruitment Rules for the post , the crucial date for age-limit is reckoned

with reference to the Closing date for receipt of applications, namely 28.06.2010.

Note III : Candidate should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation /

Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate available on the date of

submission of application will be accepted by the Commission for determining the Age

eligibility and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted .

Note IV : Age relaxation will also be available to categories of candidates as detailed in Para-

4(B)

4

4.(B) Permissible relaxation of Upper age limit prescribed under para 5(A) above :

Category-Codes for claiming Age Relaxation as on the date of reckoning :

Code

No.

Category Age Relaxation

permissible beyond the

Upper age limit.

01 SC/ST 5 years

02 OBC 3 years

09 Ex-Servicemen( Unreserved/General)

03 years after deduction of

the military service rendered

from the actual age as on the

Closing date

10 Ex-Servicemen + OBC 06 years(3 years + 3

years) after deduction of

the military service

rendered from the actual

age as on the Closing date

11 Ex-Servicemen + SC/ST 08years(3 years + 5 years)

after deduction of the

military service rendered

from the actual age as on

the Closing date

16

Central Govt. Civilian Employees(General/unreserved )) who

have rendered not less than 3 years regular and continuous

service as on closing date.

5 years

18

Central Govt. Civilian Employees(OBC)) who have rendered

not less than 3 years regular and continuous service as on

closing date .

8 (5 +3) years

20 Central Govt. Civilian Employees(SC/ST) who have rendered

not less than 3 years regular and continuous service as on

closing date.

10(5+5) years

21 Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of

Jammu & Kashmir(Unreserved/General)

5 years

22 Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of

Jammu & Kashmir(OBC)

8 years

23 Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of

Jammu & Kashmir( SC/ST)

10 years

24

Widows/Divorced Women/Women judicially separated and who

are not remarried(Unreserved/General)

Upto 35 years of age

25 Widows/Divorced Women/Women judicially separated and who

are not remarried(OBC)

Upto 38 years of age

26 Widows/Divorced Women/Women judicially separated and who Upto 40 years of age

5

are not remarried(SC/ST)

30 Departmental candidates(UR) who have rendered not less

than 3 years regular and continuous service as on closing

date

5 years

31 Departmental candidates(OBC) who have rendered not less

than 3 years regular and continuous service as on closing

date

8(5+3) years

32 Departmental candidates(SC/ST) who have rendered not less

than 3 years regular and continuous service as on closing

date

10(5+5) years

NOTE-I : Ex-servicemen who have already secured employment in civil side under Central

Government in Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ posts on regular basis after availing of the benefits of

reservation given to ex-servicemen for their re-employment are NOT eligible for fee concession

or for claiming benefits of reservation under EXS category. However, they are eligible for the age

relaxation only.

NOTE-II : The period of "Call up Service" of an Ex-Serviceman in the Armed Forces

shall also be treated as service rendered in the Armed Forces for purpose

of age relaxation.

NOTE-III : For any serviceman of the three Armed Forces of the Union to be treated as Ex-

Serviceman for the purpose of securing the benefits of reservation, he must have already

acquired, at the relevant time of submitting his application for the Post / Service, the status of

ex-serviceman and /or is in a position to establish his acquired entitlement by documentary

evidence from the competent authority that he would complete specified term of engagement

from the Armed Forces within the stipulated period of one year from the CLOSING DATE (i.e

28.06. 2010)

E

XPLANATION : An Ex-Serviceman means a person who has served in any rank whether

as a combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy, Air Force of the Indian Union,

and

(i) who retired from such service after earning his/her pension. This would

also include persons who are retired/retire at their own request but after

having earned their pension; or

(ii) who has been released from such service on medical grounds

attributable to military service/circumstances beyond his control and

awarded medical or other disability pension; or

(iii) who has been released, otherwise than on his own request from such

service as a result of reduction in establishment; or

(iv) who has been released from such service after completing the specific

period of engagements, otherwise than at his own request or by way of

dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, and has

6

been given a gratuity; and includes personnel of the Territorial Army of the

following categories, namely:-

(a) Pension holders for continuous embodied service,

(b) Persons with disability attributable to military service; and

(c) Gallantry award winners.

EXPLANATION :

The persons serving in the Armed Forces of the Union, who on retirement from

service, would come under the category of “ex-serviceman” may be permitted to apply for reemployment

one year before the completion of the specified terms of engagement and avail

themselves of all concessions available to ex-servicemen but shall not be permitted to leave

the uniform until they complete the specified term of engagement in the Armed Forces of the

Union

NOTE- IV:: AGE CONCESSION IS NOT ADMISSIBLE TO SONS, DAUGHTERS AND

DEPENDENTS OF EX-SERVICEMEN.

NOTE – V : A Matriculate Ex-Serviceman (which term includes an Ex-Serviceman, who has

obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate of education or corresponding

certificate in the Navy or the Air Force), who has put in not less than 15 years of

service as on 28.06.2010 with Armed Forces of the Union shall be considered

eligible for appointment to the posts being advertised through this examination.

Thus, those Non-Graduate Ex-Servicemen who have not completed 15 years of service as

on the last date for receipt of applications as stated in Note-III under Para 4 (B ) are not

eligible.

4(C) : PROCESS OF CERTIFICATION AND FORMAT OF CERTIFICATES:

Candidates who wish to be considered against vacancies reserved/or seek agerelaxation

must submit requisite certificate from the competent authority, in the prescribed

format when such certificates are sought by concerned Regional/Sub Regional Offices after

declaration of result of candidates selected for PET/Medical Examination. Otherwise,

their claim for SC/ST/OBC/ExS status will not be entertained and their

candidature/applications will be considered under General (UR) category. The formats of

the certificates are annexed. Candidates claiming OBC status may note that certificate on

creamy layer status should have been obtained within three years before the closing dated

i.e, 28.06.2010.

NOTE I: The closing date ie 28.06.2010 for receipt of application will be treated as the

date of reckoning for OBC status of the candidate.

NOTE II : Candidates are warned that they will be permanently debarred from the examination

conducted by the Commission in case they fraudulently claim SC/ST/OBC/ExS status.

7

5. ESSENTIAL QUALIFICATIONS as on Closing Date i e 28 06.2010 (28nd June,2010)

BACHELOR’S DEGREE FROM A RECOGNISED UNIVERSITY OR EQUIVALENT.

NOTE-I: As per Ministry of Human Resource Development Notification No. 44 dated

01.03.1995 published in Gazette of India edition dated 08.04.1995, the Degree obtained

through open Universities/Distance Education Mode needs to be recognized by

Distance Education Council, IGNOU. Accordingly, unless such Degrees had been

recognized for the period when the candidates acquired the relevant qualification,

they will not be accepted for the purpose of Educational Qualification.

Note – II : Candidates who have not acquired/will not acquire the educational qualification

as on the closing date of receipt of application (28.06.2010) will not be

eligible and need not apply.

Note- III : All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for appearing at the

Interview/Personality Test will be required to produce all relevant Certificates

such as Mark sheets for all the three years of Graduation/ Provisional Certificate/

Certificate of Graduation as proof of having acquired the minimum educational

qualification on the closing date failing which the candidature of such candidate will

be cancelled by the Commission.

6. MODE OF PAYMENT:

Off-line applications:

(i) The candidates should pay the fee by means of "Central Recruitment Fee

Stamps(CRFS)"only .CRFS stamps are available at the counter of all

Departmental Post Offices of the country. Recruitment Fee Stamps should be

pasted on the application form in the space earmarked for the purpose and got

cancelled from the Counter of Post Office of issue with the date stamp of the

Issuing Post Office in such a manner that the impression or the cancellation stamps

partially overflows on the Application Form itself, taking care at the same time that

the impression is clear and distinct to facilitate the identification of date and Post

Office of issue at any subsequent stage. After getting the Recruitment Fee

Stamps cancelled from the Post Office, the candidate must submit their application

to the concerned Regional Office/Sub Regional Offices of the Commission in the

usual manner after completing other formalities.

On-line applications:

(ii) The candidates submitting their applications on-line should pay the requisite

fee only through State Bank of India either in the form of challan or netbanking.

NOTE I: Fee once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances.

8

NOTE II: Fee paid by modes other than CRFS/ SBI, as the case may be, will not be

accepted and the applications of such candidates will be rejected forthright and

the payment made shall stand forfeited.

NOTE III: Candidates may please note that non-cancellation of stamps from the

concerned Post Office in the manner indicated above, will lead to rejection of

his/her application form. Therefore, it is in the interest of candidates that they get

the CRFS cancelled from the concerned Post Office.

7. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION

A candidate must indicate the centres in the Application Form. A candidate must

submit his/her application only to the concerned Regional/Sub Regional Office of the

Commission under whose jurisdiction the Centre selected by him / her falls. .Application

received in any other Regional/Sub Regional Office of the Commission will be rejected

summarily.

The applications should be addressed to the Regional / Sub-Regional Offices of the

Commission as indicated in the table below:-

Sl.

No.

Examination Centres & Centre

Code

Address to which the applications

should be sent

1 2 3

1. Bhagalpur(3201), Darbhanga(3202),

Muzaffarpur(3205), Agra(3001),

Bareilly(3005), Gorakhpur(3007) ,

Kanpur(3009), Meerut(3011),

Varanasi(3013), Allahabad(3003),

Patna(3206), Lucknow(3010)

Regional Director(CR),

Staff Selection Commission,

8-AB, Beli Road, Allahabad,

Uttar Pradesh-211002

2. Kolkata(4410), Midnapur(4413),

Port Blair(4802), Sambalpur(4609),

Gangtok(4001), Jalpaiguri(4408),

Bhubaneshwar(4604), Cuttack(4605),

Ranchi(4205),

Regional Director (ER),

Staff Selection Commission,1st MSO

Building,(8th Floor)

234/4 . Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose

Road), Kolkata,

West Bengal-700020

3. Bangalore(9001),

Thiruvananthapuram(9211), Kochi(9204),

Thrissur(9212), Gulbarga(9005),

Mangalore(9008), Dharwar(9004),

Kozhikode (Calicut) (9206)

Regional Director(KKR),

Staff Selection Commission,

1st Floor, “E” Wing, Kendriya Sadan,

Koramangala, Bangalore,

Karnataka-560034

4. Delhi(2201), Jaipur(2405),

Jodhpur(2406),Kota(2407),

Bikaner(2404), Udaipur(2409),

R

egional Director (NR),

Staff Selection Commission,

9

Ajmer(2401), Alwar(2402),

Sriganganagar(2408), Dehradun(2002),

Haldwani(2003),Almora(2001),

Srinagar(2004) (Uttarakhand)

Block No. 12,

CGO Complex, Lodhi Road,

New Delhi-110504

5. Guwahati (Dispur)(5105),

Itanagar(5001),Dibrugarh(5102),

Jorhat(5107),Silchar(5111),

Imphal(5501), Shillong(5401),

Aizwal(5701), Kohima(5302),

Agartala(5601)

R

egional Director(NER),

Staff Selection Commission,

Rukmini Nagar,

PO: Assam Sachivalaya, Guwahati,

Assam-781006

6. Hyderabad(8002), Guntur(8001),

Kurnool(8003), Rajahmundry(8004),

Tirupati(8006), Coimbatore(8202),

Chennai(8201), Madurai(8204),

Puducherry(8401), Tirunelveli(8207),

Tiruchirapalli(8206),

Vishakhapatnam (8007)

Regional Director (SR),

Staff Selection Commission,

EVK Sampath Building, 2nd Floor, College

Road, Chennai,

Tamil Nadu-600006

7. Aurangabad(7202), Mumbai(7204),

Kolhapur(7203), Nagpur(7205),

Panaji(7801), Pune(7208),

Ahmedabad(7001), Vadodara(7002),

Rajkot(7006),Nashik (7207),

Amravati (7201),Surat(7007)

Regional Director (WR),

Staff Selection Commission,

1st Floor, South Wing, Pratishta Bhawan,

101 M.K. Road, Mumbai,

Maharashtra-400020

8. Ambikapur(6201), Indore(6006),

Jabalpur(6007), Jagdalpur(6203),

Chindwara(6003), Chattarpur(6002),

Guna(6004), Mandsaur(6010),

Jhabua(6008), Khandwa(6009),

Rewa(6012), Raipur(6204),

Bhopal(6001), Gwalior(6005),

Bilaspur(6202)

D

y. Director (MPR),

Staff Selection Commission,

“Nishant Vila” F. Jalvihar Colony, Raipur,

Chhatisgarh-492001

9. Ambala(1801), Jalandhar(1402),

Leh(1005) Chandigarh(1601),

Jammu(1004), Srinagar(1007),

Shimla(1203),Bhathinda (1401)

Hamirpur (1202)

D

y. Director (NWR),

Staff Selection Commission,

Block No. 3, Gr. Floor, Kendriya Sadan,

Sector-9, Chandigarh-160017

NOTE I: No change of Centre of Examination will be allowed under any

circumstances. Hence, the candidates should select the centres, carefully and

indicate the same correctly in their applications.

10

NOTE II: The Commission reserves the right to cancel any Centre and ask the candidates

of that centre to appear from another centre. Commission also reserves the right

to divert candidates of any centre to some other Centre to take the examination.

8. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION :

Written Examination.

Paper-I

Subject Number of

Questions

Maximum

Marks

Duration/

Time Allowed

Part A

General Intelligence and Reasoning

50

50

Two Hours

(10.00 A.M. to

12.00 Noon)

Part B General Knowledge and

General Awareness

50

50

Part C Numerical Aptitute

50

50

Part D English Comprehension

50

50

Paper-II

Subject Maximum marks /Questions. Duration and timing

English language

& Comprehension

200marks/200 questions

2.00 PM to 4.00PM

Questions in both papers will be of Objective Multiple Choice Type. Questions will be set in Hindi

and English in Parts A, B and C of Paper I.

9. SYLLABUS

Paper :I

A. General Intelligence & Reasoning : It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This

component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, spatial visualization, spatial orientation,

11

problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship

concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and

decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc.

B. General Awareness : Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates general awareness of

the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of

current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be

expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring

countries especially pertaining to sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity, Indian

Constitution, scientific Research etc. These Questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any

discipline.

The question in the components A&B will be of a level commensurate with the Essential Qualification prescribed for

the post viz. graduation.

C. Numerical Aptitute : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number

sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals and fractions and

relationships between numbers. It will test sense of order among numbers, ability to translate from one name to

another, sense or order of magnitude, estimation or prediction of the outcome of computation, selection of an

appropriate operation for the solution of real life problems and knowledge of alternative computation procedures to

find answers. The questions would also be based on arithmetical concepts and relationship between numbers and

not on complicated arithmetical computation.

D. English Comprehension : Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing

ability, etc. would be tested.

(The question in components C&D will be of Higher Secondary (10+2) level).

Paper-II : English Language & Comprehsion :Questions in this components will be designed to test the candidate’s

understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on error recognition, fill in the blanks (using

verbs, preposition, articles etc), Vocabulary, Spellings, Grammar, Sentence Structure, Synonyms, Antonyms,

Sentence Completion, Phrases and Idiomatic use of Words, etc. There will be a question on passages and

comprehension of passages also. (The standard of the questions will be Higher Secondaryf 10+2 level).

NOTE - 1: The Commission shall have the discretion to fix different minimum qualifying

standards in each part of Paper I taking into consideration among others, categorywise

vacancies and category-wise number of candidates. Only those candidates,

who have scored above the cut off marks fixed by the Commission in Paper I would

be required to appear in the Physical Endurance Test/Medical examination.

NOTE:2 Paper-I will be used to screen the candidates for appearing for PET/Medical Examination.

However, marks of such screened candidates in Paper I if they are successful in

PET/Medical Examination, will be taken into account along with marks in Paper II for final

ranking of candidates for selecting them for the interview and also final selection.

12

10

.

PHYSICAL ENDURENCE TEST(PET) is MANDATORY FOR THE

POST .

NOTE -I: Candidates opting for the post will have to undergo PET &

MEDICAL Examination .

NOTE-II: Only those candidates who secure qualifying marks in Paper I

of the written examination, as may be fixed by the Commission at their

discretion, and also clear Eligibility and Physical Endurance Test (PET) and

medical test, will be called for the Personality Test / Interview based on their

combined performance in Paper I and II of the written examination.

10(A) PHYSICAL STANDARDS

ELIGIBILITY TESTS:

Category of

candidates

Height in cms Chest in cms

Unexpanded Expanded

(i) For male

candidates only

GENERAL

170 80 85

85 For candidates

belonging to Hill

areas of Garhwal,

Kumaon, Himachal

Pradesh, Gorkhas,

Dogras, Marathas,

Kashmir Valley,

Leh & Ladakh

regions of J&K,

North-Eastern

States and Sikkim

165 80

For all candidates

belonging to

Scheduled Tribes

162.5 77 82

(ii) For Female

candidates only

GENERAL

157 - -

13

For candidates

belonging to Hill

areas of Garhwal,

Kumaon, Himachal

Pradesh, Gorkhas,

Dogras, Marathas,

Kashmir Valley,

Leh & Ladakh

regions of J&K,

North-Eastern

States and Sikkim

155 - -

For all candidates

belonging to

Scheduled Tribes

154 - -

Physical Efficiency(Endurance) Test(PET)

For male candidates only

a) 100 meters race in 16 seconds

b) 1.6 Kms race in 6.5 minutes

c) Long Jump : 3.65 metres in 3 chances

d) High Jump : 1.2 metres in 3 chances

e) Shot put (16 Lbs): 4.5 metres in 3 chances

For female candidates only

a) 100 metres race in 18 seconds

b) 800 metres race in 4 minutes

c) Long Jump: 2.7 metres (9 feet) in 3 chances.

d) High Jump : 0.9 metres (3 feet) in 3 chances.

NOTE:

1. There shall be no minimum requirement of chest measurement for

Female candidates.

2. Relaxation in height and chest (as the case may be) as mentioned above

will be permissible only on production of certificate in the proforma

as prescribed in Annexure VIII from the competent authorities of the

District where they ordinarily reside(s).

3. Those candidates who are declared not qualified in Physical Standards,

i.e., height and chest, may prefer an appeal, if they so desire, to the

appellate authority present on the PET ground. The decision of the

appellate authority will be final and no further appeal or representation

in this regard will be entertained.

14

(b) Weight : Corresponding to height.

(c) Medical Standard :

1) Eye sight: The minimum distant vision should be 6/6 and 6/9 of

two eyes without correction i.e. without wearing of glasses.

2) The candidate must not have knock knee, flat foot, varicose

vein or squint in eyes and they should possess high colour

vision.

3) They must be in good mental and bodily health and free from

any physical defect likely to interfere with the efficient

performance of the duties.

(d) Physical Endurance Test Will NOT CARRY ANY MARKS BUT WILL

BE OF QUALIFYING/ELIMINATION NATURE.

NOTE:I Ex-Servicemen applying for the posts are not required to undergo

PET. However, all the Ex-Servicemen are required to pass the written test and

fulfill the physical standards prescribed for direct recruits for recruitment of

Assistant Sub Inspector(Exe) in CISF. They should also pass the medical standards

prescribed for direct recruits.

NOTE:II The candidature of female candidates who are pregnant at the time of

Physical Endurance Test will be rejected as they cannot undergo PET. No

appeal/representation will be entertained against such rejection.

Note: III Medical Examination All the candidates who qualify in the PET will

be medically examined by the Medical Officer of the CISF or any other Medical

Officer or Assistant Surgeon belonging to Grade I of any Govt. Hospital or

Dispensary. Those who are found fit in the medical examination and qualify in the

written examination also will be required to appear in the Interview(Personality

Test) of 100 marks. Candidates who are found permanently unfit, will be informed

of the position and they can make an appeal before Review Medical Board within

the prescribed time limit of one month. Candidates who are declared temporary

unfit will be informed of the position. They will have to get the necessary

treatment and appear before the Medical Board/ Review Medical Board within the

stipulated time period fixed by the Commission. Decision of Re-Medical Board /

Review Medical Board will be final and no appeal / representation against the

decision of the Re-Medical Board / Review Medical Board will be entertained.

Finally selected candidates would as part of training curriculum,

have to pass seven obstacle events as mentioned below, failing which they

15

may not be retained in the Force:

i) Jumping over the Vertical Board;

ii) Holding the rope on jumping from the Board.

iii) Tarzan Swing;

iv) Jumping on the Horizontal Board;

v) Parallel Rope;

vi) Monkey Crawl;

vii) Vertical Rope.

11. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS TO BE COMPLIED BY THE CANDIDATES IN THE

WRITTEN EXAMINATIONS

(i) Candidates must write the papers/indicate the answers in their own hand.

(ii) In the question papers, wherever necessary, the Metric systems of weights and measures only

will be used.

(iii) Candidates are not permitted to use calculators and other electronic gadgets except as specified

in the Notice. . They should not, therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Premises/

Venue

(iv) Wherever applicable, the candidates must indicate /write the answer either in Hindi or in

English or vice versa. If answers are indicated/written partly in Hindi and partly in English

and vice versa, the Answer script will not be evaluated and the candidate will be awarded zero

marks.

(v) If any candidate is found to possess mobile phones or any other means of wireless

communication position in the working or switched off mode, his/her candidature shall be

cancelled forthwith.

(vi) OMR Type of Answer Sheets will be supplied by the Commission to candidates for recording

their answers of Multiple Choice Objective Type Questions. Candidates are advised to read

very carefully, the following instructions, in their own interest.

i) Part A of OMR Answer Sheet to be filled in Ball Point Pen only.

ii) Part B of OMR Answer Sheet should be filled in HB pencil only, as per instructions given

in OMR Answer Sheet.

iii) Candidate should write his/her name, Roll Number, Ticket Number, Name of the

Examination as mentioned in Admission Certificate, Date of birth, Test Form Number

correctly in the relevant places in OMR Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet not bearing

candidates Name, Roll Number, Ticket Number and signature will not be evaluated and

‘Zero’ marks will be awarded to them.

16

12. MODE OF SELECTION :

After the written Examination and the Interview /personality test, the Commission will draw

up the All India Merit List and, in that order, as many candidates as are found by the Commission

to have qualified in the Examination shall be recommended for appointment upto the number of

unreserved vacancies available.

The Commission will recommend the candidates in the Merit List on the basis of the aggregate

marks obtained by the candidates in the written examination and interview/personality test.

Provided that SC, ST, and OBC , who are selected on their own merit without relaxed standards,

alongwith candidates belonging to other communities, will not be adjusted against the reserved

share of vacancies. Such SC, ST, and OBC will be accommodated against the

general/unreserved vacancies as per their position in the overall Merit List. The reserved

vacancies will be filled up separately from amongst the eligible SCs, STs, and OBCs, candidates

which will, thus, comprise of SC , ST, and OBC candidates who are lower in merit than the last

general candidate on merit list of unreserved category but otherwise found suitable for appointment

by relaxed standard.

An Ex-Serviceman candidate who qualifies on the basis of relaxed standards viz. age limit,

experience or qualifications, permitted number of chances in written examination, extended zone of

consideration, etc. will be counted against reserved vacancies and not against general vacancies

subject to fitness of such candidate for selection. Such candidates will also be recommended at the

relaxed standards to the extent the number of vacancies reserved for them, to make up for the

deficiency in the reserved quota, irrespective of their rank in the order of merit. Deduction from

the age of Ex-Servicemen is permissible against the reserved or unreserved posts and such

exemption cannot be termed as relaxed standards in regard to age.

Note-I: Success in the examination confers no right of appointment unless government are

satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that the candidate is suitable in all

respects of appointment to the service/post.

NOTE-II ; The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the

eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of

examination will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility

conditions. If, on verification, at any time before or after the written examination and interview, it

is found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the

examination will be cancelled by the Commission.

13. RESOLUTION OF TIE CASES

(a) The tie is resolved by the Commission by referring to the total marks in the written examination

i.e. a candidate having more marks in the written examination gets preference over the

candidate(s).

(b) If the tie still persists then the marks in Paper I where the first cut off is given is referred to i.e. a

candidate having more marks in this paper is given preference.

17

(c) The candidate older in age gets preference.

(d) The tie is finally resolved by referring to the alphabetical order of names i.e. a candidate whose

names begins with the alphabet which comes first in the alphabetical order gets preference.

14. HOW TO APPLY : The application must be submitted only in the prescribed format on –

line or on paper. (Annexed) Instructions on filling up the application are also annexed.

15. ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION:

All candidates who apply in response to this advertisement by the CLOSING DATE will be

assigned Roll numbers, which will be communicated to them within two weeks from the CLOSING

DATE. A candidate must write his/her Roll number along with his/her name, date of birth and name of

the examination while addressing any communication to the Commission. Communication from the

candidate not furnishing these particulars shall not be entertained.

Admission Certificates (ACs) for the Examination indicating the time table and also venues of

examination for each candidate will be issued to all applicants about two weeks before the date of

examination. The facility of downloading of ACs from the Website of the concerned regional office

will also be available simultaneously. IF ANY CANDIDATE DOES NOT RECEIVE ADMISSION

CERTIFICATE FOR THE EXAMINATION OR UNABLE TO DOWNLOAD THE AC FROM THE

WEBSITE AT LEAST ONE WEEK BEFORE THE DATE OF EXAMINATION, HE/SHE MUST

IMMEDIATELY CONTACT THE CONCERNED REGIONAL/SUB REGIONAL OFFICE (S) OF THE

COMMISSION WITH PROOF OF HAVING SUBMITTED HIS/HER APPLICATION. (In case of

Applications submitted under Certificate of Posting, the Date-Stamp of the Post-Office concerned should be

clearly legible). FAILURE TO DO SO WILL DEPRIVE HIM/HER OF ANY CLAIM FOR

CONSIDERATION.

16. COMMISSION’S DECISION FINAL

The decision of the Commission in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or rejection of the

applications, penalty for false information, mode of selection, conduct of examination(s) and

interviews, allotment of examination centres, selection and allotment will be final and binding on the

candidates and no enquiry/correspondence will be entertained in this regard.

17. COURTS JURISDICTION

Any dispute in regard to this recruitment will be subject to courts/tribunals having jurisdiction

over the place of concerned Regional/Sub-Regional Office of the SSC where the candidate has

submitted his/her application.

18. For detailed instructions relating to Application form, instructions for filling up the

application form and for on-line payment/submission of application , candidates are advised to

refer Annexures-I, IIA and 11B

18

Annexure – II A

BROCHURE

INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP THE APPLICATION

1.0 Please read the instructions given in the Notice of Examination carefully before filling up the application form, in your own

interest.

2.0 Use only blue/black ball pen to write in the boxes. i.e.

3.0 Instructions have been given for most items in the application itself which should be gone through carefully before filling up the

boxes. For items for which instructions are not available, further instructions given below may be gone through carefully.

4

.0 Please go through the instructions given below for filling up each item numbered in the application form:-

1. Name of the Examination Centre and 2. Centre Codes

Refer to para-7 of the Notice of the Examination.

5.0 Signature of Candidate (Wherever required)

Please do sign in running hand. Signature in capital letters of English shall not be accepted and your application shall be

summarily rejected. Unsigned application shall also be rejected.

6.0 N.A. in this examination.

7.0 Box in the Application form for Roll Number to be left unfilled (blank) by the candidate.

12.1. Code for seeking age relaxation.

Refer to para 4 B of the Notice of the Examination.

13. Preference for Posts

N.A.in this examination.

15. Candidates to indicate whether they belong to one of the minority communities notified by Govt. namely Muslims,

Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, or Zoroastrians (Parsis).

17. Educational Qualification : See Annexure -X

Subject Code : See Annexure - XI

19. Address for communication

Write your complete communication address including your Name in English in capital letters or in Hindi with blue/black

ball pen. Do not forget to write 6 digits PIN in the boxes.

20. Photograph

Paste your recent photograph of size 4cmx5cm. Do not staple and do not get the photo attested. Please note that your

application shall be rejected summarily without photograph.

19

Annexure-II B

Procedure for Online Submission of Application

The online submission of application may be made on website www.ssconline.nic.in. Detailed

instructions are available at the site. Candidate should read the instructions carefully before making any

entry or selecting options. Candidate should supply all the required details while filling up the online

form. Mandatory fields are marked with * (asterisk) sign. The filling of online application contains two

parts :

Part I Registration

Part II Registration

1. In Part I registration, candidate will have to fill basic information. On submission of details,

candidate will be prompted to check the details and make correction, if any.

2. Candidate should press “I agree” button after declaration once he/she finds that information

supplied by him/her is in order and no correction is required. Thereafter no correction/modification

etc. shall be allowed.

3. A page with Registration No. will appear on the screen. Note down the registration number or take

out a print out of the page.

4. The application procedure will be incomplete without part II registration. Part II registration

contains filing of payment details, uploading of photograph, and scanned signature.

5. Candidates who have to pay application fee can pay fee online through net banking, or cash through

SBI bank challan.

6. To pay fee in cash, candidate should take printout of challan generated online after completion of

part I registration. The requisite fee can be deposited in any branch of State Bank of India and Part

II registration can be continued.

7. Those who want to pay online through net banking, can go directly to part II registration after

completion of part I. Candidate will have to supply registration number and date of birth to continue

to Part II registration.

8. Those who are exempted from payment of fee can skip steps 4 to 7.

9. Candidates should have upload a recently taken scanned photograph in 8 – bit grayscale JPG

format. The digital size of the file must be of resolution 100 pixel widths by 120 pixels height.

10. Then upload your scanned signature in 8 – bit grayscale JPG format. The digital size of the file

must be of resolution 140 pixel width by 60 pixels height.

11. Request for change/correction in any particular shall not be entertained under any circumstances.

The Staff Selection Commission will not be responsible for any consequences arising out of

non acceptance of any correction/addition/deletion in any particular filled in application form

what ever the reasons may be.

20

ANNEXURE-III

FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE SUBMITTED BY CENTRAL GOVERNMENT CIVILIAN EMPLOYEES SEEKING

AGE-RELAXATION

(To be filled by the Head of the Office or Department in which the candidate is working).

(Please see Para 4(B) of the Notice)

It is certified that *Shri/Smt./Km. ______________________ is a Central Government Civilian

employee holding the post of ---------------------------------- in the pay scale of

Rs.___________________ with 3 years regular service in the grade as on 028.06.2010.

Signature ___________________

Name ___________________

Office seal

Place:

Date :

(*Please delete the words which are not applicable.)

ANNEXURE- IV

Form of Certificate for serving Defence Personnel (Please see Note III Para-4 (B) of Notice for the

Examination)

I hereby certify that, according to the information available with me (No.)

__________________________________ (Rank) ___________________ (Name)

___________________________ is due to complete the specified term of his engagement with the

Armed Forces on the (Date) ____________________.

Place:

(Signature of Commanding Officer)

Date:

Office Seal:

21

ANNEXURE-V

UNDERTAKING TO BE GIVEN BY THE CANDIDATE COVERED UNDER NOTE III

PARA 4(B) OF NOTICE.

I understand that, if selected on the basis of the recruitment/examination to which the

application relates, my appointment will be subject to my producing documentary evidence to

the satisfaction of the Appointing Authority that I have been duly released/retired/discharged

from the Armed Forces and that I am entitled to the benefits admissible to Ex-Servicemen in

terms of the Ex-Servicemen (Re-employment in Central Civil Services and Posts rules, 1979, as

amended from time to time).

I also understand that I shall not be eligible to be appointed to a vacancy reserved for

Ex-S in regard to the recruitment covered by this examination, if I have at any time prior to such

appointment, secured any employment on the civil side (including Public Sector Undertakings,

Autonomous Bodies/Statutory Bodies, Nationalized Banks, etc.) by availing of the concession

of reservation of vacancies admissible to Ex-S.

I further submit the following information:

a) Date of appointment in Armed Forces __________________

b) Date of discharge ____________________

c) Length of service in Armed Forces __________________

d) My last Unit / Corps ____________________

(Signature of the Candidate)

Place:

Date:

22

ANNEXURE-VI

FORMAT FOR SC/ST CERTIFICATE

A candidate who claims to belong to one of the Scheduled Caste or the Scheduled Tribes should

submit in support of his claim an attested/certified copy of a certificate in the form given below, from

the District Officer or the sub-Divisional Officer or any other officer as indicated below of the District

in which his parents(or surviving parent) ordinarily reside who has been designated by the State

Government concerned as competent to issue such a certificate. If both his parents are dead, the officer

signing the certificate should be of the district in which the candidate himself ordinarily resides

otherwise than for the purpose of his own education. Wherever photograph is an integral part of the

certificate, the Commission would accept only attested photocopies of such certificates and not any

other attested or true copy.

(The format of the certificate to be produced by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

candidates applying for appointment to posts under Government of India)

This is to certify that Shri/Shrimati/Kumari* __________________________ son/daughter of

___________________________________ of village/town/* in District/Division

*_______________________ of the State/Union Territory* ________

belongs to the Caste/Tribes_______________ which is recognized as a Scheduled Castes/Scheduled

Tribes* under:-

The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) order, 1950 ___________________

The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) order, 1950 ________________

The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Union Territories order, 1951 * _______________ The

Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Union Territories Order, 1951*______________

As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists(Modification) order, 1956, the

Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960 & the Punjab Reorganization Act, 1966, the State of Himachal

Pradesh Act 1970, the North-Eastern Area(Reorganization) Act, 1971 and the Scheduled Castes and

Scheduled Tribes Order(Amendment) Act, 1976.

The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956___________

The Constitution (Andaman and Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959 as amended by the

Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes order (Amendment Act), 1976*.

The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes order 1962.

The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order 1962@.

The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order 1964@

The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Uttar Pradesh) Order, 1967 @

The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968@

The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Tribes Order 1968 @

The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970 @

The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order 1978@

The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order 1978@

The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order 1989@

The Constitution (SC) orders (Amendment) Act, 1990@

23

The Constitution (ST) orders (Amendment) Ordinance 1991@

The Constitution (ST) orders (Second Amendment) Act, 991@

The Constitution (ST) orders (Amendment) Ordinance 1996

%2. Applicable in the case of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes persons who have migrated from

one State/Union Territory Administration.

This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled tribes certificate

issued to Shri/Shrimati __________________________Father/mother

_____________________________ of

Shri/Srimati/Kumari*___________________________ of village/town*____________

___________________ in District/Division* ______________________of the State/Union

Territory*_________

_____________________ who belong to the _________________________________ Caste/Tribe

which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe in the State/Union Territory* issued by

the_______________________________ ____dated____________________________.

%3. Shri/Shrimati/Kumari and /or * his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in

village/town*________________________________________ of ________________

District/Division* _________________of the State/Union Territory of

____________________________

Signature__________________________

** Designation________________________

(with seal of office)

Place______________

Date_______________

* Please delete the words which are not applicable

@ Please quote specific presidential order

% Delete the paragraph which is not applicable.

NOTE: The term ordinarily reside(s) used here will have the same meaning as in section 20 of the

Representation of the People Act, 1950.

** List of authorities empowered to issue Caste/Tribe Certificates:

(i) District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/Additional

Deputy Commissioner/Dy.Collector/Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate/Sub-Divisional

Magistrate/Extra-Assistant Commissioner/Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate.

(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency

Magistrate.

(iii) Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar.

(iv) Sub-Divisional Officers of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally resides.

NOTE: ST candidates belonging to Tamil Nadu state should submit caste

certificate ONLY FROM THE REVENUE DIVISIONAL OFFICER.

24

ANNEXURE-VII

(FORMAT OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES

APPLYING FOR APPOINTMENT TO POSTS UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA)

This is to certify that _______________________________ son/ daughter of

___________________________________________ of village _____

______________________________ District/Division _____________________ in the

______________________________ State __________________________ ________ belongs to the

______________________ Community which is recognized as a backward class under:

i) Resolution No. 12011/68/93-BCC dated the 10th September, 1993, published in the Gazette of India

Extraordinary – Part I, Section I, No. 186 dated 13th September, 1993.

ii) Resolution No. 12011/9/94-BCC, dated 19.10.1994 published in Gazette of India extraordinary Part

I Section I No. 163, dated 20th October, 1994.

iii) Resolution No. 12011/7/95-BCC dated the 24th May 1995 Published in the Gazette of India

extraordinary Part-I Section I No. 88 dated 25th May, 1995.

iv) Resolution No.12011/96/94-BCC dated 9th March, 1996.

v) Resolution No. 12011/44/96-BCC, dated the 6th December, 1996, published in the Gazette of

India – Extraordinary-part I, Section-I, No. 210, dated the 11th December, 1996.

vi) Resolution No.12011/13/97-BCC dated 3rd December, 1997.

vii) Resolution No.12011/99/94-BCC dated 11th December, 1997.

viii) Resolution No.12011/68/98-BCC dated 27th October, 1999.

ix) Resolution No.12011/88/98-BCC dated 6th December, 1999, published in the Gazette of India,

Extra Ordinary Part-I, Section-I No.270, 6th December, 1999.

x) Resolution No.12011/36/99-BCC dated 4th April, 2000, published in the Gazette of India, Extra

Ordinary Part-I, Section-I, No.71 dated 4th April, 2000.

xi) Resolution No.12011/44/99-BCC dated 21.9.2000, published in the Gazette of India, Extra Ordinary

Part-I, Section-I, No.210 dated 21.9.2000.

Shri ____________________________ and/or his family ordinarily reside(s) in the

______________________________ District/Division of the ____

___________________________________ State.

This is also to certify that he/she does not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer)

mentioned in column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel &

Training OM No. 36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT,) dated 08.09.1993 and modified vide Govt. of India Deptt.

25

of Personnel and Training OM No. 36033/3/2004-Estt(Res) dated 09.03.2004 & 14.10.2008

Dated: District Magistrate or

Seal: Deputy Commissioner etc.

Note-I (a) The term ‘Ordinarily’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the

Representation of the People Act, 1950.

(b) The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificate are indicated below:-

(i) District Magistrate/Additional Magistrate/Collector/Dy. Commissioner/ Additional Deputy

Commissioner/Deputy Collector/Ist Class Stipendary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Taluka

Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of 1st Class

Stipendiary Magistrate).

(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate /Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate.

(iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar

(iv) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family resides.

NOTE-II: The closing date for receipt of application will be treated as the date of reckoning

for OBC status of the candidate and also, for assuming that the candidate does not

fall in the creamy layer.

The candidate should furnish the relevant OBC Certificate in the format

prescribed for Central Government jobs as per Annexure-VII issued by the competent

authority on or before the Closing Date as stipulated in the Notice.

26

ANNEXURE-VIII

FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE SUBMITTED BY THOSE CANDIDATES WHO INTEND TO

AVAIL RELAXATION IN HEIGHT OR CHEST MEASUREMENT

( Please see Note below Para 10(A) of the Notice for the Examination )

Certified that Shri ________________________ S/o Shri _______________________

is permanent resident of village ____________________, Tehsil/Taluka _________________

District___________________ of _____________________ State.

2. It is further certified that :

* Residents of entire area mentioned above are considered as____________________

( Garhwali, Kumaoni, Dogras, Marathas, Sikkimies ) for relaxation in height measurement for

recruitment in the para military forces of the Union of India.

* he / she belongs to Himachal Pradesh / Leh and Ladakh / Kashmir Valley / North-Eastern States

which is considered for relaxation in height measurement for recruitment in the para military

forces of Union of India.

* he / she belongs to Scheduled Tribe.

Signature

District Magistrate / Sub-Division Magistrate / Tehsildar

Date:

Place:

* Delete whichever is not applicable.

27

ANNEXURE-IX

FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE SUBMITTED BY ASI(Exe) in CISF

( DEPARTMENTAL CANDIDATES )

( TO BE FILLED BY THE HEAD OF THE OFFICE )

( Please see Para 4(B) of the Notice for the Examination )

Certified that as per entries made in the Service Book,

No._______________Rank_______________Name________________________ who was

appointed in the ________________ on_________________in the rank of________________ is

continuously serving in the _________________ and has completed three years regular service.

It is also certified that he has completed the period of probation satisfactorily on

_________________. He is presently posted in this unit _____________________( name of the

unit ). During his service he has been awarded________________ major punishments and

__________________ minor punishments.

Signature of Head of Office

Name__________________

Office Seal

Place:

Date:

28

ANNEXURE-X

Essential Educational Qualification Code

Educational Qualification Code

Matriculation 01

Intermediate 02

Certificate 03

Diploma 04

BA 05

BA (Hons.) 06

B. Com. 07

B.Com. (Hons.) 08

B.Sc. 09

B.Sc. (Hons.) 10

B. Ed. 11

LLB 12

BE 13

B. Tech 14

AMIE (Part A & Part B) 15

B.Sc. (Engg.) 16

BCA 17

BBA 18

Graduation issued by Defence (Indian Army, Air Force, Navy) 19

B. Lib. 20

B. Pharm. 21

ICWA 22

CA 23

PG Diploma 24

MA 25

M.Com. 26

M. Sc. 27

M.Ed. 28

LLM 29

ME 30

M. Tech. 31

M. Sc. (Engg.) 32

MCA 33

MBA 34

Others 35

29

Annexure-XI

Subject Code for Educational Qualification

Subject of Educational Qualification Code

History 01

Political Science 02

Economics 03

English Literature 04

Hindi Literature 05

Geography 06

Commerce 07

Law 08

Physics 09

Chemistry 10

Mathematics 11

Statistics 12

Botany 13

Zoology 14

Agriculture Science 15

Civil Engineering 16

Electrical Engineering 17

Mechanical Engineering 18

Electronics Engineering 19

Electronics & Power Engineering 20

Electronics & Communication Engineering 21

Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering 22

Agriculture Engineering 23

Computer Science 24

Computer Application 25

Information Technology 26

Library Science 27

Accountancy 28

Work Accountancy 29

Business Administration 30

Mass Communication 31

Journalism 32

Mass Communication & Journalism 33

Pharmacy 34

Photography 35

30

Printing Technology 36

Nursing 37

Assamese 38

Bengali 39

Malyalam 40

Telgu 41

Kannada 42

Tamil 43

Marathi 44

Gujrati 45

Urdu 46

Sanskrit 47

Others 48

31

answer these simple questions for prepare yourself for staff selection commission examination

questions of the day are
1.how is Neapolitan of India?
2.if i buy a car in 10000 rs and want to sell it 30% profit my selling price will be?
3.a:d:i::?
4.1408-1111+282=?
5.? of 15% =94.5
6.17  19  16  20 ?  21
7.?/388 = 97/? value of ? is?
 8.456=144/6x8 =
9.a car cover a distance in 15 hours speed of car in meeter per second is?
10. who is grand old man of India?

staff selection commission tier 2 and cut off for qualifed in tier first

we are here for you. We think that the marit for tier first will be around 100 and we want your comment on our guess. Please comment here. Also we want your advice for making this site best what can we do for making this site more useful for staff selection comission candidate?

staff selection commission lower division clerk post in various office and department of indian government

 NOTE
 
 
  Staff  Selection  Commission  (SSC)  will  subject  to  approval  by  the  Government  be  advertising  the

Combined Higher Secondary Level(10+2) Examination 2010  on 17th July 2010. This will mark the final phase of

Examination  Reforms  in  the  Commission.  On  Line  Application  for  examination  with  the  facility  of  payment  of

application  fee  through  State  Bank  of  India  either  by    Challan    or  on-line  payment,  will  be  available  for  this

examination.

 

  Keeping  in  view    the  recommendation  of  the  Second  Administration  Reforms  (  2nd  ARC)  on  SSC

Selection Process,  extensive  use  of  objective type testing  and recommendation  of Expert Group consultative  by

SSC  and Government  decision  on recommendation  of 6th Pay  Commission, Combined  Matric Level  Examination

has been renamed and remodeled. Whereas post of Stenographer Grade ‘C’ & Grade ‘D’ have been taken out from

the scope  of this  examination; post  of Data Entry Operator(DEO)  has  been  added  and  Higher Secondary(10+2)

has been made the minimum Educational Qualification.

  The salient features of this examination are:-

 

(i)  The  examination  will  substitute  Combined  Matric  Level  Examination  &  Data  Entry  Operator

Examination.

 

(ii)  Post  of Data Entry Operator in pay scale  of Rs 5200-20200  with Grade  Pay  of Rs. 2400/-  will be

filled up along with LDCs, in pay scale of Rs.5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs.1900/- through this

examination. Analogous posts such as store clerk may also be filled up through this examination.

 
 

(iii)  Taking  into  consideration  the  job  descriptions  essential            qualification  prescribed  for  the  posts

recommendation  of  2nd  ARC  and  need  for  completing  the  recruitment  cycle  for  these  posts  within

nine months of the date of advertisement of examination, the Commission has decided to make it a

single tier examination with two stage i.e. written examination (Multiple Choice Objective Type) and

skill test in dates entry/typing on computer at prescribed speed (which will be qualifying in nature).

 
(iv)  Skill test in Data Entry/Typing is proposed to be administered on Computer only.

 
(v)  Entire recruitment cycle is proposed to be completed in 09-12 months.

 
(vi)  All India selection will be made for all the posts as at present.

 
  The restructured Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination is expected to benefit the Government,

candidates and user Ministries/Departments by way of faster completion of recruitment cycle quicker selection and

early placement.

 

 

uttar pradesh police sub inspector job

uttar pradesh police sub inspector post will be advertised by the department on July 2010 there are 3700 post of  si it is a good chance for the candidate in the first stage measurement test and second stage primarily test third stage physical fourth stage main exam and fifth stage medical and group discussion will be held.   

staff selection commission graduate level

both evening and morning paper avalible here you can cheek your answer here in this page both papers availble you can cheek them in blog achieve also please comment and email us if you have any problem and if you feel any answer is wrong we will thankful to you this is your site.

staff selection commission ssc full solved paper answer key morning shift held on 16 may 2010 fully solved questions answer solved paper ssc tier one first staff selection commission

1- answer (B) MPNO
2- answer (B)  (Cow)
3- answer (D)  (Risk)
4- answer (A) 83
5- answer (C) TVXZ
6- answer (A)
AF
P
7- answer (C) 38
8- answer (C) 20
9- answer (B) QRTUZ
10- answer (D) 9, 64
11- answer (C)  (Bulb)
12- answer (D)  (Storm)
13- answer (B) Y
14- answer (D) FRTK
15- answer (C) QW
16- answer (B) bnbban
17- answer (D) 8] 48] 192
18- answer (D) 41
19- answer (C) 3] 5] 1] 2] 4
20- answer (D) 4] 1] 5] 3] 2
21- answer (C) 531
22- answer (B) 36
23- answer (D) 47
24- answer (A) GMSYE
25- answer (B) 45
26- answer (A)  (Sunday)
27- answer (C) 50
28- answer (C) 33
29- answer (C) IMPASSIVE
30- answer (D) HIPPOPOTAMUS
31- answer (B)  (15 Yrs.)
32- answer (A) (Son)
33- answer (A)  (Only I
is implicit)
34- answer (C)(Only I, III and IV follow)
35- answer (B) 725618
36- answer (D) Either B or D
37- answer (B) 48
38- answer (B) 100 m
39- answer (A) GMBNF
40- answer (A) 331
41- answer (A) 22
42- answer (C) (72 ÷ 18) × 18 = 72
43- answer (C) 12
44- answer (C) if'pe
45- answer (A) DECAB
46- answer (C)
47- answer (C)
48- answer (D)


49- answer (C)
50- answer (B) 13
51- answer (B) Caesium
52- answer (A) real and erect
53- answer (A) Vitamin B12
54- answer (D) Chloropicrin
55- answer (B) volume stress to volume
strain
56- answer (A) adiabatic compression and
rarefaction
57- answer (A) Respiration
58- answer (A) Arboreal
59- answer (A) Phospholipid
60- answer (B) Mitochondrion
61- answer (B) Acetic acid
62- answer (A) Boiling point of heavy water is
lower than that of ordinary water
63- answer (B) 82.5E longitude
64- answer (B) Tsunami
65- answer (B) Yardang
66- answer (A) Tropical
67- answer (D) 2n
68- answer (B) Convection
69- answer (D) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
70- answer (D) V.D. Savarkar
71- answer (A) G.K. Gokhale
72- answer (A) Portuguese
73- answer (B) Cultural unity
74- answer (A) Trading blocks
75- answer (D) Leo Tolstoy
76- answer (C) Indian Foreign Service
77- answer (B) Lord Ripon
78- answer (D) Irish Constitution
79- answer (C) Proxima Centauri
80- answer (A) Parliamentary and Presidential
81- answer (B) Planning Commission
82- answer (B) Appointed
83- answer (C) Manna Dey
84- answer (B) Mangrove
85- answer (D) Decibel
86- answer (A) Pankaj Advani
87- answer (A) Mercury
88- answer (A) Red Rose
89- answer (B) Floating exchange rate
90- answer (C) Mitchell Johnson
91- answer (D) they generate ultrasonic
sound waves
92- answer (C) No change will happen
93- answer (B) Net National Product at factor
cost
94- answer (C) Reserve Bank of India
95- answer (D) Treasury bill
96- answer (D) Multilateral trade
97- answer (B) Monopolistic competition
98- answer (D) Micro Economics
99- answer (A) has a microprocessor, but
cannot be programmed by the user
100- answer (C) Matrix method
101- answer (B) 2
102- answer (A) 0-30
103- answer (C) 33
4
3
104- answer (B) 36
105- answer (B) 4714
106- answer (C) 80
107- answer (C) 0-8
108- answer (A) 3
2
1
109- answer (D) 16
110- answer (C) 28
111- answer (D) 180 l
112- answer (B) 5
113- answer (A) 1236
114- answer (C) &1
115- answer (D) 10
116- answer (B) 999
1
117- answer (A) 1
118- answer (C) 8
119- answer (A) 2
1
120- answer (B) 400
121- answer (B) 100
122- answer (C) 60»
123- answer (A) 36
124- answer (D) 3
1
33
125- answer (B) 2]700 #-
126- answer (B) 10
127- answer (C) 32 #-
128- answer (A) 45 % 56
129- answer (C) 21»
130- answer (D) 5 % 4
131- answer (D) 75
132- answer (A) 5
133- answer (B) 1]500 #-
134- answer (A) 45 o"kZ
135- answer (C) 5 fdeh@?ka-
136- answer (C) 600 #-
137- answer (D) 5
138- answer (B) 5
12
139- answer (C) 3 6
140- answer (B) 15
141- answer (C) 15 fnu
142- answer (D) 11
8
35 fdeh@?ka
143- answer (B) 60 feuV
144- answer (A) 60
145- answer (C) 50-5
146- answer (B) 11 o"kZ
147- answer (D) 17]100 #-
148- answer (A) flojkeu
149- answer (A) 40
150- answer (C) 120
151- answer (D)
error. No
152- answer (C)
merit. any has neither
153- answer (A)
truth, knowing After
154- answer (B)
next your on decide
155- answer (C)
speak him Let
4
156- answer (B) to
157- answer (D) metamorphosis
158- answer (A) was it ?
159- answer (A) fill
160- answer (D) mustn't have done
161- answer (C) Falsehood
162- answer (A) Vagueness
163- answer (C) Dispassionate
164- answer (D) Straight
165- answer (B) Pale
166- answer (A) Commonplace
167- answer (D) Abundant
168- answer (C) Quarrelsome
169- answer (C) Responsibility
170- answer (C) Ridicule
171- answer (A) word for word
172- answer (B) sensual
173- answer (A) cut out
174- answer (B) wished for
175- answer (C) requires a wash
176- answer (B) Ineffable
177- answer (B) Iconoclast
178- answer (D) Internment
179- answer (B) Manoeuvre
180- answer (C) Ethnology
181- answer (D) benevolence
182- answer (A) collaborate
183- answer (B) clairvoyant
184- answer (D) serenity
185- answer (D) accommodative
186- answer (D) SPRQ
187- answer (B) QPSR
188- answer (A) SRPQ
189- answer (D) QRPS
190- answer (A) SRQP
191- answer (C) The criminal did not speak a
word in self-defence.
192- answer (C) A film, based on this novel,
has been made.
193- answer (A) I couldn't be moved to the
hospital and was operated on at home.
194- answer (D) Why were you deprived of
your membership by him?
195- answer (B) He has brought us the news.
196- answer (D) Government
197- answer (A) may become part of common
speech
198- answer (C) a linguist
199- answer (B) technical terminology
200- answer (C) the average man often uses in
his own vocabulary what was once
technical language not meant for him

staff selection commission ssc full solved paper answer key evening shift all solved paper of ssc evening shift held on 16 may 2010

EVENING SHIFT HELD ON – 16-5-2010
1- (A)  (South east)
2-  (A) (Ravi)
3-  (D)  (At the bottom)
4-  (C) (Timid)
5-  (A) (Diffidence)
6-  (C) IPKN
7-  (B) UESG
8-  (A) DEF/O
9-  (D) 64
10-  (D) 344
11-  (B) FED
12- (C) cjkenk (Veranda)
13- (A) (Mouth Organ)
14-  (C) D
15-  (C) RPOQ
16-  (C) ApqrL
17-  (C) 8465
18-  (D) 70&55
19-  (B) 7] 12] 22
20-  (B) 3] 1] 2] 4] 5
21-  (C) 2] 3] 5] 1] 4
22-  (A) abaaaa
23-  (B) u, i
24- (B) ADGJM
25- (D) 100
26-  (C) 21
27-  (c) 69
28-  (D) 564
29-  (B)

30-  (B)  (Thursday)
31-  (D)  (45 years)
32-  (B) (wife)
33-  (A)  (16th)
34-  (B) RETINUE
35-  (c) 5 3 2 1 4
36-  (A) (Only in
inplicit)
37- (C)  (Only
1 follows)
38-  (B) 51042
39- answer (A) TMBKD
40- answer (D) 9
41- answer (A) (1377)
42- answer (B) 5 ÷ 15 = 2
43- answer (A) ×, –, ×, +
44- answer (D) 6
45- answer (D) 5
46- answer (D)
47- answer (A)
48- answer (C)
49- answer (C) 28
50- answer (A)
SSC
2
51- answer (B) Sumatra
52- answer (A) Sealdah - New Delhi
53- answer (PM's Economic Advisory Council)
54- answer (D) All of the above
55- answer (B) Rajasthan
56- answer (B) India
57- answer (C) Volume of trade
58- answer (A) Afforestation
59- answer (B) Eratothenese
60- answer (A) Western Ghats
61- answer (B) Cartography
62- answer (B) Radio-Metric Dating
63- answer (B) Upa Gupta
64- answer (C) Abraham Lincoln
65- answer (C) Bahlol Lodi
66- answer (B) Pulakesin II
67- answer (C) Akbar
68- answer (B) Lord Dalhousie
69- answer (B) 15th August, 1947
70- answer (A) One party state
71- answer (A) Germany
72- answer (D) Judiciary
73- answer (D) Centre-State relations
74- answer (C) Depudtty Speaker of Lok Sabha
75- answer (A) Ability to purchase
76- answer (D) J. M. Keynes
77- answer (A) Increase
78- answer (B) Industrial sector
79- answer (A) Normative economics
80- answer (D) Consumer's surplus
81- answer (C) Reduced by light
82- answer (D) an antiknock compound
83- answer (B) A metal loses magnetic properties.
84- answer (A) U-235
85- answer (A) Is less than that at the poles
86- answer (D) Positron
87- answer (A) Graphite
88- answer (A) Equal to each other
89- answer (B) MIPS
90- answer (C) Machine level language
91- answer (C) The RBCs agglutinate.
92- answer (D) National Information Sector
93- answer (D) Arsenic
94- answer (D) Fungal
95- answer (B) The base of the brain
96- answer (B) Albertus Magnus
97- answer (A) 2.3 percent
98- answer (D) 49
99- answer (B) WTO
100- answer (D) Indefinitely
101- answer (A) 2
1 1
102- answer (C) 14.4 k.m./hr.
103- answer (C) 83.4 km/h
104- answer (A) 3 km/hr.
105- answer (B) 8
3 9
106- answer (C) 14
107- answer (D) 2 hours 24 minutes
108- answer (B) 80
109- answer (B) 50
110- answer (C) 3
1 33
3
111- answer (B) 385
112- answer (C) 32
113- answer (B) 49
114- answer (A) 25
2
115- answer (D) 2
116- answer (C) x
117- answer (D) 101
118- answer (D) 10
119- answer (B) 5
120- answer (C) 7
121- answer (B) 16
15
122- answer (C) 11
14
123- answer (D) 10
124- answer (A) 36
125- answer (B) 48
126- answer (C) 35
4
127- answer (B) 6
128- answer (A) 77
73
129- answer (C) 7
130- answer (D) 100
131- answer (B) 3
2 16
132- answer (D) 25
133- answer (C) 1 : 3
134- answer (A) 3600
135- answer (C) Rs. 325
136- answer (B) 49.6%
137- answer (D) Rs. 25
138- answer (B) 21%
139- answer (B) Second
140- answer (A) 120
141- answer (D) Rs. 8250
142- answer (A) 3 : 4
143- answer (B) 3
144- answer (B) 3 : 4
145- answer (B) 1% decrease
146- answer (C) 16
147- answer (D) Rs. 192000
148- answer (A) Rs. 11000
149- answer (C) Rs. 32000
150- answer (D) Rs. 72000
151- answer (A) took
152- answer (B) Whoever
153- answer (A) wither
154- answer (B) for
155- answer (C) didn't he?
156- answer (C) preserve
157- answer (D) Worsen
158- answer (A) natural
159- answer (A) Straight
160- answer (B) Permanent
161- answer (B) Downfall
162- answer (A) banish
163- answer (C) Preventive
164- answer (C) Protect
165- answer (C) Weak
166- answer (C) disguise myself
167- answer (B) had forged
168- answer (D) No improvement
4
169- answer (A) out
170- answer (C) produces
171- answer (C) Stowaway
172- answer (C) inferential
173- answer (A) windfall
174- answer (B) Sinecure
175- answer (D) Fauna
176- answer (B) parsimonious
177- answer (B) manageable
178- answer (C) tumble
179- answer (D) presumptuous
180- answer (B) illustrious
181- answer (D) RPQS
182- answer (D) QSRP
183- answer (B) RPQS
184- answer (A) QRPS
185- answer (D) QPSR
186- answer (C) The secret had been disclosed
by the agent before it was evening.
187- answer (B) Surely some one must have found
the lost child by now.
188- answer (C) Hot meals will be served till 10.30;
coffee and sandwiches will be ordred upto
11.30
189- answer (D) Let face be down; let arms be
stretched out.
190- answer (B) The international trophy was expected
to be won by the Greeks.
191- answer (B) The Eradication of Small-pox
192- answer (B) To eliminate small-pox worldwide
in ten years.
193- answer (C) Isolation of victims and mass
vaccinations.
194- answer (A) Previous projects had failed.
195- answer (C) small-pox victims no longer die
when they contract the disease.
196- answer (A) Judge in him
197- answer (C) have rotted away
198- answer (A) One major reason
199- answer (B) to bring about
200- answer (A) Three conditions critical

evening shift english staff selection solved paper

In question no 151 to 155 out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be subsituted for the given words

151. one who hides away on a ship to obtain a free passage.
A. compositor
B. STOKER
C. STOWAWAY
D. SHIPWRIGHT
152.clues available at a scene
a. circumstantial
b. derivative
c. inferential
d. suggestive
153. an unexpected piece of good fortune.
a. windfall
b. pilanthropy
c. benevolence
d. turnstile
154. an emolument over and above fixed income or salary
a. honorarium
b.siencure
c. perquisite
d. preogative
155. the animals of a particular region
a. flora b. museum
c. zoo d. fauna
161. 1. the most vulnerable section of the society are the students
p. revolutionary and new fledged ideas have a great appeal to them.
q. agitations may be non violent methods of protest.
r. they cannot resist the charm of persuasion.
s. they are to be taught that without discipline they cannot get proper education.
6. However if these become violent, the antisocial elements get encouraged and they put all proper working out of gear.
a. prsq
b. rsqp
c. srpq
d. rpqs
162.venice is a strange city
p. there are about 400 odd bridges connecting the islands of venice.
q. there are no motor cars, no horses and no buses there.
r. these small islands are close to one another.
s. it is not one island but a hundred islands.
6. this is because venice has no streets.
a. srpq
b. psrq
c. rqps
d. qsrp
163. one of the most terrible battles of the american civil war was fought in july 1863 at gettysburg
p.the chief speech on that occasion was given by edward everett, a celebrated orator.
q. lincoln was asked to make a few remarks.
r. in november of that year a portion of the battlefield was dedicated as a final resting place for men of both armies who died there.
s. everett's speech lasted 2 hours; lincoln's for 2 minutes; it was over almost before the crowd realized that it had begun.
6. but the gbettysburg speech, is now one of the world's immortal pieces of literature.
a.sqrp
b.rpqs
c.rqrs
d.qpsr
164.the teacher training agency in england hopes to make teaching one of the top three professions,
p. they have also demanded that the campaign should be matched by improved pay scales, work load and morale so as to avoid recruitment problems with an aim to raise the image of the teaching profession.
q. a series of advertisements are now being screened showing famous people speaking about teachers they remember and admire.
r. an amount of 100 million has been set aside to combat the shortage of applicants for teacher training.
s. teacher unions have welcomed this campaign.
6.it is high time for the indian government also to think on similar lines and take steps to lift up the sinking morale of the teaching profession.
a. qrps
b.rpsq
c.rqsp
d.qpsr
165. some say that failure is like toxic waste.
p. i see failure more as a fertilizer.
q thinking about it pollutes and undermines the attitudes needed for success.
r. the seeds of success must be planted afresh.
s. it can be used to enrich the soil of your mind.
6. turning failure into a fertilizer is accomplished by using your errors as steps in learning.
a. srqp
b.pqsr
c.spqr
d. qpsr


ACTIVE PASSIVE
166. the agent had disclosed the secret before it was evening.
a. the secret was disclosed by the agent before it was evening.
b. the secret had disclosed by the agent before it had been evening.
c. the secret had been disclosed by the agent before it was evening.
d. the secret was disclosed by the agent before it had been evening.

167. surely the lost child must have been found by now.
a. surely must have found the lost child by now.
b. surely some one must have found the lost child by now.
c. surely now must have found the lost child
d. now must have found the lost child surely.

168. We serve hot meals till 10.30 guests can order coffee and sandwiches upto 11.30
a. hot meals are serving till 10.30 coffee and sandwiches are ordering by guests till 11.30
b. hot meals are being served till 10.30 coffee and sandwiches are being ordered till 11.30
c. hot meals are served till 10.30 coffee and sandwiches may by ordered till 11.30
d. hot meals will be served till 10.30 coffee and sandwiches will be ordered upto 11.30
169. lie face-down; stretch your arms in front
a. your are face down, arms are to be outstretched.\
b. you should be lying face down, with arms outstretched.\
c. you should by lying face down; let arms stretch out.
d. let face be down; let arms be stretched out.
170. the greeks expected to win the international trophy.
a. it was expected that the greeks would win the international trophy.
b. the international trophy was expected to be won by the greeks.
c. it was expected that the greeks will win the international trophy.
d. it was exoected by the greeks that they would win the international trophy.

passage 171to 175 question based on it
in may 1966 the world health organisation was authorised to initate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. the goal was to eradicate the disease
in one decade. because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated, but
eleven years after the initial organisation of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations, but also to isolate patients with active small-pox in order to contain the spread of the
disease and to break the chanin of human transmission. Rewards for reporting small-pox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers;
one by one, each small-pox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. at the same time the entire village where the victim had lived was vaccinated.
Today small-pox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.

171. which of the following is the best title of the passage
a. the world health orgsanisation
b. the eradication of small-pox
c. small pox vaccinations
d. infectious diseases
172. what was the goal of the campaign against small-pox
a. to decrease the spread of small pox worldwide
b. to eliminate small pox worldwide in ten years.
c. to provide mass vaccinations against small pox worldwide
d. to initiate worldwide projects for small pox malaria and yellow fever at the same time.
173. according to the paragraph what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of small-pox
a. vaccination of the entire village
b. treatment of individual victum
c. isolation of victims and mass vaccinations.
d. extensive reporting of outbreaks.
174. which statement does not refer to small pox
a. previous projects had failed
b. people are no longer vaccinated for it
c. the world health organisation mounted a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease
d. it was a serious threat.
175. it can be inferred that
a. no new cases of small pox have been reported this year
b. malaria and yellow fever have been eliminated.]
c. small pox victims no longer die when they contract the disease
d. small pox is not transmitted from one person to another.


CORRECTION
176. a.judge in him/b. prevailed upon the father/ c. and he sentenced his son to death / d. no error

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evening shift second shift general awareness answer key solved paper staff selection commission graduate level tier first 16 may 2010

General Awareness
Series – 789 KO 6 (IInd Shift-2pm to 4pm)

1. Pituitary gland is situated in
(A) the base of the heart
(B) the base of the brain
(C) the neck
(D) the abdomen
Ans: (B) the base of the brain

2. Who discovered cement?
(A) Agassit
(B) Albertus Magnus
(C) Joseph Aspdin
(D) Janseen
Ans: (C) Joseph Aspdin

3. According to RBI Report….. NPA – 2008-09 for India
Banks
(A) 2.3%
(B) 2.6%
(C) 3.5%
(D) 5.2%
Ans: (A) 2.3%

4. Windows 7, the latest OS ……… Indian Languages fonts
(A) 14
(B) 26
(C) 37
(D) 49
Ans: (A) 14

5. TRIPS and TRIMS are the terms associated with
(A) IMF
(B) WTO
(C) IBRD
(D) IDA
Ans: (B) WTO

6. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force
(A) For three months
(B) For Six months
(C) For nine months
(D) Indefinitely
Ans: (B) For Six months


7. Which of the following Indonesian victim massive
earthquake-2004?
(A) Irian Jaya
(B) Sumatra
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Java
Ans: (B) Sumatra

8. First DURANTO A/C Express
(A) Sealdah-New Delhi
(B) Mumbai-Howrah
(C) Bangalore-Howrah
(D) Chennai-NewDelhi
Ans: (A) Sealdah-New Delhi

9. Economic Outlook for 2009-2010?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) PM Economic Advisory Council
(C) Finance Commission
(D) RBI
Ans: (B) PM Economic Advisory Council

10. Indian and US finalize agreement related to
following?
(A) Trade and Investment
(B) Intellectual property
(C) Traditional Knowledge
(D) All of the Above
Ans: (D) All of the Above

11. Which of the following river does not part of
Narmada river?
(A) MP
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra
Ans: (B) Rajasthan

12. Which of the following countries third largest
market for twitter?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Indonesia
Ans: (B) India

13. The exchange of commodities between two countries is
(A) Balance of trade
(B) Bilateral trade
(C) Volume of trade
(D) Multilateral trade
Ans: (B) Bilateral trade

14. Soil erosion on hill slopes cane be checked by
(A) Afforestation
(B) Terrace cultivation
(C) Strip cropping
(D) Contour ploughing
Ans: (B) Contour ploughing

15. Who coined the word Geography?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Eratosthenese
(C) Hecataus
(D) Herodatus
Ans: (B) Eratosthenese

16. Which of the following is called ‘ecological
hotspot of India’?
(A) Western Ghats
(B) Eastern Ghats
(C) Western Himalayas
(D) Eastern Himalayas
Ans: (B) Western Himalayas

17. The art of map making
(A) Remote sensing
(B) Cartography
(C) Photogrammetry
(D) Mapping
Ans: (B) Cartography

18. The age of Earth can be determined by
(A) Geological Time Scale
(B) Radio-Metric Dating
(C) Gravity Method
(D) Fossilization Method
Ans: ((B) Radio-Metric Dating

19. The monk influenced Ashoka to embrace Buddhism
(A) Vishnu Gupta
(B) Upa Gupta
(C) Brahma Gupta
(D) Brihadratha
Ans: B) Upa Gupta

20. The declaration that “Govt. of the people, by the
people, for the people made by
(A) George Washington
(B) Winston Churchill
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) Theodore Roosevelt
Ans: (C) Abraham Lincoln

21. The Lodhi dynasty was founded by
(A) Ibrahim Lodhi
(B) Sikandar Lodhi
(C) Bahlol Lodhi
(D) Khizr Khan
Ans: (C) Bahlol Lodhi

22. Harsha was defeated by
(A) Prabhakaravardhana
(B) Pulakesin-II
(C) Narsimhavarma Pallava
(D) Sasanka
Ans: (B) Pulakesin-II

23. Who among the following was illiterate?
(A) Jahangir
(B) Shah jahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Aurangazeb
Ans: (C) Akbar

24. Which Gov. General associated with Doctrine of
lapse?
(A) Lord Rippon
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Bentick
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans: (B) Lord Dalhousie

25. India attained dominion status on
(A) 15th Jan, 1947
(B) 15th Aug, 1947
(C) 15th Aug, 1950
(D) 15th Oct, 1947
Ans: B) 15th Aug, 1947

26. Despotism is possible in a
(A) One party state
(B) Two party state
(C) Multi party state
(D) Two and multi party state
Ans: (A) One party state

27. Marx belonged to
(A) Germany
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) Britain
Ans: (A) Germany

28. Which of the following is guardian of fundamental
rights?
(A) Legislature
(B) Executive
(C) Political parties
(D) Judiciary
Ans: (D) Judiciary

29. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with
(A) Administrative reforms
(B) Electoral Reforms
(C) Financial Reforms
(D) Centre-State Relations
Ans: (D) Centre-State Relations

30. The speaker of Lok Sabha address his/her
resignation to
(A) PM of India
(B) President of India
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: (C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

31. A want become a demand only when it is backed by
(A) Ability to purchase
(B) Necessity to buy
(C) Desire to buy
(D) Utility of the product
Ans: (C) Ability to purchase

32. The term “Micro and Macro Economics” were coined by
(A) Alfred Marshall
(B) Ragner Nurske
(C) Ragner Frisch
(D) JM Keynes
Ans: (C) Ragner Frisch

33. During periods of Inflation, tax rates should
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain Constant
(D) Fluctuate
Ans: (A) Increase

34. Which is the biggest tax paying sector in India?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Industrial Sector
(C) Transport Sector
(D) Banking Sector
Ans: (B) Industrial Sector

35. “Economics is what it ought to “ – This statement
refers to
(A) Normative Economics
(B) Positive Economics
(C) Monetary Economics
(D) Fiscal Economics
Ans: (A) Normative Economics

36. The excess of price a person is to pay rather than
forgo consumption
(A) Price
(B) Profit
(C) Producers’ Surplus
(D) Consumers’ Surplus
Ans: (D) Consumers’ Surplus

37. Silver halides are used in photographic plates
because they
(A) Oxidised in air
(B) Soluble in hyposolution
(C) Reduced by light
(D) Totally colourless
Ans: (A) Oxidised in air

38. Tetraethyl lead is
(A) A catalyst in burning fossil fuel
(B) An antioxidant
(C) A reductant
(D) An antiknock compound
Ans: (D) An antiknock compound

39. Curie point is the temperature at which
(A) Matter becomes radioactive
(B) A metal loses magnetic properties
(C) A metal loses conductivity
(D) Transmutation of metal occurs
Ans: (B) A metal loses magnetic properties

40. The isotope used for the production of atomic energy
(A) U-235
(B) U-238
(C) U-234
(D) U-236
Ans: (A) U-235

41. The acceleration due to gravity at the equator
(A) is less than at the poles
(B) is greater than that at the poles
(C) is equal to that at the poles
(D) does not depend on the earth’s centripetal
acceleration
Ans: (A) is less than at the poles

42. Which of the following is not a nucleon?
(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Electron
(D) Positron
Ans: (D) Positron

43. The material used in the manufacture of lead pencil
is
(A) Graphite
(B) Lead
(C) Carbon
(D) Mica
Ans: (A) Graphite

44. Angle of friction and angle of repose are
(A) equal to each other
(B) not equal to each other
(C) proportional to each other
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) proportional to each other