ASI IN CISF G.K GENERAL AWARENESS ANSWER KEY SOLVED PAPER

1. When was minimum wages act enacted in India.
Ans: 1948

2. The international Court of Justice sits in
Ans: The Hague

3. On the tributary of which river has Rihand Dam constructed?
Ans: Sone

4. AGMARK is?
Ans: a quality guarantee stamp for commodities

5. Why was Simon Commission boycotted by the Indians?
Ans: it did not include any Indian as a member

6. The declaration of the constitutional emergency in an Indian state has to be approved by the parliament within a period of?
Ans: 6 months

7. When did the Soviet Union disintegrate into 15 independent states?
Ans: 1991

8. The largest freshwater lake in the world?
Ans: Lake superior

9. Which breeds of the following buffalo breeds is found in the south Western part of Gujarat?
Ans: SURTI

10. The number of subjects in the Union list of the Indian Constitution is?
Ans: 97

11. Who started first newspaper in India?
Ans: James A. Hickey

12. Who founded the servants of India Society?
Ans: Gopal Krishna Gokhale

13. English education was introduced in India by
Ans: Lord Macaulay

14. Name of important French possession in India
Ans: Pondicherry

15. First Indian to be elected a member of British Parliament:
Ans: Dadabhai Naoroji

16. The length of Indian coast line is:
Ans: 7500 km

17. The second highest peak of the world is:
Ans: K2

18. The length of Konkan Railways
Ans: 760 km

19. world trade organization was started in the year
ans 1995
20 Ebrahim alkazi is well-known personality from the field of
ans theatre

21.the scientist who first sent electromagnetic waves to distant places is
ans heinrich hertz

22. who is the author of the book to a hunger free world
ans ms swaminathan

23.which one of the following is the first national park of india
ans corett national park

24.kaiga II plant which supplies electricity is a
ans nuclear power reactor

25. What can the president do if a state fails to comply with the directives of the central government?
ans he can declare the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state and assume responsibility for the governance of the state

26. in the world india tops in the production of
ans mica

27. which of the following statements is true?
ans whole grain cereals and pulses are more nutritious

28. the sky appears blue because
ans the atmosphere scatters blue colour more than the others

29. which of the following is a cold ocean current?
ans humboldt current

ASI CISF SSC ENGLISH ANSWER KEY SOLVED PAPER

Direction1-5. Spotting the error:
1. I use/A to go out/B to work earlier/C No error/D
ans: A. it should be used
2. The teacher/A has took/B the responsibility/C No error/D
Ans: B. has taken.
3. I don't/A want to/B loose it/C No error/D
Ans: C. lose it.
4. Do not/A get panicked/B in emergencies/C No error/D
Ans: D. No error.
5. Sometimes/A I get angry/B on her/C no error/D
Ans: C. At her.
Direction 6-10. Fill in the blanks:
6. The strike has been called___
Ans: A. off
7. He is always angry___his children.
Ans: A. With.
8. I have ___Lakshmi for the past twelve years.
Ans: C. known
9. He did not qualify___the job.
Ans: A. for
10. ___the last ten years we have been victim of abuse.
Ans: B. For
Direction: 11-15. Choose the word which best express the
meaning:
11. Censure
Ans: A. criticise
12. Illicit
Ans: A. unlawful
13. Obstinate
Ans: D. Stubborn
14. Dangerous
Ans: C. Hazardous
15. Confidential
Ans: Secret
Direction: 166-170. Choose the word which is opposite to the
given word.
16. Keen
Ans: A. Blunt
17. Bravery
Ans: C. Cowardly
18. Affluent
Ans: poor
19. Obscure
Ans: C. Distinct
20. Ambiguous
Ans: magnified
Direction: 21-25. Replacing underlying idioms/phrases with the
best expression.
21. When trade was brisk, he worked hard and made his fortune,
he believes in making hay while the Sun shines
Ans: A. taking advantage of a favourable opportunity.
22. when they were surrounded from all sides the dacoits laid
down their arms
Ans: C. surrendered
23. The angry hockey players gave vent to their feelings
Ans: A. to express
24. I trust you will bear with me a few minutes more.
Ans: A. have patience with
25. As usual he is blowing his own trumpet.
Ans: C. praising himself.
Direction 26-30. Choose the correct alternative.
26. I did not saw my cousin in Madras
Ans: b. Did not see
27. He behaves like coward.
Ans: A. Cowardly.
28. Neither of them went to the cinema.
Ans: D. No improvement.
29. I used to have very thick hair.
Ans: D. No improvement.
30. They reached at Calcutta on Monday last.
Ans: C. Reached Calcutta.
Directions 31-35..
31. Determine the nature of the disease
Ans: C. Diagnose
32. To run away with a lover
Ans: D. Elope.
33. Science of heredity
Ans: C. Genetics
34. Arrangements in order of occurrence
Ans: B. Chronological
35. Occurring in the night
Ans: Nocturnal
DIRECTIONS: 36-50. Correct spelling:
36. A. Separate
37. C.Grammatic.
38. A. Omitted.
39. B. Familiar
40. Rumble
41-50. Fill in the paragraph.
Note: Correct answer are marked in Bold.
Hawthrone had not expected this sudden dismissal. He had
thought they would scold him as usual. Since he had no job.
What could he tell Sophia. Sophia, was Hawthrone's wife. He
had not told her anything about his troubles at the office. How
was he going to support her and himself from now on? He
walked home slowly.

ASI IN CISF REASONING ANSWER KEY SOLVED PAPER SSC STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION ASI IN CISF

1 A 20 : 120
2 B
3 C
4 A IGNORANCE
5 B RAZOR : BEARD
6 C FHG
7 A BEHK
8 D TOPTIP
9 56
10 A 942
11 B PULSES
12 C
13 C RADIATION
14 C HEAD CAP
15 C
16 D VUWX
17 A 206
18 A 66-55
19 A 139 267 458
20 A 32.5 37 43.5
21 D DEFG
22 B 1324
23 C 14253
24 B 26A
25 D
26 C
27 D MNNO
28 B16 21
29 D 4523
30 D Q/C
31 D B
32 C DOUGHTIER
33 2
34 C RETIRING
35 C STATION
36 A
37 B 11
38 B HOMAGE
39 C 5247
40 D 370
41 D SOUTHWEST REGION
42 C
43 C 3
44 D 3KM
45 A ONLY I FOLLOWS
46 A
47 C
48 D
49 A
50 B 129

ASI IN CISF MATH SSC ANSWER KEY ASSISTANT SUB INSPECTOR IN CISF SOLVED PAPER MATH

101 B
102 C 7
103 B 24/25
104 D 2
105 A
106 A 1
107 C 13
108 A 2 1/2
109 B 540
110
111 A 5
112 C 5
113 D 36
114 B 3%
115 C 184
116 A 7/8
117 B 1
118 C
119 C 355
120 D 217
121 D 256
122 B 37.5
123 B 2000
124 C 46%
125 A 48.8%
126 D 200
127 D 3.60
128 D 120
129 C 9:19
130 A 9:8:10
131 c C 2:1
132 B 10
133 A 3700
134 D 120
135 A 48 KM/H
136 B 9
137 A 32:25
138 B 1250
139 D 800
140 C 20YEARS
141 A 16
142 D 4:3
143 C 3 3/4
144 C 5.5
145 C26
146 C 5
147 B 10
148 3:7 A
149 C 75000
150 D 3

UTTAR PRADESH POLICE CONSTABLE 2009 PAPER

UTTAR PRADESH POLICE CONSTABLE EXAM 2009
QUESTION PAPER
1. WAYU MANDAL ME OCCSIGAN KI MATRA KITNI HOTI HE A. 18% B 21% C 78% D 39%
2. SENETIC WARSES KE LAYKHAK HE
A. SALMAN RASIDKI
B. HARSH
C. JARJ OHWEL
D. J.M BERI
3. ARYBHAT EK THA
A. CHIKITSAK
B. CHITARKAR
C. KHAGOLVETA
D. WAYGAYANIK
4. SWETAMBAR OR DEGAMBER KIS DHARAM K HE
A. BODH
B. JAIN
C. HINDU
D. SIKH
5.BRAITAN KI MODRA KA NAAM
A. DALOR
B. POND
C. DEENAR
D. FRANK
6. UTTAR PRADESH KI DOSRI RAJAY BHASA HE
A. ENGLISH
B. BHOJPURI
C. URDU
D. HINDI
7. KIS ESTAAN PAR KUMBH MELA NAHI LAGTA\
A. UJJAIN
B. ALLABAHAD
C. HARIDAWAR
D. VARANSI
8. PANIPAT KA TISRA YODH KIS K BICH LADA GAYA
9. RAFRIJRYTER ME KIS GAS KA PARYOG HOTA HE
A. AMONYA
B. CO2
C. CLOREN
D. H20
10. YADI PRATHVI KA AKH JHOKA NAHI HOTA TO SURY KI KIRNY KAYWAL LABWAT PADTI
A. KARK REKHA PAR
B. MAKAR REKHA PAR
C. DHORWO PAR
D. BHOMADHY REKHA PAR
11.PARYWACHI BATAO
JHANDY KA
12.50 RUPAYE K NOTE PAR KIS K HASTASAR HOTY HE
A. GOVERNOR RBI
B. PARDHAN MANTRI
C. RASTRPATI
D. VITMANTRI
13. RUPYE KI TULNA ME KIS VIDYSI MODRA KA MOLY ADHIK HOTA HE
A. YEN
B. AUSTRALIYAN DOLAR
C. US DOLAR
D. BRITISH POND
14 DISCOVERY OF INDIA K LAYKHAK HE
15.RAJYPAL KI NIYOKTI KON KARTA HE
16. KAB KOI RAJ RASTRPATI K SASAN K ANTARGAT HOTA HE TO US RAJY ME
BAJAT KON PARIT KARTA HE
17. HMARY SARIR ME PIT RAS KAHA PEDA HOTA HE
A. YAKRAT
B. AGNASY
C. TILI
D. GORDA
18. VILOM BATAO ANUKUL KA
19. KON SE GAR WAYOMANDAL KI OGON PART KO APGHTIT KARTI HE
A. KLORO FLORO CARBAN
B. CO2
C. METHEN
D. CO3
20. RBC SARIR K KIS ANG ME BANTI HE
A. ASTHI MAJA
B. HARDY
C. GORDA
D. TILI

EMPLOYEES' STATE INSURANCE CORPORATION (ESIC) Regional Office, Panchdeep Bhawan, Madhya Marg, Sector 19-A, Chandigarh-160019

EMPLOYEES' STATE INSURANCE CORPORATION (ESIC)
Regional Office, Panchdeep Bhawan, Madhya Marg, Sector 19-A, Chandigarh-160019

Recruitment of Stenographer, Lowe Division Clerk (LDC) and Peon

Applications are invited in the prescribed format for filling up the following vacancies at ESIC Regional Office, Chandigarh Punjab.
Lower Division Clerks (LDC) : 25 posts (UR-15, SC-5, OBC-5), Pay Band : Rs.5200-20200/- Grade Pay Rs.1900, Age : 18-27 years.
Stenographers : 05 posts (UR-2, SC-2, OBC-1), Pay Band : Rs.5200-20200/- Grade Pay Rs.2400, Age : 18-27 years.
Peon : 24 posts (UR-10, SC-10, OBC-4), Pay Band : Rs.5200-20200/- Grade Pay Rs.1800, Age : 18-27 years.

Relaxation in age as per rules.

Application Fee : Demand Draft/Banker’s Cheque of Rs.200/- for the post of Steno and LDC and Rs.100/- for the post of Peon to be drawn on the State Bank of India in favour of Regional Director, ESI Corporation, Chandigarh payable at Chandigarh. (ST/ST/Ex.SM/Women/PH candidates are exempted from fee)

How to Apply : Apply Online at ESIC Punjab website upto 14/09/2010. Candidates for the post of Peon can apply Offline also.

Please view http://www.esicpunjab.org/pdf/Recruitment2010.pdf for details and apply online at http://www.esicpunjab.org/recruitment/

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Shahjahan Road, Dhopur House, New Delhi – 110069 Advertisement No. 16/2010

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Shahjahan Road, Dhopur House, New Delhi – 110069

Advertisement No. 16/2010

UPSC invites application on prescribed forms by 16/09/2010 (23/09/2010 for the candidates from far flung areas) for various posts in various Government of India Ministries and Departments in the prescribed format. The posts are :
Deputy Direcotr (Aircraft Engineering) : 07 posts in DGCA, Ministry of Civil Aviation
Aeronautical Officer : 18 posts in DGC, Ministry of Civil Aviation
Translation Officers (Russian/ English) : 13 posts in Integrated Headquarters, Ministry of Defence (Navy)
Drug Inspector : 81 posts in Central Drug Standards Control Organisation, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Department of Health & Family Welfare
Specialist Gr.II (Surgery) Jr. Scale : 08 posts in Central Health Service, Non-Teaching Specialist Sub-Cadre in Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
Public Health Specialist Gr.II Jr. Scale : 13 posts in Central Health Service, Public Health Specialist Sub-Cadre in Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
Assistant Director of Mines Safety (Occupational Health) Gr.I : 02 post in Ministry of Labour & Employment
Professor (General Surgery) : 01 post in Government Medical College & Hospital, Chandigarh, Department of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh Administration
Reader (Bio-Chemistry) : 01 post in Government Medical College & Hospital, Chandigarh, Department of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh Administration
Senior Lecturer (Psychiatry) : 01 post in Government Medical College & Hospital, Chandigarh, Department of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh Administration

Fee payable is Rs.50/- in the shape of Central Recruitment Fee Stamp only. (fee exempted for SC/ ST/ PH/ Women candidates)

For Details of posts, qualification, instructions and application format relating to Advt. No. 16/2010, please visit UPSC web site at http://upsc.gov.in/. Application forms are available in the Recruitment Section of the above said website. Or please see Employment News dated 28/08/2010.

Completed applications with enclosures should be sent to the Joint Secretary (Recruitment), Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi - 110069, so as to reach on or before prescribed closing date i.e. 16/09/2010. Application format is available at http://upsc.gov.in/general/general.htm

The Food Corporation of India, one of the largest Public Sector Undertakings, dealing with Foodgrain supply-chain

The Food Corporation of India, one of the largest Public Sector Undertakings, dealing with Foodgrain supply-chain
management wishes to recruit young and skilled Category III personnel for manning posts in its depots or offices spread
all over the country. Online applications are invited from Indian Nationals who fulfill the prescribed qualifications and age
etc. for the posts indicated below:-


PROJECTED VACANCIES:
The total number of vacancies may vary as per administrative exigencies and at the discretion of FCI management.
Category-III
Name of the post POST
CODE

Scale of
Pay
Maximum
Age limit
as on
1.8.2010
SC ST
OBCNCL
PH
#
UR Total
ASSISTANT GRADE III (General) 01 Rs. 9300-
22940
25 13 06 25 03 46 93
ASSISTANT GRADE III (Accounts) 02 Rs. 9300-
22940
25 02 01 04 - 11 18
ASSISTANT GRADE III (Quality
Control)

03 Rs. 9300-
22940
25 12 06 22 02 40 82

# Nature of disability for which reserved:
Post Code Nature of Disability for
which reserved

LEGENDS
01 01 (HH), 02 (OH) OL One Leg affected (R/L)
03 02 (OH) OA One Arm affected (R/L)
BL Both Legs affected not arms
PB Partially Blind
LV Low Vision
B Blind
PD Partially Deaf
D Deaf

Only persons with the Degree of
Disability of 40% and above are
eligible for applying for the PH
Category posts.




QUALIFICATION:

For Post Code No. 1:

Graduate Degree in any discipline from a recognized University along with ‘O’ level computer qualification of DOEACC
OR
Degree in Computer Science or Computer Application

For Post Code No. 2

(i) Graduate Degree in Commerce/ Mathematics/ Statistics from a recognized University
AND
(ii) ‘O’ level computer qualification of DOEACC/Degree in Computer Science or Computer Application

For Post Code No. 3
FOOD CORPORATION OF INDIA
NORTH-EAST ZONE
ISO 9001:2000 CERTIFIED
(i) Graduate Degree in Science preferably in Agriculture from a recognized University
AND
(ii) ‘O’ level computer qualification of DOEACC/Degree in Computer Science or Computer Application

RESERVATION AND RELAXATIONS:

 The prescribed qualifications, experience and the age limit shall be reckoned as on 01.08.2010. The maximum
age limit can be relaxed by 5 years in case of SC/ST candidates and 3 years for OBC candidates.
 In case of departmental employees, there will not be any upper age limit.
 The upper age limit for PH candidates is relaxed by 10 years [15 years for PH candidates belonging to SC/ST and
13 yrs for PH candidates belonging to OBC.]
 Age is additionally relaxable by 5 years for those applicants who had ordinarily been domiciled in the Kashmir
Division in the State of Jammu and Kashmir during the period 01-01-1980 to 31-12-1989. Any applicant intending
to avail the relaxation under this category shall have to submit a certificate from a) The District Magistrate in
Kashmir Division within whose jurisdiction she/he had ordinarily resided or any other authority designated in this
behalf by the Govt. of Jammu & Kashmir in the effect that she/he had ordinarily been domiciled in the Kashmir
Division of the State of Jammu & Kashmir, during the period from 01-01-80 to 31-12-89.
 The aforesaid reservation is not applicable to OBC candidates falling within the creamy layer.

SELECTION PROCESS:

Selection process consists of a written test only. The written test will be conducted on 12/12/2010 (Tentative). The Admit
Card for the written test can be downloaded from the website http://specialtest.in/fci from 14 days, before the date
of written test. On qualifying the Written Test, short-listed candidates will be called for document verification to confirm
their eligibility for the post applied for. Based on the merit obtained by them in the written test, a panel of selected
candidates would be formed from amongst those found eligible after document verification.

GENERAL INFORMATION AND INSTRUCTION:

 All the posts carry IDA pattern pay scales and usual allowances such as CCA, HRA, Leave Travel facilities etc.
These scales carry DA on percentage basis. Gross emoluments would vary depending upon place of posting.
 Employees of Central/State Govt. and Public Sector Undertakings should apply online, take the printout of the filled-in
form, get it certified by their present employer in the space provided on the form OR obtain the No Objection
Certificate from their present employer, attach all essential enclosures and send it to the address mentioned so as to
reach within the stipulated date.
 Mere submission of application and fulfilling the eligibility conditions give no right to any person for appearing in
Test etc.
 Filling up of these vacancies is subject to the outcome of any litigation affecting the recruitment.
 No correspondence will be entertained about the outcome of the application, at any stage.
 All appointments will be subject to the Rules and Regulations of the Corporation, in-force from time to time.
Other benefits like CPF, Gratuity, Leave Travel Concessions, Leave Encashment, Medical reimbursement,
conveyance reimbursement, lunch subsidy etc., shall be applicable as per the rules of the Corporation as
amended from time to time.
 The candidates on selection to North-East Zone may be posted in any state within the jurisdiction of North-East
Zone as category III is a zonal cadre post. However they are also liable to be posted anywhere in the country in
the interest of the organization.
 No TA will be provided for the Written Test. However, for attending the document verification process,
candidates will be given II class Rail fare or ordinary bus fare “To and Fro” (as per entitlement) by the shortest
route, subject to production of railway ticket/bus ticket & subject to passing the document verification process.
 Candidates should satisfy themselves that they fulfill the required qualification including Computer Qualification,
age etc., before applying for the post. In case it is found that the information furnished by a candidate is
defective in any manner or has deliberately suppressed information, the candidature will be summarily rejected
as and when it comes to the notice of the Management. The candidates are advised to satisfy themselves fully
about the correctness of the information furnished, if found ineligible at any stage the candidature would be
rejected.
 Based on the performance in the written test, candidates will be called for document verification. Only those
candidates cleared in the document verification process, fulfilling all the eligibility criteria will be considered for
empanelment in order of merit.  No other Computer Qualification other than expressly mentioned in the Qualification Criteria would
be accepted
 Issue of admit card for the written test & calling for document verification does not confer any right of
acceptance of candidature and should not be construed as an acknowledgement of fulfilling the eligibility
criterion.
 Self attested Photostat copies of documents for proof of age/qualifications/caste etc. should be
attached with the application. Without these the candidature would be rejected. Original
certificates will, however, be scrutinized / verified at the time of document verification.
 Management reserves the right to conduct additional examination/skill test or call for any additional documentary
evidence in support of educational qualification & experience of the applicant.
 At the time of the document verification process, if a candidate is unable to produce all the original documents
due to whatsoever reason, his candidature would be rejected. Under no circumstances additional time would be
provided. Thus only those candidates are advised to apply who can produce all the relevant documents in original
at the time of verification of documents.
 Care should be exercised by the Departmental candidates to take the printout of the filled-in form, get it certified
by the respective competent authority in the space provided on the form OR obtain the No Objection Certificate
from respective competent authority, attach all essential enclosures and send it to the address mentioned so as
to reach within the stipulated date.
 Any attempt to influence the Corporation in any manner would result in disqualification and rejection of
candidature immediately.
 Candidate must ensure to have fulfilled all the eligibility criteria, viz., age & qualification as on
01.08.2010
 In case of any clarification on recruitment process, please email at fci@specialtest.in ; no other
form of communication shall be entertained. However pendency of any such query will not effect in
extension of scheduled dates of the recruitment process.
 Appointment of empanelled candidates will be subject to their being found medically fit, verification of character
and antecedents and verification of caste certificate wherever applicable.

HOW TO APPLY: To apply follow the steps given below:

1. Candidates have to submit a Demand Draft of Rs.300/- (Rupees Three hundred only) through a bank drawn in favour
of Food Corporation of India, payable at Guwahati No other mode of payment would be accepted. The date of
issue of demand draft should not be before the date of advertisement.
2. Application fee is not required for SC/ST and PH candidates, subject to submission of Caste/Disability Certificate from
Appropriate Authority in support of his/her claim.
3. Application can be made in online mode only. The candidates who apply online have to fill all the details online, then
take a print out of filled form, affix photo & put signatures at designated places & then send the form along with
demand draft & photocopies of certificates to the Post Box Number.
4. The online application window can be accessed at http://specialtest.in/fci for a period of 30 days from the date
of publication of this advertisement

DO CHAT WITH OTHERS THEY CAN HELP YOU.

IN MY BLOG YOU CAN CHAT WITH OTHERS. IF YOU HAVE ANY QUESTION AND WANT A DISCUSS IT YOU CAN SUBMIT YOUR QUESTION THROUGH COMMENT. I YOU HAVE ANY INFORMATION YOU CAN COMMENT ON OUR BLOG. IF YOU LIKE TO TALK OTHER VISITORS YOU CAN SUBMIT YOUR COMMENT ON OUR BLOG. THEY WILL REPLY YOU. IT IS A BETTER WAY TO TALK OTHERS AND KNOW THEIR POINT OF VIEW. YOU CAN CHAT WITH ME ALSO BY COMMENTING ON OUR BLOG. SO WHY YOU ARE WAITING COMMENT COMMENT COMMENT COMMENT COMMENT COMMENT GO FOR IT!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

• Junior Translators(CSOLs)/Junior Hindi Translators(in Subordinate Offices) Examination,2010 • CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD APPLICATION

Junior Translators(CSOLs)/Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices) Examination, 2010

( TO BE PUBLISHED IN THE EMPLOYMENT NEWS / ROZGAR SAMACHAR
DATED 28.08.2010 )
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
Date of Exam: 28.11.2010
Closing Date : 27.09.2010
NOTICE
Junior Translators(CSOLs)/Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices)
Examination, 2010
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Commission will hold a Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment to the posts
of Junior Translators(CSOLs)/Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices) . The
Examination will comprise of a Written Examination followed by Interview
.
2. The Commission will not undertake detailed scrutiny of applications for the eligibility and
other aspects at the time of written examination and, therefore, the application is
accepted only provisionally. The candidates are advised to go through the requirements of
educational qualification, age etc. and satisfy themselves that they are eligible before
applying. Copies of supporting documents, however, should be sent along with the
application. When scrutiny is undertaken, if any claim made in the application is not found
substantiated, the candidature of such candidates will be cancelled and the Commission’s
decision shall be final.
3. CANDIDATES IN THEIR OWN INTEREST ARE ADVISED TO GO THROUGH THE DETAILED
INSTRUCTIONS CONTAINED IN THIS NOTICE AND ALSO AVAILABLE ON THE WEBSITE OF THE
COMMISSION: http://ssc.nic.in CAREFULLY BEFORE APPLYING.
4. Candidates seeking reservation benefits available for SC/ST/OBC/PH/EXS must ensure
that they are entitled to such reservation as per eligibility prescribed in the Notice .They
should also be in possession of the certificates in the prescribed format in support of
their claim at the time of application.
5. Candidates with visual disability of 40% and more only would be considered as VISUALLY
HANDICAPPED (VH) and entitled to reservation for VH.
6. Central Government civilian employees/servants claiming age relaxation should submit a
certificate in the prescribed format from their office in respect of the length of continuous
service which should be for not less than three years in the immediate period preceding
the closing date for receipt of application. They should continue to have the status of
Central Government civilian servants/employees from the day of application till the time of
appointment, in the event of their selection.
FEE: RUPEES ONE HUNDRED ONLY(Rs.100/-)
Fee is exempted for all Women candidates and candidates belonging to
Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, Physically Handicapped, and Ex-
Servicemen eligible for reservation.
8. CLOSING DATE : 27.09.2010 (upto 5 P.M.). For candidates residing in Assam, Meghalaya,
Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Jammu and Kashmir,
Lahaul and Spiti District and Pangi Sub Division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh,
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep and for candidates residing abroad –
04.10.2010 (upto 5 P.M). APPLICATIONS RECEIVED LATE WILL NOT BE
ENTERTAINED.
9. Only a single application will be entertained. Candidature in respect of multiple applications
will be summarily rejected.
10. MOBILES AND OTHER ELECTRONIC GADGETS ARE BANNED WITHIN THE PREMISES OF THE
EXAMINATION CENTRES. IF ANY CANDIDATE IS FOUND TO BE IN POSSESSION OF SUCH
GADGETS IN THE EXAMINATION HALL, HIS/HER CANDIDATURE WILL BE SUMMARILY
CANCELLED.
11. THE FACILITY OF ONLINE APPLICATION WILL NOT BE AVAILABLE FOR THIS EXAMINATION.
F.No.3/6/2010-P&P. Staff Selection Commission will hold on Sunday,
the 28.11.2010 an All India Open Competitive Examination for recruitment to the
following posts:-
(i) Junior Translators(CSOLs)(Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted) in the pay
scale of Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, in various
Offices/Departments under Deptt. of Official Language;
(ii)Junior Hindi Translators (in Subordinate Offices)(Group ‘C’ Non-
Technical) in the pay scale of Rs. 9300-34800 with Grade Pay
Rs. 4200/- , in various Central Government Ministries/ Departments / Offices.
2. VACANCIES / RESERVATION
(i) Firm number of vacancies will be determined in due course.
(ii) Reservation for SC/ST/OBC/PH etc. categories is available as
per extant Govt. Orders. Reservation will be available to Ex-
Serviceman candidates for the post of Junior Hindi Translators in
Subordinate Offices only.
(iii) All the posts carry All India Service Liability (AISL) i.e. the candidate, on
selection, may be asked to serve anywhere in the country.
(iv) The posts have been identified suitable for the persons suffering from
disabilities of forty percent and above of One Arm(OA),One
Leg(OL), Both Legs(BL), Partially Blind(PB), Blind(B), Partially
Deaf(PD) and Deaf(D).
3. NATIONALITY / CITIZENSHIP:
A candidate must be either:
(a) a citizen of India, or
(b) a subject of Nepal, or
(c) a subject of Bhutan, or
(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India, before the 1st January,1962, with
the intention of permanently settling in India, or
(e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri
Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of
Tanzania(Formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar),Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia
and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above
shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the
Government of India.
A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be
admitted to the Examination but the offer of appointment will be given only after the
necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.
4(A) AGE LIMIT: Not exceeding 30 years as on 27.09.2010 .
Note I : As per extant Government Orders, the crucial date for age-limit is reckoned
with reference to the Closing date for receipt of applications, i.e.,27.09.2010.
Note II : Candidate should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the
Matriculation / Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate
available on the date of submission of application will be accepted by the
Commission for determining the Age eligibility and no subsequent request for
its change will be considered or granted .
-2-
-3-
4.(B) Permissible relaxation of Upper age limit prescribed under para 4(A) above :
Category-Codes for claiming Age Relaxation as on the date of reckoning :
Code
No.
Category Age-Relaxation permissible
beyond the Upper age limit
01 SC/ST 5 years
02 OBC 3 years
03 PH 10 years
04 PH + OBC 13 years
05 PH + SC/ST 15 years
06
For Group ‘B’ post – Post of Junior
Translator(CSOLs)
Ex-Servicemen ( Unreserved / General)
5 years
07 Ex-Servicemen (OBC) 8 years
08 Ex-Servicemen (SC/ST) 10 years
09
For Group ‘C’ post – Post of Junior Hindi
Translator(in Subordinate Offices)
Ex-Servicemen
( Unreserved / General)
03 years after deduction of
the military service rendered
from the actual age as on the
Closing date.
10 Ex-Servicemen ( OBC ) 06 years ( 3 years + 3 years)
after deduction of the military
service rendered from the
actual age as on the Closing
date.
11 Ex-Servicemen ( SC/ST ) 08 years ( 3 years + 5 years)
after deduction of the military
service rendered from the
actual age as on the Closing
date.
12
For Group ‘B’ posts – Post of Junior
Translator(CSOLs)
Central Govt. Civilian Employees
( General/Unreserved ) who have rendered
not less than 3 years regular and continuous
service as on Closing date
Up to 35 years of
age
13 Central Govt. Civilian Employees
( OBC ) who have rendered not less than 3
years regular and continuous service as on
Closing date
Up to 38 years of
age
14 Central Govt. Civilian Employees ( SC/ST )
who have rendered not less than 3 years
regular and continuous service as on Closing
date
Up to 40 years of
age
15
For Group ‘C’ posts – Post of Junior Hindi
Translator(in Subordinate Offices)
Central Govt. Civilian Employees
( General/Unreserved ) who have rendered
not less than 3 years regular and continuous
service as on Closing date
Up to 40 years of
age
17 Central Govt. Civilian Employees ( OBC )
who have rendered not less than 3 years
regular and continuous service as on Closing
date
Up to 43 years of
age
19 Central Govt. Civilian Employees ( SC/ST )
who have rendered not less than 3 years
regular and continuous service as on Closing
date
Up to 45 years of
age
21 Candidates who had ordinarily been
domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir
( Unreserved/General )
5 years
22 Candidates who had ordinarily been
domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir
( OBC )
8 years
23 Candidates who had ordinarily been
domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir
( SC/ST)
10 years
24
For Group ‘C’ post only – Post of Junior
Hindi Translators in Subordinate Offices
Widows / Divorced Women / Women
judicially separated and who are not
remarried( Unreserved/General )
Up to 35 years of age
25 Widows / Divorced Women / Women
judicially separated and who are not
remarried( OBC )
Up to 38 years of age
26 Widows / Divorced Women / Women
judicially separated and who are not
remarried( SC/ST )
Up to 40 years of age
27 Defence Personnel disabled in operation
during hostilities with any foreign country or
in a disturbed area and released as a
consequence thereof
( Unreserved/General )
3 years
28 Defence Personnel disabled in operation
during hostilities with any foreign country or
in a disturbed area and released as a
consequence thereof
( OBC )
6 (3+3) years
29 Defence Personnel disabled in operation
during hostilities with any foreign country or
in a disturbed area and released as a
consequence thereof
( SC/ST )
8 (3+5) years
NOTE-I : Ex-servicemen who have already secured employment in civil side under
Central Government in Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ posts on regular basis after availing of the
benefits of reservation given to ex-servicemen for their re-employment are NOT
eligible for fee concession or for claiming benefits of reservation under EXS category.
However, they are eligible for age relaxation only.
NOTE-II : The period of "Call up Service" of an Ex-Serviceman in the Armed
Forces shall also be treated as service rendered in the Armed Forces for purpose of age
relaxation.
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NOTE-III : For any serviceman of the three Armed Forces of the Union to be treated as
Ex-Serviceman for the purpose of securing the benefits of reservation, he must have already
acquired, at the relevant time of submitting his application for the Post / Service, the status
of ex-serviceman and /or is in a position to establish his acquired entitlement by
documentary evidence from the competent authority that he would complete specified term
of engagement from the Armed Forces within the stipulated period of one year from the
CLOSING DATE ( i.e 27.09.2010 ).
NOTE-IV : The post of Junior Translators(CSOLs) being a Group ‘B’ post, there is no
reservation for Ex-Servicemen category. However, benefit of age-relaxation will be
admissible to Ex-S candidates.
EXPLANATION : An Ex-Serviceman means a person who has served in any rank
whether as a combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy, Air Force of
the Indian Union, and
(i) who retired from such service after earning his/her pension. This
would also include persons who are retired/retire at their own request
but after having earned their pension; or
(ii) who has been released from such service on medical grounds
attributable to military service/circumstances beyond his control and
awarded medical or other disability pension; or
(iii) who has been released, otherwise than on his own request from such
service as a result of reduction in establishment; or
(iv) who has been released from such service after completing the specific
period of engagements, otherwise than at his own request or by way of
dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, and has
been given a gratuity; and includes personnel of the Territorial Army of the
following categories, namely:-
(a) Pension holders for continuous embodied service,
(b) Persons with disability attributable to military service; and
(c) Gallantry award winners.
EXPLANATION :
The persons serving in the Armed Forces of the Union, who on retirement from
service, would come under the category of “ex-serviceman” may be permitted to
apply for re-employment one year before the completion of the specified terms of
engagement and avail themselves of all concessions available to ex-servicemen but
shall not be permitted to leave the uniform until they complete the specified term
of engagement in the Armed Forces of the Union.
NOTE- V: AGE CONCESSION IS NOT ADMISSIBLE TO SONS, DAUGHTERS AND
DEPENDENTS OF EX-SERVICEMEN.
4(C) : PROCESS OF CERTIFICATION AND FORMAT OF CERTIFICATES:
Candidates who wish to be considered against vacancies reserved or seek agerelaxation
must submit requisite certificate from the competent authority, in the prescribed
format along with their application. Otherwise, their claim for SC/ST/OBC/PH/ExS status
will not be entertained and their candidature/applications will be considered under General
(UR) category. The formats of the certificates are annexed. Candidates claiming OBC
status may note that certificate on creamy layer status should have been obtained within
three years before the closing date, i.e., 27.09.2010.
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NOTE I: The closing date, i.e., 27.09.2010, for receipt of applications will be treated
as the date of reckoning for OBC status of the candidate.
NOTE II : Candidates are warned that they may be permanently debarred from the
examination conducted by the Commission in case they fraudulently claim
SC/ST/OBC/ExS/PH status.
4(D) Visually handicapped (VH) candidates with visual disabilities of forty percent and above
can avail the assistance of a SCRIBE in the Written Examination subject to such requests being
made in the application form. Question Papers and Answer Sheets will not be provided in
BRAILLE.
No attendant will be allowed with VH candidates inside the examination premises.
One eyed candidates and partially blind candidates who are able to read the normal Question
Paper set for all the candidates with or without magnifying glass and who wish to write/indicate the
answer with the help of Magnifying Glass will be allowed to use the Magnifying Glass in the
Examination Hall and will not be entitled to a Scribe. Such candidates will have to bring their own
Magnifying Glass to the Examination Hall.
NOTE: Persons with visual disability of less than forty percent will not be considered as
visually handicapped persons.
The Commission will not make available the Question Papers of the examination meant
for visually handicapped candidates at Examination Centres other than the nine Centres located
at Headquarters of the Regional/Sub-Regional Offices designated for such candidates and the
facility of engaging SCRIBE will not be available at other Examination Centres.
5. EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS: ( As on closing date, i.e., 27th September, 2010)
For Junior Translators(CSOLs)
ESSENTIAL:
(I) (i) Masters Degree of a recognized University or equivalent in Hindi or English with English or
Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as a medium of examination at degree
level
OR
(ii) Masters Degree of a recognized University or equivalent in any subject other than Hindi
or English with Hindi or English medium and English or Hindi as a compulsory or
elective subject or as a medium of examination at degree level
OR
(iii) Masters Degree of a recognized University or equivalent in any subject other than Hindi
or English with Hindi and English as a compulsory or elective subject or either of the
two as medium of examination and the other as a compulsory or elective subject at
degree level;
AND
(II) Recognized Diploma or certificate Course in Translation from Hindi to English and vice-versa
OR Two years experience of translation work from Hindi to English and vice-versa in Central
or State Government Offices including Government of India Undertaking.
DESIRABLE:
(i) Knowledge at the level of Matriculation of a recognized Board or equivalent of one
of the languages other than Hindi mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution.
(ii) Degree or Diploma in translation from Hindi to English and vice-versa from a
recognized University.
-7-
For Junior Hindi Translators(in Subordinate Offices)
(i) Masters Degree of a recognized University or equivalent in English/ Hindi with Hindi/
English as a compulsory or elective subject at degree level;
OR
(ii) Bachelor’s Degree of a recognized University or equivalent with Hindi and English
as main subjects (which includes the term compulsory and elective)
Note:
(i) Those candidates who have passed B.A(Hons) in English/Hindi with Hindi/English as
subsidiary/MIL subject are eligible for the post of Junior Hindi Translators
(ii) Candidate must ensure that they have studied English and Hindi as main subjects
and not as a paper in all three years of BA Pass course.
NOTE-I: As per Ministry of Human Resource Development Notification No. 44 dated
01.03.1995 published in Gazette of India edition dated 08.04.1995, the Degree
obtained through open Universities/Distance Education Mode needs to be
recognized by Distance Education Council, IGNOU. Accordingly, unless such
Degrees had been recognized for the period when the candidates acquired
the relevant qualification, they will not be accepted for the purpose of
Educational Qualification.
Note – II : Candidates who have not acquired/will not acquire the educational qualification
as on the closing date of receipt of application (27.09.2010) will not be
eligible and need not apply.
Note- III : All candidates who are called for appearing at the Interview will be required to
produce the relevant Certificate in Original such as Mark sheets, Provisional
Certificate, etc. as proof of having acquired the minimum educational
qualification on or before the closing date failing which the candidature of such
candidate will be cancelled by the Commission summarily.
6. MODE OF PAYMENT: FEE PAYABLE Rs. 100/-(Rupees One Hundred only)
For the candidates sending the application by post:
The candidates should pay the fee by means of "Central Recruitment Fee
Stamps(CRFS)"only . CRFS are available at the counter of all Departmental
Post Offices of the country. Recruitment Fee Stamps should be pasted on the
application form in the space earmarked for the purpose and got cancelled from
the Counter of Post Office of issue with the date stamp of the Issuing Post
Office in such a manner that the impression or the cancellation stamp partially
overflows on the Application Form itself, taking care at the same time that the
impression is clear and distinct to facilitate the identification of date and Post
Office of issue at any subsequent stage. After getting the Recruitment Fee
Stamps cancelled from the Post Office, the candidates must submit their
application to the concerned Regional Office/Sub Regional Offices of the
Commission in the usual manner after completing other formalities.
-8-
NOTE I: Fee once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances.
NOTE II: Fee paid by modes other than CRFS will not be accepted and the applications
of such candidates will be rejected forthright and the payment made shall stand
forfeited.
NOTE III: Candidates may please note that non-cancellation of stamps from the
concerned Post Office in the manner indicated above, will lead to rejection of
his/her application form. Therefore, it is in the interest of candidates that they
get the CRFS cancelled from the concerned Post Office.
7. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION
A candidate must indicate the centre in the Application Form in respect
of the Examination. A candidate must submit his/her application only to the
concerned Regional/Sub Regional Office of the Commission under whose
jurisdiction the Centre selected by him / her falls. Application received in any
other Regional/Sub Regional Office of the Commission will be rejected
summarily.
The applications should be addressed to the Regional / Sub-Regional
Offices of the Commission as indicated in the table below
Sl.No. Examination Centres & Centre Code Address to which the applications
should be sent
1 2 3
1. Allahabad(3003),
Patna(3206),
Lucknow(3010)
Regional Director(CR),
Staff Selection Commission,
8-AB, Beli Road, Allahabad,
Uttar Pradesh-211002
2. Kolkata(4410),
Port Blair(4802),
Gangtok(4001),
Bhubaneshwar(4604),
Ranchi(4205)
Regional Director (ER),
Staff Selection Commission,
1st MSO Building, (8th Floor),
234/4 . Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose
Road), Kolkata,
West Bengal-700020
3. Bengaluru(9001),
Kochi(9204)
Regional Director(KKR),
Staff Selection Commission,
1st Floor, “E” Wing, Kendriya Sadan,
Koramangala, Bangalore,
Karnataka-560034
4. Delhi(2201), Jaipur(2405)
Regional Director (NR),
Staff Selection Commission,
Block No. 12, CGO Complex,
Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110504
5. Guwahati (Dispur)(5105)
Regional Director(NER),
Staff Selection Commission,
Rukmini Nagar,
PO: Assam Sachivalaya, Guwahati,
Assam-781006
6. Hyderabad(8002),
Chennai(8201)
Regional Director (SR),
Staff Selection Commission,
EVK Sampath Building, 2nd Floor,
College Road, Chennai,
Tamil Nadu-600006
7.
Mumbai(7204),
Panaji(7801),
Ahmedabad(7001)
Regional Director (WR),
Staff Selection Commission,
1st Floor, South Wing, Pratishta Bhawan,
101 M.K. Road, Mumbai,
Maharashtra-400020
8. Raipur(6204),
Bhopal(6001)
Dy. Director (MPR),
Staff Selection Commission,
“Nishant Villa”, F. Jalvihar Colony,
Raipur, Chhatisgarh-492001
9. Chandigarh(1601),
Jammu(1004),
Srinagar(1007)
Dy. Director (NWR),
Staff Selection Commission,
Block No. 3, Gr. Floor, Kendriya Sadan,
Sector-9, Chandigarh-160017
NOTE I: No change of Centre of Examination will be allowed under any
circumstances. Hence, the candidates should select the centres carefully and
indicate the same correctly in their applications.
NOTE II: The Commission reserves the right to cancel any Centre and ask the candidates
of that centre to appear from another centre. Commission also reserves the
right to divert candidates of any centre to some other Centre to take the
examination.
8. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION:
The examination will consist of two parts, viz.
PART-I - Written Examination, carrying 400 marks; and
PART-II - Personality Test (Interview), carrying 100 Marks.
PART-I:
Written Examination: The Written Examination will be held on 28.11.2010 and will consist of two papers. The
maximum marks allotted to each paper and the duration of each paper will be as under:-
Date of
Exam
Part Subject Maximum
Marks
Total Duration /
Timing for
General
candidates
Total Duration/
Timing for
Visually
Handicapped
candidates
28.11.2010
(Sunday)
Paper- I
(Objective
Type)
(i)General Hindi
(ii) General English
100
100
2 Hours
10.00 A.M. to
12.00 Noon
2 Hours 20
mins
10.00 A.M. to
12.20 PM
Paper- II
(Conventional
Type)
Translation – 2 passages , one
each from Hindi to English
and vice versa and an essay
each in Hindi & English
200 2 Hours
2.00 P.M. to
4.00 P.M.
2 Hours 20
mins
2.00 P.M. to
4.20 PM
-10-
NOTE-I : Paper-I will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only. Paper-II
shall be evaluated in respect of only those candidates, who attain a minimum
qualifying standard in Paper-I as may be fixed at the discretion of the Commission.
NOTE-II: Candidates are not permitted to use Mobile Phones, Calculators or any other
electronic / electrical device for answering any paper (Test Booklets).
Candidates must not, therefore, bring Mobile Phone, Calculators or any other
electronic / electrical device inside the Examination premises. Possession of these
items , whether in use or not, will be considered as “use of unfair means” in the
Examination and appropriate action will be taken by the Commission against such
candidates, as per extant policy of the Commission.
NOTE-III: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I.
Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.
NOTE-IV: Canvassing in any form will disqualify the candidates.
PART-II:
PERSONALITY TEST/INTERVIEW: 100 Marks
NOTE-I: Only those candidates who secure in the written examination the minimum qualifying marks as may
be fixed by the Commission at their discretion, will be eligible to appear at the Interview. The
interview will be held at the Commission's Regional /Sub-Regional Offices or at any other place as
decided by the Commission.
NOTE-II: SC/ST candidates called for interview will be paid TA as per Govt. Orders. However, no TA is
payable to any candidate for appearing in the written examination.
SYLLABUS
Paper-I:
a) General Hindi : 100 marks (Objective type)
b) General English : 100 marks (Objective type)
The questions will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of the language, correct use of
words,phrases and idioms and ability to write language correctly, precisely and effectively.
Paper-II:
Translation and Essay: 200 Marks (Conventional Type)
The paper will contain two passages for translation-one passage for translation from Hindi to English
and one passage for translation from English to Hindi, and an Essay each in Hindi and English to test
the candidates’ translation skills and their ability to write as well as comprehend the two languages
correctly, precisely and effectively
9. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS TO BE COMPLIED BY THE CANDIDATES IN THE
WRITTEN EXAMINATION
(i) Candidates must write the papers/indicate the answers in their own hand.
(ii) Candidates are not permitted to use calculators and other electronic gadgets . They should
not, therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Premises / Venue.
-11-
(iii) If any candidate is found to possess mobile phones or any other means of wireless
communication in the working or switched off mode, his/her candidature shall be
cancelled forthwith.
(iv) OMR Type of Answer Sheets will be supplied by the Commission to candidates for
recording their answers of Multiple Choice Objective Type Questions. Candidates are
advised to read very carefully, the following instructions, in their own interest.
(a) Part A of OMR Answer Sheet to be filled in Ball Point Pen only.
(b) Part B of OMR Answer Sheet should be filled in HB pencil only, as per instructions
given in OMR Sheet.
(c) Candidate should write his/her name, Roll Number, Ticket Number, Name of the
Examination as mentioned in Admission Certificate, Date of birth and Test Form
Number correctly, in the relevant places in OMR Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet not
bearing candidate’s Name, Roll Number, Ticket Number, Test Form No. and signature
will not be evaluated and ‘Zero’ marks will be awarded to them. If any candidate
belonging to reserved category does not write and code their category properly, they
will be treated as belonging to UR category.
10. MODE OF SELECTION :
Candidates will be shortlisted for the Interview on the basis of their performance in the
Written Examination. Candidates will be recommended for appointment by the Commission
on the basis of their aggregate marks in the Written Examination and Interview.
Provided that SC, ST, OBC and PH candidates, who are selected on their own merit
without relaxed standards, alongwith candidates belonging to other communities, will not be
adjusted against the reserved share of vacancies. Such SC, ST, OBC and PH candidates
will be accommodated against the general/unreserved vacancies as per their position in
the overall Merit List. The reserved vacancies will be filled up separately from amongst the
eligible SCs, STs, OBCs, and PH candidates which will, thus, comprise of SC , ST, OBC and
PH candidates who are lower in merit than the last general candidate on merit list of
unreserved category but otherwise found suitable for appointment even by relaxed standard.
An Ex-Serviceman or Physically Handicapped (OH/VH) category candidate who
qualifies on the basis of relaxed standards viz. age limit, experience or qualifications,
permitted number of chances in written examination, extended zone of consideration, etc. is to
be counted against reserved vacancies and not against general vacancies subject to fitness of
such candidate for selection. Such candidates may also be recommended at the relaxed
standards to the extent the number of vacancies reserved for them, to make up for the
deficiency in the reserved quota, irrespective of their rank in the order of merit. In so far as cases
of Ex-Serviceman are concerned, deduction of the military service rendered from the age of Ex-
Servicemen is permissible against the reserved or unreserved posts and such exemption cannot be
termed as relaxed standards in regard to age.
Success in the examination confers no right of appointment unless government are
satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that the candidate is suitable in all
respects of appointment to the service/post.
NOTE : The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of
examination will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility
conditions. If, on verification, at any time before or after the written examination and
Interview, it is found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their
candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.
-12-
11. RESOLUTION OF TIE CASES
In cases where more than one candidate secure the equal aggregate marks, tie will be resolved
by applying the following methods one after another :-
(1) By referring to the total marks in the written examination.
(2) By referring to marks in Paper-I of the written examination.
(3) Date of birth i.e. the candidate older in age gets preference.
(4) By referring to the alphabetical order of the names taking first name into consideration.
12. HOW TO APPLY : Applications must be submitted by post only in the prescribed
format( Annexure-I ) . For detailed instructions relating to the application form and how the
application is to be submitted, Annexure - II, for postal applications, may be referred to.
13. Preference
A candidate will be required to indicate in the application form for the Examination, the
order of preference for the posts of Junior Translators(CSOLs) and Junior Hindi Translators (in
Subordinate Offices) .
14. ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION:
All candidates who apply in response to this advertisement by the CLOSING DATE will
be assigned Roll numbers. These will be communicated to them or placed on the website of the
concerned Regional Office at least two weeks before the date of the examination. A candidate
must write his/her Roll number along with his/her name, date of birth and name of the
examination while addressing any communication to the Commission. Communication from the
candidate not furnishing these particulars shall not be entertained.
Admission Certificates (ACs) for the Examination indicating the time table and also
venues of examination for each candidate will be issued to all applicants about two weeks before
the date of examination. IF ANY CANDIDATE DOES NOT RECEIVE ADMISSION
CERTIFICATE FOR THE EXAMINATION ONE WEEK BEFORE THE DATE OF
EXAMINATION, HE/SHE MUST IMMEDIATELY CONTACT THE CONCERNED
REGIONAL/SUB REGIONAL OFFICE (S) OF THE COMMISSION WITH PROOF OF
HAVING SUBMITTED HIS/HER APPLICATION. (In case of Applications submitted under
Certificate of Posting, the Date-Stamp of the Post-Office concerned should be clearly legible).
FAILURE TO DO SO WILL DEPRIVE HIM/HER OF ANY CLAIM FOR CONSIDERATION.
CANDIDATES ALSO HAVE THE OPTION TO DOWNLOAD THE ADMISSION
CERTIFICATES FROM THE CONCERNED REGIONAL/SUB REGIONAL OFFICES’
WEBSITE. SUCH FACILITY WILL BE AVAILABLE AT LEAST ONE WEEK BEFORE
THE EXAMINATION.
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15. COMMISSION’S DECISION FINAL
The decision of the Commission in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or
rejection of the applications, penalty for false information, mode of selection, conduct of
examination(s) and interviews, allotment of examination centres, selection and allotment of
posts/organizations to selected candidates will be final and binding on the candidates and no
enquiry/correspondence will be entertained in this regard.
16. COURTS JURISDICTION
Any dispute in regard to this recruitment will be subject to courts/tribunals having
jurisdiction over the place of concerned Regional/Sub-Regional Office of the SSC where the
candidate has submitted his/her application.
17. For detailed instructions relating to Application form, instructions for filling up the
application form and submission of application , candidates are advised to refer Annexures-I
and II .
-16-
Annexure – II
BROCHURE
INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP THE APPLICATION
I. The Commission uses standard application form for all its examinations. Therefore, please read the instructions given
in the Notice of Examination and also given below carefully before filling up the application form, in your own interest.
II. Use only blue/black ball pen to write in the boxes, i.e.,
III. Instructions have been given for most items in the application itself which should be gone through carefully before filling
up the boxes. For items for which instructions are not available, further instructions given below may be gone through
carefully.
I
V. Please go through the instructions given below for filling up each item numbered in the application form:-
1. Name of the Examination Centre and 2. Centre Codes
Refer to para-7 of the Notice of the Examination.
12.1. Code for seeking age relaxation.
Refer to para 4 B of the Notice of the Examination.
13. Preference for Posts
Use ‘’A’ for Junior Translator(CSOLs) and
‘B’ for Junior Hindi Translator (in Subordinate Office)
You are advised to be careful in exercising your preference as in the event of your getting selected for both the
posts, you will be considered for the posts in the order of your merit for each post.
13.1 The column is Not Applicable (NA) for this Examination.
15. Candidates should indicate whether they belong to one of the minority communities notified by Govt. namely Muslims,
Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, or Zoroastrians (Parsis).
16.1 The column is Not Applicable (NA) for this Examination.
17. Educational Qualification and Subject Code: See Annexure – IX
Use ‘Others’ if any particular Educational Qualification or Subject is not assigned a code.
19. Address for communication
Write your complete communication address including your Name in English in capital letters or in Hindi with blue/black ball
pen. Do not forget to write 6 digits PIN in the boxes.
20. Photograph
Paste your recent photograph of size 4cmx5cm. Do not staple and do not get the photo attested. Please note that your
application shall be rejected summarily without photograph.
Box for Roll Number to be left unfilled (blank) by the candidate.
Signature of Candidate (Wherever required)
Please sign in running hand. Signature in capital letters of English shall not be accepted and your application shall be
summarily rejected. Unsigned application shall also be rejected.
-17- ANNEXURE-III
FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE SUBMITTED BY CENTRAL GOVERNMENT CIVILIAN EMPLOYEES SEEKING AGE-RELAXATION
(To be filled by the Head of the Office or Department in which the candidate is working).
(Please see Para 4(B) of the Notice)
It is certified that *Shri/Smt./Km. ______________________ is a Central Government Civilian employee
holding the post of ---------------------------------- in the pay scale of Rs.___________________ with
3 years regular service in the grade as on 27.09.2010.
Signature ___________________
Name ___________________
Office seal
Place:
Date :
(*Please delete the words which are not applicable.)
ANNEXURE- IV
Form of Certificate for serving Defence Personnel (Please see Note III Para-4 (B) of Notice for the
Examination)
I hereby certify that, according to the information available with me (No.)
__________________________________ (Rank) ___________________ (Name)
___________________________ is due to complete the specified term of his engagement with
the Armed Forces on the (Date) ____________________.
Place:
(Signature of Commanding Officer)
Date:
Office Seal:
-18-
ANNEXURE-V
UNDERTAKING TO BE GIVEN BY THE CANDIDATE COVERED UNDER NOTE III PARA 4(B) OF
NOTICE.
I understand that, if selected on the basis of the recruitment/examination to which the
application relates, my appointment will be subject to my producing documentary
evidence to the satisfaction of the Appointing Authority that I have been duly
released/retired/discharged from the Armed Forces and that I am entitled to the benefits
admissible to Ex-Servicemen in terms of the Ex-Servicemen Re-employment in Central Civil
Services and Posts rules, 1979, as amended from time to time.
I also understand that I shall not be eligible to be appointed to a vacancy reserved for Ex-S
in regard to the recruitment covered by this examination, if I have at any time prior to such
appointment, secured any employment on the civil side (including Public Sector
Undertakings, Autonomous Bodies/Statutory Bodies, Nationalized Banks, etc.) by availing
of the concession of reservation of vacancies admissible to Ex-S.
I further submit the following information:
a) Date of appointment in Armed Forces __________________
b) Date of discharge ____________________
c) Length of service in Armed Forces __________________
d) My last Unit / Corps ____________________
(Signature of the Candidate)
Place:
Date:
-19-
ANNEXURE-VI
FORMAT FOR SC/ST CERTIFICATE
A candidate who claims to belong to one of the Scheduled Caste or the Scheduled Tribes should
submit in support of his claim an attested/certified copy of a certificate in the form given below,
from the District Officer or the sub-Divisional Officer or any other officer as indicated below of
the District in which his parents(or surviving parent) ordinarily reside who has been designated
by the State Government concerned as competent to issue such a certificate. If both his parents
are dead, the officer signing the certificate should be of the district in which the candidate
himself ordinarily resides otherwise than for the purpose of his own education. Wherever
photograph is an integral part of the certificate, the Commission would accept only attested
photocopies of such certificates and not any other attested or true copy.
(The format of the certificate to be produced by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
candidates applying for appointment to posts under Government of India)
This is to certify that Shri/Shrimati/Kumari* __________________________ son/daughter of
___________________________________ of village/town/* in District/Division
*_______________________ of the State/Union Territory* ________
belongs to the Caste/Tribes_______________ which is recognized as a Scheduled
Castes/Scheduled Tribes* under:-
The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) order, 1950 ___________________
The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) order, 1950 ________________
The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Union Territories order, 1951 * _______________
The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Union Territories Order, 1951*______________
As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists(Modification) order, 1956, the
Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960 & the Punjab Reorganization Act, 1966, the State of Himachal
Pradesh Act 1970, the North-Eastern Area(Reorganization) Act, 1971 and the Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes Order(Amendment) Act, 1976.
The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956___________
The Constitution (Andaman and Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959 as amended by
the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes order (Amendment Act), 1976*.
The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes order 1962.
The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order 1962@.
The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order 1964@
The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Uttar Pradesh) Order, 1967 @
The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968@
The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Tribes Order 1968 @
The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970 @
The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order 1978@
The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order 1978@
The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order 1989@
The Constitution (SC) orders (Amendment) Act, 1990@
The Constitution (ST) orders (Amendment) Ordinance 1991@
The Constitution (ST) orders (Second Amendment) Act, 991@
The Constitution (ST) orders (Amendment) Ordinance 1996
%2. Applicable in the case of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes persons who have migrated
from one State/Union Territory Administration.
-20-
This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled tribes
certificate issued to Shri/Shrimati __________________________Father/mother
_____________________________ of
Shri/Srimati/Kumari*___________________________ of village/town*____________
___________________ in District/Division* ______________________of the State/Union
Territory*_________
_____________________ who belong to the _________________________________ Caste/Tribe
which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe in the State/Union Territory* issued
by the_______________________________ ____dated____________________________.
%3. Shri/Shrimati/Kumari and /or * his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in
village/town*________________________________________ of ________________
District/Division* _________________of the State/Union Territory of
____________________________
Signature__________________________
** Designation________________________
(with seal of office)
Place______________
Date_______________
* Please delete the words which are not applicable
@ Please quote specific presidential order
% Delete the paragraph which is not applicable.
NOTE: The term ordinarily reside(s) used here will have the same meaning as in section 20 of the
Representation of the People Act, 1950.
** List of authorities empowered to issue Caste/Tribe Certificates:
(i) District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/Additional Deputy
Commissioner/Dy.Collector/Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate/Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Extra-
Assistant Commissioner/Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate.
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency
Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar.
(iv) Sub-Divisional Officers of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally resides.
NOTE: ST candidates belonging to Tamil Nadu state should submit caste
certificate ONLY FROM THE REVENUE DIVISIONAL OFFICER.
-21-
ANNEXURE-VII
(FORMAT OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES APPLYING FOR
APPOINTMENT TO POSTS UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA)
This is to certify that _______________________________ son/ daughter of
___________________________________________ of village _____
______________________________ District/Division _____________________ in the
______________________________ State __________________________ ________ belongs
to the ______________________ Community which is recognized as a backward class under:
i) Resolution No. 12011/68/93-BCC dated the 10th September, 1993, published in the Gazette of India
Extraordinary – Part I, Section I, No. 186 dated 13th September, 1993.
ii) Resolution No. 12011/9/94-BCC, dated 19.10.1994 published in Gazette of India extraordinary Part I
Section I No. 163, dated 20th October, 1994.
iii) Resolution No. 12011/7/95-BCC dated the 24th May 1995 Published in the Gazette of India
extraordinary Part-I Section I No. 88 dated 25th May, 1995.
iv) Resolution No.12011/96/94-BCC dated 9th March, 1996.
v) Resolution No. 12011/44/96-BCC, dated the 6th December, 1996, published in the Gazette of India
– Extraordinary-part I, Section-I, No. 210, dated the 11th December, 1996.
vi) Resolution No.12011/13/97-BCC dated 3rd December, 1997.
vii) Resolution No.12011/99/94-BCC dated 11th December, 1997.
viii) Resolution No.12011/68/98-BCC dated 27th October, 1999.
ix) Resolution No.12011/88/98-BCC dated 6th December, 1999, published in the Gazette of India, Extra
Ordinary Part-I, Section-I No.270, 6th December, 1999.
x) Resolution No.12011/36/99-BCC dated 4th April, 2000, published in the Gazette of India, Extra
Ordinary Part-I, Section-I, No.71 dated 4th April, 2000.
xi) Resolution No.12011/44/99-BCC dated 21.9.2000, published in the Gazette of India, Extra Ordinary
Part-I, Section-I, No.210 dated 21.9.2000.
Shri ____________________________ and/or his family ordinarily reside(s) in the
______________________________ District/Division of the ____
___________________________________ State.
This is also to certify that he/she does not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy
Layer) mentioned in column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of India, Department of
Personnel & Training OM No. 36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT,) dated 08.09.1993 and modified vide
Govt. of India Deptt. of Personnel and Training OM No. 36033/3/2004-Estt(Res) dated
09.03.2004 & 14.10.2008
Dated: District Magistrate or
Deputy Commissioner etc.
Seal:
-22-
Note-I (a) The term ‘Ordinarily’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the
Representation of the People Act, 1950.
(b) The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificate are indicated below:-
(i) District Magistrate/Additional Magistrate/Collector/Dy. Commissioner/ Additional Deputy
Commissioner/Deputy Collector/Ist Class Stipendary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional
Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below
the rank of 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate /Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar
(iv) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family resides.
NOTE-II: The closing date for receipt of application will be treated as the date of
reckoning for OBC status of the candidate and also, for assuming that the
candidate does not fall in the creamy layer.
-23-
ANNEXURE-VIII
NAME & ADDRESS OF THE INSTITUTE/HOSPITAL
Certificate No. ——————- Date——————-
DISABILITY CERTIFICATE
This is certified that Shri/Smt/Kum _____________________ son/wife/daughter of Shri ________
___________ age _____________sex ______________identification mark(s) ______________
is suffering from permanent disability of following category :-
A. Locomotor or cerebral palsy :
(i) BL-Both legs affected but not arms.
(ii) BA-Both arms affected (a) Impaired reach
(b) Weakness of grip
(iii) BLA-Both legs and both arms affected
(iv) OL-One leg affected (right or left) (a) Impaired reach
(b) Weakness of grip
(c) Ataxic
(v) OA-One arm affected (a) Impaired reach
(b) Weakness of grip
(c) Ataxic
(vi) BH-Stiff back and hips (Cannot sit or stoop)
(vii) MW-Muscular weakness and limited physical endurance.
B. Blindness or Low Vision : (i) B-Blind
(ii) PB-Partially Blind
C. Hearing Impairment : (i) D-Deaf
(ii) PD-Partially Deaf
( DELETE THE CATEGORY WHICHEVER IS NOT APPLICABLE )
2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve. Re-assessment of this case is not
recommended/is recommended after a period of _____ years ____ months.*
3. Percentage of disability in his/her case is ..................... percent.
4. Sh./Smt./Kum ............................. meets the following physical requirements for discharge of his /her duties :-
(i) F-can perform work by manipulating with fingers. Yes/No
(ii) PP-can perform work by pulling and pushing. Yes/No
(iii) L-can perform work by lifting. Yes/No
(iv) KC-can perform work by kneeling and crouching. Yes/No
(v) B-can perform work by bending. Yes/No
(vi) S-can perform work by sitting. Yes/No
(vii) ST-can perform work by standing. Yes/No
(viii) W-can perform work by walking. Yes/No
(ix) SE-can perform work by seeing. Yes/No
(x) H-can perform work by hearing/speaking. Yes/No
(xi) RW-can perform work by reading and writing. Yes/No
(Dr.______________) (Dr._________________) (Dr.___________________)
Member, Medical Board Member, Medical Board Chairperson, Medical Board
Countersigned by the Medical Superintendent/
CMO/Head of Hospital (with seal)
*Strike out which is not applicable.
|Affix here recent
attested Photograph
Showing the
disability
duly
attested by
the
chairperson
of the
Medical
Board
-24-
ANNEXURE - IX
Essential Educational Qualification Code
Educational Qualification Code
Certificate in Translation 03
Diploma in Translation 04
BA 05
BA (Hons.) 06
B. Com. 07
B.Com. (Hons.) 08
B.Sc. 09
B.Sc. (Hons.) 10
B. Ed. 11
LLB 12
BE 13
B. Tech 14
AMIE (Part A & Part B) 15
B.Sc. (Engg.) 16
BCA 17
BBA 18
Graduation issued by Defence (Indian Army, Air Force, Navy) 19
B. Lib. 20
B. Pharm. 21
ICWA 22
CA 23
PG Diploma 24
MA 25
M.Com. 26
M. Sc. 27
M.Ed. 28
LLM 29
ME 30
M. Tech. 31
M. Sc. (Engg.) 32
MCA 33
MBA 34
Others 35
Subject Code for Educational Qualification
Subject of Educational Qualification Code
History 01
Political Science 02
Economics 03
English/English Literature 04
Hindi/Hindi Literature 05
Geography 06
Commerce 07
Law 08
Physics 09
Chemistry 10
Mathematics 11
Statistics 12
Botany 13
Zoology 14
Agriculture Science 15
Civil Engineering 16
Electrical Engineering 17
Mechanical Engineering 18
Electronics Engineering 19
Electronics & Power Engineering 20
Electronics & Communication Engineering 21
Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering 22
Agriculture Engineering 23
Computer Science 24
Computer Application 25
Information Technology 26
Library Science 27
Accountancy 28
Work Accountancy 29
Business Administration 30
Mass Communication 31
Journalism 32
Mass Communication & Journalism 33
Pharmacy 34
Photography 35
Printing Technology 36
Nursing 37
Assamese 38
Bengali 39
Malyalam 40
Telgu 41
Kannada 42
Tamil 43
Marathi 44
Gujrati 45
Urdu 46
Sanskrit 47
Others 48

Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2008 – (Scheme ‘B’) - Declaration of result /allocation of withheld cases for the post of Divisional Accountant – regarding.

Staff Selection Commission
C.I Section
Subject :- Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2008 –
(Scheme ‘B’) - Declaration of result /allocation of
withheld cases for the post of Divisional Accountant –
regarding.
Following are the list of 19 candidates pertaining to NR whose
rank numbers have been released by the Commission after getting
clearance from the Regional Office of the Commission. Result of the
remaining withheld cases will be declared after getting clearance from
respective Regional Offices of the Commission.
ROLL NAME CAT RANK ALLOCATED STATE
1218694 MD ASHIF ALI 6 SLA\00377 TAMILNADU & PONDICHERRY
1224910 RANJEET KUMAR 6 SLA\00201* CHANDIGARH, PUNJAB, HARYANA
1225882 KANA RAM MEENA 2 SLA\00448 BIHAR
1229270 SHIV SINGH 1 SLA\00300 CHANDIGARH, PUNJAB, HARYANA
1232045 PUNEET MITTAL
SLA\00311 MAHARASHTRA
1232669 SATYAPAL SINGH 3 SLA\00558 MADHYA PRADESH
1370116 SANJAY SAUGAT 1 SLA\00425 CHANDIGARH, PUNJAB, HARYANA
1371029 SUNDAR PAL SINGH BESAR 2 SLA\00399 CHANDIGARH, PUNJAB, HARYANA
1704468 MAMTA CHOUHAN
SLA\00241 MAHARASHTRA
1705416 KAMLESH KUMAR MEENA 2 SLA\00431 CHANDIGARH, PUNJAB, HARYANA
1708042 PRAKASH CHAND MEENA 2 SLA\00510 ORISSA
1709590 HARIOUM MEENA 2 SLA\00453 BIHAR
1712428 NAHAR SINGH MEENA 2 SLA\00471 ORISSA
1712450 GYAN SINGH 2 SLA\00449 CHANDIGARH, PUNJAB, HARYANA
1713842 SULTAN SINGH MEENA 2 SLA\00497 TAMILNADU & PONDICHERRY
1714662 KAMLESH KUMAR MEENA 2 SLA\00447 CHANDIGARH, PUNJAB, HARYANA
1716221 RAJESH MEENA 2 SLA\00373 CHANDIGARH, PUNJAB, HARYANA
1717357 VIKAS KUMAR MEENA 2 SLA\00428 BIHAR
1719218 AVI KUMAR MEENA 2 SLA\00310* BIHAR
(Satya Prakash)
Under Secretary (C.I)
26.08.2010

RRB BHOPAL TICKET COLLECTOR, COMMERCIAL CLERK EXAM (Held on 16.9.2007) : Fully Solved

RRB BHOPAL TICKET COLLECTOR, COMMERCIAL CLERK EXAM (Held on 16.9.2007) : Fully Solved
1. The main sources about the Indus Valley civilization are :
(1) Inscriptions
(2) Coins
(3) Manuscripts on leaves of palm and birch
(4) Archaeological excavations

2. The propounder of Yoga School of Philosophy was
(1) Patanjali (2) Gautam
(3) Jaimini (4) Shankaracharya

3. The term ‘Double Fault’ is related to the game of
(1) Badminton (2) Golf
(3) Tennis (4) Cricket

4. Which of the following pairs of names are related?
(1) Golf- Polo (2) Soccer- Football
(3) Billiards- Snookers (4) Volleyball- Football

5. Which of the following pairs is the highest peak of India?
(1) Kanchanjungha (2) Nanda Devi
(3) Mount Everest (4) Kamet

6. After how many years elections are held to elect the members of Rajya Sabha?
(1) 6 years (2) 2 years
(3) 3 years (4) 4 years

7. Which of the following is the longest river in India?
(1) Ganga (2) Brahmaputra
(3) Yamuna (4) Godavari

8. Which of the following vitamins is obtained from sunlight?
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin B

9. How many bones are there in the human body?
(1) 206 (2) 202
(3) 204 (4) 203

10. Which of the following is the longest river in the world?
(1) Amazon (2) Nile
(3) Mississippi (4) Danube

11. Silk is mostly obtained from
(1) Ujjain (2) Koshambi
(3) Taxila (4) Varanasi

12. Who among the following is associated with the Sarnath Inscription ?
(1) Ashoka (2) Harshavardhana
(3) Chandra Gupta Maurya (4) Samundra Gupta

13. Which of the following names of play ground is correct?
(1) Ring – Skating (2) Diamond – Cricket
(3) Field – Cycling (4) Bull – Tennis

14. Who among the following is competent to amend the provisions of citizenship?
(1) Parliament (2) President
(3) Prime Minister (4) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

15. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the President?
(1) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(2) Prime Minister
(3) Vice President
(4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the Chief Justice of a High Court?
(1) Governor
(2) President
(3) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(4) Council of Ministers

17. Railway in included in which of the following lists?
(1) Union list (2) State list
(3) Concurrent list (4) None of these

18. Who among the following was the first and last woman ruler of Delhi?
(1) Razia Beghum (2) Chand Bibi
(3) Mumtaz (4) Karnavati

19. Who among the following was the first to land on moon?
(1) Neil Armstrong (2) Tenzing Norgay
(3) Rakesh Sharma (4) Edwin Aldrin

20. Who among the following was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest?
(1) Bachendri Pal (2) Santosh Yadav
(3) Dicky Dolma (4) None of these

21. Zero hour is the period
(1) just after question hour in both Houses of Parliament
(2) at the starting of the sitting
(3) at the end of sitting
(4) None of these

22. The maximum interval between the two sessions of the Houses is
(1) Six months (2) 3 months
(3) 2 months (4) one year

23. The period of proclamation of emergency is
(1) one month (2) two months
(3) six months (4) one year

24. The Chief Minister who remained in the office for the longest period :
(1) Jyoti Basu (2) Lalu Prasad
(3) Mayawati (4) M. Karunanidhi

25. The Salarjung Museum is located in
(1) Hyderabad (2) Bhopal
(3) Patna (4) Ranchi

26. Which of the following gases is filled in a balloon?
(1) Helium (2) Hydrogen
(3) Bromine (4) Oxygen

27. Which of the following is called Banker’s Bank?
(1) Reserve Bank of India (2) State Bank of India
(3) Punjab National Bank (4) None of these

28. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (2) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Sachchidanand Sinha

29. Which of the following is the longest platform in the world?
(1) Kharagpur (2) Kolkata
(3) Leningrad (4) Tokyo

30. Who among the following built the Grand Trunk road?
(1) Shershah (2) Akbar
(3) Humayun (4) Shahjehan

31. Focus on the age eye is adjusted through
(1) Retina (2) Iris
(3) Comea (4) Lens

32. Who among the following was the ruler of Kalinga?
(1) Kharvela (2) Ashoka
(3) Samudragupta (4) None of these

33. Maximum oil can be extracted from
(1) Sunflower (2) Groundnut
(3) Mustard (4) Cardamom

34. The most suitable conductor is
(1) Saline water (2) Fresh water
(3) Pure water (4) None of these

35. The mausoleum of which saint is located in Ajmer?
(1) Moinuddin Chisti (2) Badruddin Zacharia
(3) Khwaja Walliullah (4) Abdul Shatari

36. Gobar gas mainly contains
(1) Methane (2) Ethane
(3) Propane (4) Butane

37. Who among the following invented the decimal system?
(1) Aryabhatt (2) Copernicus
(3) Magellan (4) Charak

38. Nose starts bleeding when one climbs up mountain due to
(1) low pressure (2) high pressure
(3) height (4) None of these

39. In which of the following sectors maximum number of women are employed?
(1) Tea (2) Agriculture
(3) Jute (4) Textile

40. Railway earns maximum revenue from
(1) freight charges (2) passenger fares
(3) advertisement (4) None of these

41. Which of the following is called the laughing gas?
(1) Nitrogen Oxide (2) Hydrogen Oxide
(3) Nitrous Oxide (4) Sulphur Oxide

42. Who was the first Indian to qualify for Olympics?
(1) Shiny Abraham (2) PT Usha
(3) Karmam Malleshwari (4) Jyotirmony Sikdar

43. During Shivaji’s childhood, who among the following exercised the maximum influence on his character?
(I) Jija Bai, his mother (II) Dadaji Kondadev, his tutor
(III) Shahji Bhonsle, his father
(1) I Only (2) I and III
(3) I, II and III (4) I and II

44. ‘Black Hole Episode’ was the main cause of :
(1) Battle of Buxar (2) Battle of Plassey
(3) Battle of Wandiwash (4) Battle of Haldighati

45. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(1) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Kan (2) C. Rajgopalachari
(3) Lala Lajpat Rai (4) Dadabhai Naoroji

46. The slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ was first raised by :
(1) Lokmanya Tilak (2) Veer Savarkar
(3) Chandrashekhar Azad (4) Bhagat Singh

47. Which of the following is/ are true about Sarojini Naidu?
(a) She was the First Woman President of the Congress
(b) She was the first Woman Governor in independent India
(c) She was the first Health Minister in independent India
(d) She wrote the famous ‘Golden Bough’
(1) a, b and d (2) a and c
(3) a and b (4) Only b

48. Which planet looks reddish in the night sky?
(1) Mercury (2) Mars
(3) Jupiter (4) Saturn

49. Geostationary orbit is at a height of :
(1) 6 km (2) 1000 km
(3) 3600 km (4) 36,000 km

50. The ozone layer in the upper part of the atmosphere protects us from :
(1) Cosmic rays (2) Ultrasonic waves
(3) Infra- red rays (4) Ultraviolet rays

51. Nights are cooler in the deserts than in the plains because :
(1) sand radiates that more quickly than the earth
(2) the sky remains clear most of the time
(3) sand absorbs heat more quickly than the earth
(4) None of these

52. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the world?
(1) Colorado Plateau (2) Pamir Plateau
(3) Patagonia Plateau (4) Potwar Plateau

53. Pointing towards a woman Manju said that ‘She is the sister of father of son of my mother’. How is that woman related to woman?
(1) Aunt (2) Sister
(3) Niece (4) None of these

54. Tipu Sultan was the ruler of
(1) Hyderabad (2) Madurai
(3) Mysore (4) Vijayanagar

55. Which of the following passes through India?
(1) Tropic of Cancer (2) Tropic of Capricorn
(2) Prime Meridian (4) Equator


ANSWER
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1) 36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (4) 51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (1)

ASI IN CISF MODEL TEST PAPER ENGLISH MOST IMPORTANT Q.

1. To pin one's faith-
(a) To be sure of some body's favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one's relatives

2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people . (c) To hurt some body's feelings· (d) To trust others

3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument (c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter

4. Alma Mater- '
(a) Mother's milk
(b) Mother's concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(cl) Institution where one receives edu cation

5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody

6. At one's beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one's service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody

7. At one's wit's end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others

8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy's territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords), the 'temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and 'in general bringing to light all those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought of a nation: Hence the Press consti tutes an Estate by itself.
Obviously. thus power which the Press in an:)' country wields depends upon the number of newspaper readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press
(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal

10. The term Fourth Estate stands for
(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power

11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual
(b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons

12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses

13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?
(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all

14. The secret of the Press is-
(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government

15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by -
(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.

16. The Press exercises power by
(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyed concern

17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy
(d) is not very high

18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a--
(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship
19-26: Fill in the blanks
19. She has Dot recovered fully---the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against

20. The master dispensed---the services of his servant.
(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for

21. I look---him as my close friend.
(a) OD (b)'up (c) after (d) to

22. My friend is really very good-- cricket.
(a) on (b) at (c) in (d) over

23. He has great affection---me.
(a) with (b) on (c) for (d) in

24. He always connives---with his superiors against his colleagues.
(a) on (b) with (c) about (d) at

25. I have been informed that the two bro thers have fallen---.
(a) upon (bl through (c) in (d) out

26. Your friend has been convicted---the charge of murder.
(a) upon (b) for (c) on (d) of

Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase which is most nearly the same

27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance (b) Obscurantism (c) Practicality (d) Reversion

28. Expeditiously
(a) Rapidly b. easily (c) Vividly d. none of these

29. Precarious
(a) Huge b. uncertain (c) Dangerous d. valuable

30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering b. Not clear (c) Futile d. None of these

31. Valediction
(a) Valid B. Farewell speech (c) Judgement d. None of these

Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement

32. Capable of being approached-
(a) Accessory (b) Easy (c) Accessible (d) Adaptable

33. One who is liked by people-
(a) Samaritan (b) Popular () Philanthropist (d) Misanthrope pist

34. No longer in use-
(a) Impracticable (b) Obsolete (c) Absolute (d) Useless

35. A child born after the death of his father-
(a) Posthumous (b) Bastard (c) Kiddy (d) Stepson.

36. One who is present everywhere-
(a) God (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnipresent (d) Visible

37. An office without salary-
(a) Honorary (b) Slavish (c) Sinecure (d) Voluntary

38. A document written by hand-
(a Script (b) Autobiography (c) Manuscript (d) Autography

39. Government by officials-
(a) Oligarchy (b) Bureaucracy (c) Autocracy (d) Democracy

40. A speech made off hand-
(a) Extempore (b) Maiden (c) Lecture (d) Gibberish
:::Answer:::
1. a, 2. a. 3. c, 4. d, 5. b, 6. c, 7. a, 8. d. 9. c 10. c, 11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14. b, 15. c, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c. 19. c, 20. b, 21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. b, 25. d, 26. c, 27. c, 28. a, 29. c, 30. a 31.b, 32. a, 33. b, 34. b, 35. a, 36. b, 37. a, 38. c, 39. b, 40. a