HIGHER SEC. LEVEL DEO AND LDC ANSWER KEY GENERAL INTELLIGENCE

 1.BAT ans b)23
    2.North ans b)MLIGS
    3.Transport ans c)TRUST
    4.International ans d)INTERNAL
    5.Dogs ans d)Neither I nor II
    6.Animals ans c) Both I and II
    7. ans c)24-12+12/16*18=26
    8. ans c)* + = *
    9.34*12 ans d)55
    10.Lawyer ans b) client
    11.Frustration ans c)failure
    12.Horse ans c)Hoof
    13.correct ans d)RECTCOR
    14.DFGN ans a)EHJR
    15.RVTX ans b)TVXZ
    16.623 ans a)36
    17.328 ans c)4
    18.560 ans c)784
    19. ans b) June
    20. ans b) Sphere
    21. ans b)Bronze
    22. ans c) mmnopp
    23. ans d)GFTV
    24. ans c)37
    25. ans b) (14,42)
    26.
    27. ans b)154
    28. ans c)baaba
    29.ZXV..... ans d)HFD
    30.BDF..... ans c)TVX
    31.113..... ans a)897
    32.230..... ans b)356
    33.97...... ans b)90,103
    34. ans c)(18,30,42)
    35.Grandfather ans c)45,95
    36.E to A ans c)nice
    37.Arun ans b)15
    38. ans c)Tomorrow
    39.Raju ans b)East
    40.Vijay ans a)0 km
    41.3inch cube ans b)1
    42.Middle ans a)O
    43. ans c)7
    44.64 cubes ans b)32
    45.16 hours ans d)R
    46.Matrix ans b) 33,86,88,41
    47.lawyer
    48.Mirror ans d)
    49.Complete ans d)
    50.Transparent Sheet ans c)

Railway Recruitment Board Chandigarh Traffic Apprentice Solved Paper

Railway Recruitment Board Chandigarh Traffic Apprentice Solved Paper

1. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 : 15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?
(A) 6 : 30
(B) 6 : 00
(C) 6 : 15
(D) 4 : 20

2. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?
(A) 24
(B) 23
(C) 22
(D) 25

3. If x means −, ÷ means +, + means ÷, − means x then find the value of 13 − 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100
(A) 1/760
(B) 76
(C) 176
(D) 186


4. Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?
(A) 18 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 16 km
(D) 10 km

5. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?
(A) Karishma
(B) Kajal
(C) Ankita
(D) None of these

6. Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?
(A) 28th, 22nd
(B) 27th, 21st
(C) 28th, 20th
(D) 27th, 22nd

7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?
(A) 24
(B) 57
(C) 58
(D) 27

8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be—
(A) 8, 9, 8
(B) 9, 8, 8
(C) 10, 1, 6
(D) 10, 8, 9

9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?
(A) 978626
(B) 112144
(C) 447355
(D) 869756

10. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is—
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 17
(D) 9

11. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is—
(A) 370
(B) 352
(C) 361
(D) 371

12. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.
(A) Rs. 80
(B) Rs. 120
(C) Rs. 140
(D) Rs. 160

13. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?
(A) 2
(B) –2
(C) 0
(D) 1

14. Find the value of 50 × 8.
(A) 40
(B) 200
(C) 8
(D) 0

15. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is—
(A) 24/5 %
(B) 4 %
(C) 3 %
(D) 10/3 %

16. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is—
(A) 9%
(B) 10%
(C) 18%
(D) 900/109 %

17. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?
(A) 50/144 %
(B) 5%
(C) 1/12 %
(D) 5/24 %

18. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is—
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 150
(D) 200

19. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210°C to 380°C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?
(A) 28.50°C
(B) 270°C
(C) 300°C
(D) 320°C

20. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in—
(A) 10 days
(B) 15 days
(C) 12 days
(D) 7 days

21. Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?
(A) 17 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 26 cm
(D) 23 cm

22. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?
(A) 2 times
(B) 1/3 times
(C) 9 times
(D) 3 times

23. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is—
(A) 32 km/h
(B) 50 km/h
(C) 45 km/h
(D) 64 km/h

24. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 3

25. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 17/3 times
(C) 45/7 minutes
(D) 5/4 minutes

26. Find the value of 0.0016—
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.04
(C) 0.8
(D) 4

27. By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 2

Directions (28-30): Fill up the blanks with the appropriate words.

28. Mr. Jagdish is confident _________ his success.
(A) about
(B) of
(C) for
(D) regarding

29. He persisted _________ doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.
(A) on
(B) at
(C) about
(D) in

30. An exhibition _________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.
(A) into
(B) for
(C) of
(D) on

Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.

31. A disease which spreads by contact
(A) infection
(B) contagious
(C) contiguous
(D) uxoring

32. A science which studies insects
(A) Entomology
(B) Epistemology
(C) Entymology
(D) Biology

33. That which cann’t be corrected
(A) Ineligible
(B) Ineluctable
(C) Insortable
(D) Incorrigible

34. One who believes easily
(A) sedulous
(B) credible
(C) assiduous
(D) credulous

35. A speech made for first time
(A) simultaneous
(B) drawn
(C) extempore
(D) maiden

Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.

36. Obstinate
(A) Hoary
(B) Amenable
(C) Tenable
(D) Tender

37. Pernicious
(A) Salutary
(B) Recondite
(C) Innocuous
(D) Disastrous

38. Radical
(A) Singular
(B) Unusual
(C) Normal
(D) Conservative

39. Mention
(A) Impart
(B) Observe
(C) Attend
(D) Conceal

Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.

40. Sedentary
(A) Material
(B) Sluggish
(C) Slash
(D) Mischief

41. Pertinacious
(A) Stubborn
(B) Tremulous
(C) Stupid
(D) Stingy

42. Gregarious
(A) Clumsy
(B) Pugnacious
(C) Turbulent
(D) Saciable

43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for—
(A) Abu temple
(B) Ranakpura temple
(C) Dilwara temple
(D) Marble temple

44. The United Nations Organisation was formed on—
(A) October 20, 1945
(B) November 11, 1944
(C) October 24, 1945
(D) June 26, 1946

45. In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as—
(A) Weapon
(B) Agricultural implements
(C) Script
(D) Coin

46. The executive in India is directly responsible to the—
(A) President
(B) Judiciary
(C) People
(D) Legislature

47. The major producer of copper is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Madhya Pradesh

48. Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by—
(A) Charles Andies
(B) General Ramphel
(C) John Quat
(D) Weden Powel

49. In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?
(A) Central
(B) Urban
(C) State
(D) Village administration

50. Chanakya was known by the name—
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Vishnugupta
(C) Shrigupta
(D) None of these

51. The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country—
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Saudi Arab
(D) Kuwait

52. The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as—
(A) Jin
(B) Ratna
(C) Kaivalya
(D) Nirvana

53. The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the—
(A) North pole
(B) Tropic of Capricorn
(C) Equator
(D) Tropic of cancer

54. Silicon dioxide is used in—
(A) Cement production
(B) Cutting hard precious metals
(C) Glass manufacture
(D) None of these

55. In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?
(A) Dynamo
(B) Thermopile
(C) Battery
(D) Atom bomb

56. If the atmosphere is removed from the earth—
(A) Day will lengthen
(B) Night will lengthen
(C) Both will remain same
(D) Both will be equal

57. In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of—
(A) Religion
(B) Art
(C) Literature
(D) Architecture

58. In rice production Indic is ranked in the world—
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

59. The brightest star in the sky is—
(A) Proxima Centauri
(B) Bernard
(C) Nebula
(D) Cirius

60. The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is—
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 15

61. From which mine diamond is extracted?
(A) Panna
(B) Golkunda
(C) Jaipur
(D) None of these

62. Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?
(A) Bihar
(B) Orissa
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

63. The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river—
(A) Krishna
(B) Pennar
(C) Tungbhadra
(D) Godavari

64. The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is—
(A) Ramp
(B) Rift
(C) Delta
(D) None of these

65. Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?
(A) Sutlej
(B) Jhelum
(C) Ravi
(D) Chenab

66. Rigmies are related to—
(A) Asia
(B) Europe
(C) Africa
(D) America

67. Mettur dam is situated on the river—
(A) Krishna
(B) Cauvery
(C) Narmada
(D) Mahanadi

68. Most abundant element in maximum rocks is—
(A) Silicon
(B) Carbon
(C) Iron
(D) None of these

69. The old name of African country Ghana is—
(A) Abisinia
(B) Congo
(C) Gold Coast
(D) Tanganika

70. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?
(A) James Princep
(B) James Williams
(C) John Munro
(D) None of these

71. The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is—
(A) Ram Charit Manas
(B) Mahabharat
(C) Puranas
(D) Upanishad

72. In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?
(A) Quit India
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Salt
(D) Bardoli

73. The noble gas is—
(A) Helium
(B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Hydrogen

74. In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental rights
(C) Directive principles of state policy
(D) Seventh schedule

75. Who administers the Union Territory?
(A) Council of Ministers
(B) Governor
(C) Former Governor
(D) President

76. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to—
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Gravity
(D) Atmospheric pressure

77. Which is not an electric resistant?
(A) Lac
(B) Glass
(C) Charcoal
(D) Ebonite

78. The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is—
(A) Tom Morrison
(B) Luther King
(C) John King
(D) None of these

79. Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?
(A) Mercury
(B) Earth
(C) Mars
(D) None of these

80. The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in—
(A) Geneva
(B) Manila
(C) Bangkok
(D) Jakarta

81. Which of the following elements is found in free state?
(A) Iodine
(B) Magnesium
(C) Sulphur
(D) Phosphorus

82. In which disease blood does not clot?
(A) Thrombosis
(B) Haemophilia
(C) Pneumonia
(D) None of these

83. The Ajanta caves are situated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) None of these

84. National Codet Corps was established in—
(A) 1948
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1950

85. The first Yoga University was established at—
(A) Bodh Gaya
(B) Mumbai
(C) Monghyr
(D) Kolkata

86. The biggest glacier of India is—
(A) Siachin
(B) Yamanotri
(C) Chunhari
(D) Gangotri

87. The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is—
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) None of these

88. The Commonwealth games were recently held in—
(A) Britain
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) India

89. Which of the following did not come to India?
(A) Megasthanese
(B) Columbus
(C) Vasco De Gama
(D) Fahein

90. Double fault is related to—
(A) Footbal
(B) Rugby
(C) Tennis
(D) None of these

91. Which of these is the largest railway zone?
(A) Central Railway
(B) Southern Railway
(C) Eastern Railway
(D) Northern Railway


92. Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in india?
(A) Neha Kapoor
(B) Neha Dhupia
(C) Priyanka Sud
(D) None of these

93. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?
(A) NUTL
(B) NTTJ
(C) NTTL
(D) LTRS

94. LO : PK : : IT : ?
(A) GT
(B) SH
(C) MN
(D) FU

95.Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Australia
(C) America
(D) India

Answers:

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B)

11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)

21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)

31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (B)

41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B)

51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)

61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A)

71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (B)

81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C)

91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95 (D)

RRB AJMER SOLVED PAPER 2009

1. The Buland Darwaja is related to
(1) Shershah
(2) Babur
(3) Akbar
(4) Jehangir
Ans. (3)
2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?
(1) China
(2) Russia
(3) India
(4) Japan
Ans. (2)
3. The Railways gets the maximum income from
(1) Goods freight
(2) Passenger’s fares
(3) Advertisement
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
4. What is sound?
(1) Energy
(2) Heat
(3) Magnet
(4) Ray
Ans. (1)
5. The chief source of heat energy is
(1) Sun light
(2) Biogas
(3) Electricity
(4) Natural gas
Ans. (1)
6. The Aravalli hills are located in
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Assam
(4) Jharkhand
Ans. (2)
7. A plant can be disease resistant due to
(1) Pesticides
(2) Virus
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria
Ans. (1)
8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?
(1) Lalu Prasad
(2) Jyoti Basu
(3) Ms. Mayawati
(4) M. Karunanidhi
Ans. (2)
9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?
(1) Berring
(2) Dobar
(3) Gibralter
(4) Mulucca
Ans. (3)
10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in
(1) Indonesia
(2) Malaysia
(3) Morocco
(4) China
Ans. (1)
11. The description of caste system is found in
(1) Rig Veda
(2) Sam Veda
(3) Yajurva Veda
(4) Atharva Veda
Ans. (1)
12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?
(1) Janulabeddin
(2) Sikandar
(3) Queen Didda
(4) Emperor Sangram Singh
Ans. (1)
13. The Border Road Organization comes under
(1) Defense
(2) Urban Development
(3) Corporate sector
(4) Private sector
Ans. (1)
14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?
(1) Damodar Valley Corporation
(2) National Thermal Power Corporation
(3) National Hydel Power Corporation
(4) All the above
Ans. (1)
15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?
(1) Buddha
(2) Sangha
(3) Dhamma
(4) Ahimsa
Ans. (4)
16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?
(1) Rakesh Sharma
(2) G.S. Sirohi
(3) B.K. Dutta
(4) K. Karuna Nautial
Ans. (2)
17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is
(1) Colorless
(2) Green
(3) Red
(4) Red and green
Ans. (1)
18. The pure element in the following is
(1) Glass
(2) Diamond
(3) Lime
(4) Salt
Ans. (2)
19. What is gypsum?
(1) Lime
(2) Bleaching powder
(3) Blue vitriol
(4) Ammonium chloride powder
Ans. (3)
20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at
(1) Lothal
(2) Harappa
(3) Surkotada
(4) Mohanjodero
Ans. (3)
21. What is Ag-mark?
(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity
(2) Green Revolution
(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?
(11) Muttiah Muralitharan
(2) Shane Warne
(3) Anil Kumble
(4) Shoaib Akhtar
Ans. (1)
23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?
(1) Junagarha
(2) Bhavnagar
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Kashmir
Ans. (4)
24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?
(1) Nitrogen and oxygen
(2) Nitrogen and oxide
(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen
(4) Nitrogen and carbon
Ans. (3)
25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?
(1) Orissa
(2) Assam
(3) Manipur
(4) Kerala
Ans. (4)
26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?
(1) Wheat
(2) Rice
(3) Sugar
(4) Petroleum
Ans. (4)
27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?
(1) Mahesh Sharma
(2) Kamlesh Sharma
(3) Bimalesh Sharma
(4) Kailash Sharma
Ans. (2)
28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in
December, 2007?
(1) Indonesia
(2) Malaysia
(3) Mauritius
(4) Afghanistan
Ans. (2)

Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.
On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.
In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham
Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.
29. Udham Singh went to America where he
(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland
(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism
(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause
(4) went sight-seeing
Ans. (3)
30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?
(1) Paris
(2) Lahore
(3) London
(4) Berlin
Ans. (1)
31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in
(1) Jallianwala Bagh
(2) Armritsar
(3) London
(4) Paris
Ans. (3)
32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for
(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen
(2) his links with anti-British forces
(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities
(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition
Ans. (4)
33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:
(1) short of funds to meet his expenses
(2) to produce some arms from Lahore
(3) to escape from the British police
(4) called by a revolutionary in India
Ans. (4)
34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:
(1) Assemblage
(2) Asemblage
(3) Assemmblage
(4) Accemblage
Ans. (1)
35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives
The documents are available ? inspection.
(1) of
(2) about
(3) with
(4) for
Ans. (4)
36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.
(1) Preference
(2) Gifted
(3) Genius
(4) In vain
Ans. (2)
37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.
(1) Novice
(2) Ambiguous
(3) Perfect
(4) Imperfect
Ans. (3)
38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
They have
(1)/held the championship
(2)/ since the past
(3)/ two years.
(4)
Ans. (3)
39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(1) demmurage
(2) demurrage
(3) demarrage
(4) demurage
Ans. (2)
40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:
Play one’s cards well
(1) A good gambler displaying skills
(2) A magician showing magic of cards
(3) Use means effectively
(4) A game of gamble
Ans. (3)
41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.
A cock and bull story
(1) An unbelievable gossip
(2) A children’s fable
(3) A quarrelsome dialogue
(4) A competition between un equal people
Ans. (1)
42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:
The number of orders(1). /
for that item have(2). /
increased greatly; several of them(3). /
have come from Egypt(4).
Ans. (2)
43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.
In America(1)/
Presidential elections(2) /
is held every four years(3)
No error(4)
Ans. (3)
44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:
‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.
(1) might
(2) will
(3) ought to
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).
Witness, Observer; Onlooker
(1) spectator
(2) present
(3) biased
(4) careful
Ans. (1)
46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),
(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:
VINDICATE
(1) approve
(2) justify
(3) express
(4) exonerate
Ans. (2)
47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.
“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”
(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them
(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them
(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them
(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them
Ans. (3)
48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.
Such people never have and never will be trusted.
(1) never have and never will be trusted
(2) never have and will be trust ed
(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted
(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone
Ans. (3)
49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?
(1) The sea-floor is older than the land
(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter
(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by
the agency of water
(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves
Ans. (3)
50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:
(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan
(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power
(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power
(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India
Ans. (4)
51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gram 2.Gujarat
(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal
(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (1)
52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:
(1) Bhavnagar
(2) Digboi
(3) Cochin
(4) Ladakh
Ans. (1)
53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of
(1) State governments
(2) Central governments
(3) Central and State governments
(4) Local body governments
Ans. (3)
54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of
(1) Sulphur dioxide layer
(2) Carbon dioxide layer
(3) Ozone layer
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?
(1) Sargassum
(2) Morchella
(3) Agaricus
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?
(1) protects the internal or of the body
(2) acts as a sensory organ
(3) regulates the temperature of the body
(4) gives shape to the body
Ans. (4)
57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called
(1) Inverter
(2) Rectifier
(3) Transmitter
(4) Transformer
Ans. (2)
58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:
(1) it is easily obtained in pure form
(2) it has high specific heat
(3) it is cheaper and not harmful
(4) it is easy to heat water
Ans. (2)
59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.
(1) cosmic ray
(2) the ultra-violet ray
(3) the alpha ray
(4) the beta ray
Ans. (1)
60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?
(1) Astigmatism
(2) Colour-blindness
(3) Myopia
(4) Hypermetropia
Ans. (4)
61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because
(1) oil is volatile
(2) oil is very light
(3) of the surface tension phenomenon
(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick
Ans. (3)
62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.
(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara
(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune
(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur
(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai
Ans. (4)
63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:
List -I List-II
(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)
(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur
(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad
(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur
(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar
Code.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (1)
64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?
(1) 44,100
(2) 33.000
(3) 49,000
(4) 54,000
Ans. (2)
65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?
(1) Chief Commercial Manager
(2) Chief Safety Officer
(3) Chief Personnel Officer
(4) Chief Operations Manager
Ans. (4)
66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?
(1) October 1, 2002
(2) April 1, 2002
(3) April 1, 2003
(4) October 1, 2003
Ans. (1)
67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.
(1) Karnataka
(2) Goa
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Kerala
Ans. (3)
68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the
(1) High Court of a State
(2) Chief Election Commissioner
(3) Supreme Court of India
(4) President of India
Ans. (3)
69. Consider the following functionaries
1. Union Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is
(1) 3, 4, 2, 1
(2) 4, 3, 1, 2
(3) 4, 3, 2, 1
(4) 3. 4, 1, 2
Ans. (3)
70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated
(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away
(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368
(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended
Ans. (1)
71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?
1. Finance Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Council
4. National Development Council
5. Election Commission
6. University Grants Commission
(1) 1, 3 and 5
(2) l and 5
(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6
Ans. (2)
72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with
(1) President of India
(2) Supreme Court of India
(3) Parliament of India
(4) National Development Council
Ans. (1)
73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?
(1) aunt
(2) mother-in-law
(3) sister
(4) cannot be determined
Ans. (1)
74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?
(1) 10 km—East
(2) 9 km— North
(3) 8 km— West
(4) 5 km—South
Ans. (4)
75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’
Question:
Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.
(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.
(1) Only argument I is strong
(2) Only argument II is strong
(3) Both I and II are strong
(4) Neither I nor II is strong
Ans. (2)
76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-
Assumptions:
I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.
II. Lunch may not be ready in time.
Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(1) Only assumption I is implicit
(2) Only assumption II is implicit
(3) Both I and II are implicit
(4) Neither I nor II is implicit
Ans. (1)
77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?
(1) 49
(2) 51
(3) 54
(4) 57
Ans. (3)
78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?
(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena
(2) Assassination of an Englishman
(3) Trade of red shirts
(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan
Ans. (1)
79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What
is its cost price?
(1) Rs. 240
(2) Rs. 220
(3) Rs. 210
(4) Rs. 250
Ans. (1)
80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be
(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 75°
Ans. (3)
81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be
(1) Rs. 309
(2) Rs. 318
(3) Rs. 320
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
82. (999)² – (998)²2=?
(1) 1995
(2) 1998
(3) 1997
(4) 1992
Ans. (3)
83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is
(1) 9&13/7 kmph
(2) 3&9/17 kmph
(3) 5&9/17 kmph
(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph
Ans. (2)
84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at
(1) Rs. 8388.80
(2) Rs. 8000
(3) Rs. 8383.80
(4) Rs. 8833.80
Ans. (1)
85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be
(1) 10 minutes
(2) 8 minutes
(3) 7 minutes
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)
86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =
(1) 7
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Ans. (1)
87. (6.25) ⁴÷ (6.25)³ =?
(1) 6.25
(2) 6.025
(3) 6.0025
(4) 6.002
Ans. (1)
88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?
(1) 24 years
(2) 20 years
(3) 30 years
(4) 25 years
Ans. (3)
89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?
(1) 3&4/9 %
(2) 4&4/9 %
(3) 4 %
(4) 9 %
Ans. (2)
90. If a ^x=b;b ^y=c and c^z =a , then xyz =?
(1) 1
(2) -1
(3) 2
(4) 2
Ans. (1)
91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List -I List—II
(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)
(a) Britain 1. 1853
(b) America 2. 1829
(c) India 3. 1825
(d) France 4. 1830
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 4 1 3 2
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (3)
92. The length of Indian rails is
(1) More than 5000 km
(2) More than 5630 km
(3) More than 6000 km
(4) More than 6531 km
Ans. (4)
93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Largest Population) (States)
(a) Jains 1. Nagaland
(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan
(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra
(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (2)
94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was
(1) Lahore
(2) Ludhiana
(3) Mathura
(4) Sri Nagar
Ans. (1)
95. Photosynthesis does not take place in
(1) plants
(2) fungi
(3) bacteria
(4) virus
Ans. (4)
96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in
(1) prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase -
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
97. Which type of protein is found in virus?
(1) Lyco protein
(2) Secondary protein
(3) Primary protein
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is
(1) fast
(2) weak
(3) less than solid
(4) less than gas
Ans. (1)
99. The largest phase in cell division is
(1) Liptotin
(2) Zagotin
(3) Pacotin
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

POSTAL / SORTING ASSISTANTS EXAM Exam Held On: 15-06-2008 Based On Memory

(a) All questions carry 2 marks each. There is no
negative marking.
(b) All questions have 4 options, out of which only
one is correct. You have to choose the correct
option.
(c) Your answers have to be marked on the answer
sheets provided, as instructed.
1. The thief made a clean breast of his crime. The
phrase made a clean breast of means ---
a) cleaned his chest
b) fought for
c) faced bravely
d) confessed without hiding anything
2. The mother of the victim left.... in her efforts to
get the culprit convicted. The blank can be filled
by.
a) resigned to her fate b) home
c) no stone unturned d) right
3. Complete the following proverb "Rome was not
built in a ...."
a) day b) week
c) month d) year
4. 'Phobia' means --
a) hobby b) study of something
c) fear of something d) craze
5. Post-Paid means --
a) a post office term
b) payment made before using a service
c) payment made after using service
d) payment made at the time of using the service
6. Complete the phrase : "As faithful as a ............"
a) cat b) donkey
c) dog d) fox
7. A doctor who specializes in the treatment of
children is called---
a) pedestrain b) pediatrician
c) pedologist d) pedigree
8. The police are.... the theft in the office. The blank
can be filled by.
a) instigating b) interrogating
c) investigating d) introspecting
9. The Supervisor needs a........ of scissors for
opening the envelope.
a) pair b) pear
c) pare d) twin
10. The collective noun for a group of elephants is -
a) group b) gang
c) heard d) herd
11. How many minutes before 12 Noon is it when it
is 10.35 a.m.?
a) 86 b) 87
c) 85 d) 84
12. Statements:
All scientists are fools.
All fools are intelligent
Conclusions:
I. All scientists are intelligent.
II. All intelligent people are scientits
III. All intelligent people are fools.
IV. Some intelligent people would be scientists.
a) Only I is correct
b) Only IV is correct
c) Only I and IV are correct
d) Only II and IV are correct
13. Ramesh walked 100 metres towards north, took
a left turn and walked 75 metres, again took a
left turn and walked 100 metres and stopped
walking. Towards what direction was he facing
when he stopped walking?
a) north b) south
c) north - west d) south - east
14. Pick the odd one out ---
a) fruit b) flower
c) leaft d) petal
2

15. Pick the odd one out --
a) cuckoo b) crow
c) bat d) parrot
16. Pick the odd one out ---
a) gold b) copper
c) silver d) brass
17. Identify the city which is the odd one out---
a) Patna b) Ranchi
c) Raipur d) Jamshedpur
18. Count the number of triangles in the following
figure --
a) 9 b) 11
c) 13 d) 15
19. Which is the odd one out in the following ---
a) Triangle b) Rectangle
c) Circle d) Sphere
20. If we are viewing an angle of 30 through a magnifying
glass capable of magnifying 3 times, how
big would the angle look?
a) 90 b) 30
c) 60 d) 120
21. 300 bananas were purchased at Rs.128 a hundred.
What should be the selling price per
dozen, if a profit of Rs.66 is to be made?
a) Rs.15 b) Rs.18
c) Rs.20 d) Rs.21
22. Choose the correct algebraic statement for the
following "A number is equal to 3 less than three
times another number"
a) y=3x - 3 b) y=3x/3
c) y=3x+5 d) 3y=3x-3
23. Which of the following numbers is divisible by
18 (remainder 0)?
a) 245678 b) 2456789
c) 2445678 d) 2455678
24. A 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm brick weights 64 kg.
What would be the weight of a brick of size
1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm?
a) 32 kg b) 8 kg
c) 16 kg d) 1 kg
25. What is the angle between the hour hand and
the minute hand at 6.30 p.m.?
a) 00 b) 150
c) 300 d) 1950
26. Mr. Dhoni has 5 pairs of white gloves and 5
pairs of black gloves, which he keeps in a box.
If he picks 3 gloves at random, what is the probability
that he will get a matching pair?
a) 0.5 b) 0.75
c) 0.9 d) 1
27. If the length and breadth of a room are 48 feet
and 24 feet respectively, and the space diagonal
(one corner on ceiling to opposite corner on
floor) is 56 feet, what is the height of the room?
a) 14 feet b) 15 feet
c) 16 feet d) 17 feet
28. What is the next number in the following sequence?
0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, ......
a) 50 b) 55
c) 53 d) 51
29. '34' is related to '12' in the same way as '59' is
related to -
a) 95 b) 54
c) 45 d) 17
30. If 20 x X = 20 + X, what is the value of X?
a) 19/20 b) 18/20
c) 18/19 d) 20/19
31. Which neighbouring country of India embraced
democracy recently to become the world's
youngest democracy?
a) Nepal b) Bhutan
c) Pakistan d) Srilanka
32. Which of the following took over the Anglo Dutch
Steel Company Corus?
a) Arcelor Mittal
b) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
c) Tata Steel
d) Jindal Steel
33. For International Payments the Indian currency
is linked to -
a) Gold Standard b) International Oil Price
c) American Dollars d) Pound Sterling
34. Which organization, headed by Indian environmentalist
Dr. R.K.Pachauri has been awarded
Nobel Peace Prize in 2007?
a) International Panel on Global Warming
b) International Environmental Panel
c) International Panel on Pollution Control
d) International Panel on Climate change

35. Which day is observed as the World Habitat
Day?
a) March, 27 b) September, 30
c) October 5 d) October 2
36. Which game will be played for the first time in
2010 Asian Games?
a) Twenty-20 Cricket b) Kabaddi
c) Kho-Kho d) Gilli Danda
37. Reserve Bank of India is a --
a) Private Bank b) Commercial Bank
c) Foreign Bank d) Central Bank
38. Which of the following rivers have almost the
same point of origin?
a) Brahmaputra and Indus
b) Brahmaputra and Ganga
c) Godavari and Krishna
d) Indus and Ganga
39. What is the main advantage of transplantation
method of sowing rice?
a) It helps in early harvesting
b) The draininig of water from the field before
harvesting is made easy
c) It is helpful in achieving an economical use
of water and a higher yield of grain
d) It ensures maximum utilization of land
40. All of the following rivers flow into or join the
Ganges on its left side except -
a) Gomti b) Gandak
c) Son d) Kosi
41. As the height above sea level increases, the
temperature -
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) First decreases and then increases
d) Change of height has no effect on temperature
42. Which of the two planets listed below are closer
to the sun than the earth?
a) Mercury and Mars b) Mercury and Venus
c) Venus and Mars d) Jupiter and Saturn
43. Which of the following countries is not in the
continent of Asia?
a) Lebanon b) Libya
c) Japan d) Singapore
44. The land masses of India and Srilanka are connected
by which of the following straits?
a) Bass Strait b) Bering Strait
c) Malacca Strait d) Palk Strait
45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Manipur ` Imphal b) Meghalaya-Shillong
c) Mizoram - Agartala d) Nagaland - Kohima
46. From North to South, the correct sequence of
the following sea ports is ---
a) Chennai, Tuticorin, Vishakapatnam, Paradip
b) Paradip, Chennai, Vishakapatnam, Tuticorin
c) Paradip, Vishakapatnam, Tuticorin, Chennai
d) Paradip, Vishakapatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin
47. The International Date Line is Located in the --
a) Pacific Ocean b) Indian Ocean
c) Atlantic Ocean d) Arctic Ocean
48. Which Bank has recentlychanged its name to
Axis Bank?
a) HDFC Bank b) Citi Bank
c) ICICI Bank d) UTI Bank
49. What is the expanded form of MICR -
a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
b) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
c) Magnetic Inline Character Reader
d) Magnetic Inline Code Reader
50. Which sector contributes most to the GDP of
India?
a) Iron and Steel Industry
b) Railway
c) Cotton Textile Industry
d) Service Sector
1. d 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. d
11. c 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. b
21. b 22. a 23. c 24. d 25. b 26. d 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. d
31. a 32. c 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. c
41. a 42. b 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. d 49. a 50. d

CHECK YOU G.K

1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ? (A) Barnard ’s Star (B) Sirius A (C) Alpha Centauri A (D) Proxima Centauri Ans : (D) 2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately— (A) 5•8% (B) 4•5% (C) 2•59% (D) 1•2% Ans : (C) 3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to— (A) Chess (B) Hockey (C) Badminton (D) Bridge Ans : (A) 4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of— (A) Orissa (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Karnataka Ans : (D) 5. Balance of Payments means— (A) Difference between export and imports (B) Balance to be paid to the exporters (C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists (D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States Ans : (A) 6. A light year is equivalent to about— (A) 365 days (B) Six million miles (C) Six billion miles (D) Six trillion miles Ans : (D) 7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called— (A) Slovakia (B) Scandinavia (C) Netherlands (D) Australasia Ans : (B) 8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is— (A) Sonar (B) Radar (C) Laser (D) Maser Ans : (A) 9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to ammend Constitution ? (A) 376 (B) 370 (C) 368 (D) 390 Ans : (C) 10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ? (A) Dawn (B) Deluxe (C) Demor (D) Dewey Ans : (D) 11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by— (A) N. R. Finsen (B) T. A. Edison (C) J. L. Baird (D) Berliner Ans : (B) 12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ? (A) Love (B) Peace (C) Prophecy (D) Medicine Ans : (C) 13. NASA’s new space telescope is— (A) Wise (B) Rise (C) Barack (D) Telle Ans : (A) 14. Bull fighting is the national game of— (A) Italy (B) Poland (C) Spain (D) Sudan Ans : (C) 15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of the book ? (A) Sound of Hills (B) Sparsh Ganga (C) Heaven (D) Amrit Ans : (B) 16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ? (A) Ela Bhatt (B) Jhumpa Lahiri (C) Punam Suri (D) Mandakni Apte Ans : (A) 17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ? (A) February 28 (B) February 21 (C) February 11 (D) February 4 Ans : (D) 18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called— (A) Bali (B) Vidatha (C) Varman (D) Kara Ans : (B) 19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are— (A) Red blood cells (B) Neutrophils (C) Lymphocytes (D) Platelets Ans : (C) 20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is— (A) Hybrid text transfer protocol (B) Hyper text transfer protocol (C) Higher transfer text protocol (D) Higher text transfer protocol Ans : (B)

ALLOCATION OF STATES/UTS TO THE FINALLY SELECTED CANDIDATES FOR THE POST OF AUDITORS/ JUNIOR ACCOUNTANTS UNDER SCHEME ‘B’ OF COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAMINATION, 2008

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION Allocation of States/UTs to the finally selected candidates for the post of Auditors/ Junior Accountants under Scheme ‘B’ of Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2008 Staff Selection Commission uploaded the allocation list of candidates qualified/selected for the post of Auditors /Junior Accountants under Scheme ‘B’ of Combined Graduate Level (Main) Examination, 2008 on 24.05.2010 wherein it was, inter-alia, mentioned that the Allocation of States/ UTs in respect of 345 remaining candidates will be made in due course. The Commission have now finalized the allocation of the said 345 candidates and the details of allocated State/ UT are now uploaded on SSCs website http//:ssc.nic.in in respect of the candidates with clear candidature out of the 345 candidates. State/ UT allocation for the rest withheld cases will be communicated to Regional Offices as and when these cases are cleared. 2. The Commission had earlier finalized the allocation of the selected candidates on the basis of criteria outlined in the Write up dated 24.5.2010. The same criteria have been by and large followed subject to availability of vacancies. 3. Allocated States will not be changed under any circumstances. No request for change of allocation will be entertained. (Satya Prakash) Under Secretary (C-I) 12.11.2010

post of Inspector and Sub-Inspector in Central Bureau of Narcotics, Gwalior advertised vide Cat. No. MPR (C)-2 and MPR (C) -3 result

List of candidates Recommended for the post of Inspector and Sub-Inspector in Central
Bureau of Narcotics, Gwalior advertised vide Cat. No. MPR (C)-2 and MPR (C) -3
respectively of Advt. No. 1/2009.
I. Inspector Cat. No. MPR (C)-2 of Advt. No. 1/2009.
List of Candidates Recommended:
Sl
No
Roll No. Name of Candidate Cat Rank
01 0209001899 RITESH KUMAR UR SL-01
02 0209002868 RAJNEESH RANJAN OBC SL-02*
03 0209000256 ASHUTOSH KUMAR JHA UR SL-03
04 0209013202 NARENDRA KUMAR PAREEK UR SL-04
05 0209009496 SOURABH PARASHAR UR SL-05
06 0209014682 LALIT KUMAR JHA UR SL-06
07 0209002560 BIPIN KUMAR OBC SL-07
08 0209002771 ANIL KUMAR OBC SL-08
09 0209004661 VIJAY KUMAR OBC SL-09
10 0209000210 HEMENDRA KUMAR MEENA ST SL-10
11 0209001187 RAJENDRA DEWAL SC SL-11
12 0209002699 JHANDU PRASAD MEENA ST SL-12
13 0209006492 NIRANJAN KUMAR SC SL-13
14 0209005918 SATYAMENDRA SINGH SC SL-14
* Qualified at UR standard
II. Sub-Inspector advertised vide Cat. No. MPR (C-3) of Advt. No. 1/2009:-
List of candidates recommended:
Sl
No
Roll No. Name of Candidate Cat Rank
01 0309000157 SUNIL KUMAR UR SL-01
02 0309007778 SUDHIR KUMAR OBC SL-02
03 0309005209 KUNDAN KUMAR UR SL-03
04 0309007044 SANDEEP KUMAR OBC SL-04*
05 0309003567 MANOJ KUMAR OBC SL-05*
06 0309007575 JALAJ VERMA UR SL-06
07 0309001847 SACHIN KUMAR NIGAM UR SL-07
08 0309006918 RAJEEV KUMAR OBC SL-08
09 0309003614 SHASHI RANJAN UR SL-09
10 03090005011 AMIT KUMAR CHAURASIA OBC SL-10
11 0309004097 KRISHNA KANHAIYA SC SL-11
12 0309005119 KULDEEP SINGH SC SL-12
13 0309006855 RAJESH KUMAR MEENA ST SL-13
* Qualified at UR standard

U.P. PCS Lower Subordinate Services (Pre.) Exam. 2008

General Studies
(Exam Held on 26-9-2010)

1. The Thermometer suitable to measure 2000°C temperature is—
(A) total radiation thermometer
(B) gas thermometer
(C) mercury thermometer
(D) vapour pressure thermometer
Ans : (A)

2. The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is—
(A) ethane
(B) ethylene
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) oxytocin
Ans : (B)

3. In which of the following districts India's largest mica belt is found ?
(A) Balaghat and Chhindwara
(B) Udaipur, Ajmer and Alwar
(C) Hazaribagh, Gaya and Monghyr
(D) Salem and Dharmapuri
Ans : (C)

4. Silent valley is situated in—
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Kerala
(C) Arunachal
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (B)

5. The fastest computer of the world is—
(A) Param-10000
(B) J-8
(C) Yenha-3
(D) T-3A
Ans : (A)


6. Which one of the following organizations is not related to science and technology ?
(A) DST
(B) CSIR
(C) ICSSR
(D) DAE
Ans : (C)

7. The name of the ICBM developed by India with a strike range of more than 2000 km is—
(A) Prithvi
(B) Trishul
(C) Akash
(D) Agni-II
Ans : (D)

8. Geneco technology is—
(A) A defence system for prevention from AIDS
(B) A method for the development of species for food crops
(C) A techniques for pre-information regarding genetic diseases
(D) A technique for prevention of cataract
Ans : (C)

9. 2, 4-D is—
(A) an insecticide
(B) an explosive
(C) a fungicide
(D) a herbicide
Ans : (D)

10. The percentage of nuclear enery in India's total energy generation is—
(A) 60%
(B) 27%
(C) 10%
(D) 2%
Ans : (D)

11. ‘Satish Dhawan Space Centre’ is located at—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Goa
(C) Shri Hari Kota
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

12. Which one of the following scientists has carried out researches both in the field of biology and physics ?
(A) Jagdish Chandra Bose
(B) Har Govind Khorana
(C) C. V. Raman
(D) Homi J. Bhabha
Ans : (A)

13. Which one of the following is a bacterial disease ?
(A) Herpes
(B) Polio
(C) Pox
(D) Tetanus
Ans : (D)

14. An Offshore Patrol Vessel was inducted into Coast Guard in March 2010. It is named—
(A) Eagle
(B) Vishwast
(C) Jatayu
(D) Aashwast
Ans : (B)

15. To insulate the country from disruptions in supply of crude oil, India has eastablished ‘India Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd.’ It will construct underground storages at three places. Identify the place which has not been selected for the purpose.
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Manglore
(C) Padur
(D) Ankaleshwar
Ans : (D)

16. Presidents of USA and Russia recently signed a historic treaty committing their respective country to drastically reduce arms. It was signed on—
(A) 15 January, 2010
(B) 18 May, 2009
(C) 08 April, 2010
(D) 12 February, 2010
Ans : (C)

17. Russia has agreed recently to construct how many units of nuclear Reactor at Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) 02
(B) 04
(C) 05
(D) 06
Ans : (A)

18. Who of the following has been appointed as Chairman of Mumbai Stock Exchange in March, 2010 ?
(A) Prof. Rakesh Mohan
(B) Prof. Bhagawati
(C) S. Ram Dorai
(D) Prof. Manoranjan Misra
Ans : (C)

19. Who of the following is the fourth woman Judge appointed in the Supreme Court in India in April, 2010 ?
(A) Justice Fatima Beevi
(B) Justice Sujata Manohar
(C) Justice Gyan Sudha Misra
(D) Justice Ruma Pal
Ans : (C)

20. A World Expo 2010 as a grand event to showcase the best achievements of human civilisation has been opened on May 1, 2010. Where was this expo opened ?
(A) In Shanghai
(B) In Kuala Lumpur
(C) In Tokyo
(D) In Moscow
Ans : (A)

21. Air Force Exercise Garuda-2010 was held by India jointly with which of the following countries ?
(A) France and Singapore
(B) Australia and France
(C) Singapore and Australia
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Which one of the following states bagged the ‘National Rural Health Mission Award’ of the Government of India in April, 2010 ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (D)

23. Who of the following has been included in the ‘Hall of Fame’ by I.C.C. in March, 2010 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Sunil Gavaskar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Anil Kumble
Ans : (C)

24. Who said, ‘Imperialism’ is dead as ‘dodo’ ?
(A) Ramje Macdonald
(B) Winston Churchill
(C) Clement Attlee
(D) Lord Wavell
Ans : (B)

25. The annual session of Muslim League in the year 1970 was held at—
(A) Dacca
(B) Karachi
(C) Aligarh
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (B)

26. The Indian National Congress had launched the Non Co-operation Movement in the year—
(A) 1918 A.D.
(B) 1919 A.D.
(C) 1920 A.D.
(D) 1921 A.D.
Ans : (C)

27. Who amongst the following made regular broadcast on Congress Radio operated during Quit India Movement ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(B) Subhas Chandra Bose
(C) Ram Manohar Lohia
(D) Sucheta Kriplani
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following newspapers advocated revolutionary terrorism during the period of Indian freedom struggle ?
1. Sandhya
2. Yugantar
3. Kaal
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2
(B) 1, 3
(C) 2, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans : (D)

29. The movement in India which became popular during the first World War was the—
(A) Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
(B) Home Rule Movement
(C) Separatist Movement
(D) Swarajist Party Movement
Ans : (B)

30. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct answer using the code given below :
1. Jallianwalabagh Massacre
2. Chaurichaura Episode
3. Champaran Movement
4. Moplah Rebellion
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4
Ans : (C)

31. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists :
List-I(a) Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Pherozeshah Mehta
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
List-II1. Bombay Chronicle
2. Al-Hilal
3. Young India
4. New India
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (A)

32. Who of the following was the President of Indian National Congress for consecutive six years ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans : (C)

33. Who of the following had started the Khilafat Movement ? Choose the answer from the code given below :
1. Shaukat Ali
2. Mohammad Ali
3. Shariatullah
4. Abul Kalam Azad
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (A)

34. Kakori Conspiracy Case took place in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1925
(C) 1930
(D) 1935
Ans : (B)

35. In the Interim Government (1946) who held the Railways Portfolio ?
(A) Baldev Singh
(B) T. T. Chudrigar
(C) Asaf Ali
(D) Abdul Rab Nishtar
Ans : (C)

36. The Province where Indian National Congress did not form ministry after the General election of 1937 was—
(A) Orissa
(B) Bihar
(C) Madras
(D) Bengal
Ans : (D)

37. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
Ans : (B)

38. Who was the leader of the Swadeshi Movement in Madras ?
(A) Srinivas Sastri
(B) Rajagopalachari
(C) Chidambaram Pillai
(D) Chintamani
Ans : (C)

39. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Dadabhai Naoroji ?
(A) He wrote a book ‘Poverty and Un-British rule in India’
(B) He worked as a professor of Gujarati in the University College, London
(C) He laid the foundation of woman's education in Bombay
(D) He was elected as a member of British Parliament on the ticket of the Conservative Party
Ans : (D)

40. Which one of the following was directly related to the Poona Pact of 1932 ?
(A) Indian women
(B) Indian labour class
(C) Indian farmers
(D) Indian depressed class
Ans : (D)

41. Subhas Chandra Bose had founded ‘Forward Bloc’ in the year—
(A) 1936 A.D.
(B) 1937 A.D.
(C) 1938 A.D.
(D) 1939 A.D.
Ans : (D)

42. The Gujarra minor rock edict, in which the name of Ashoka is mentioned, is located in—
(A) Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh
(B) Datia district of Madhya Pradesh
(C) Jaipur district of Rajasthan
(D) Champaran district of Bihar
Ans : (B)

43. Choose the correct pair from the following—
(A) Khajuraho —Chandellas
(B) Ellora caves —Saka
(C) Mahabalipuram—Rashtrakutas
(D) Meenakshi Temple—Pallavas
Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following sites has yielded skeleton of dog along with human skeleton in burial ?
(A) Brahmagiri
(B) Burzahom
(C) Chirand
(D) Maski
Ans : (B)

45. Which of the following Ashokan inscriptions is devoted to the principle of religious tolerance completely ?
(A) Rock edict XIII
(B) Rock edict XII
(C) Pillar inscription VII
(D) Bhabru minor rock edict
Ans : (C)

46. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent comes from—
(A) Koldihwa
(B) Lahuradeva
(C) Mehargarh
(D) Tokwa
Ans : (C)

47. Which of the following mentions about the meeting of Sandrokottas (Chandragupta Maurya) with Alexander, the Great ?
(A) Pliny
(B) Justin
(C) Strabo
(D) Megasthenese
Ans : (D)

48. Which Sultan of Delhi assumed the title of Alexander the Great ?
(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Mahammad Bin Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)

49. Who among the following was given the title of ‘Shaikh-ul-Hind’ ?
(A) Baba Fariduddin
(B) Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki
(C) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(D) Shaikh Salim Chishti
Ans : (C)

50. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) Kakatiya : Devagiri
(B) Hoyasala : Dwarsamudra
(C) Yadav : Warangal
(D) Pandya : Madura
Ans : (B)

51. Who of the following introduced silver coin called ‘tanka’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(C) Iltutmish
(D) Balban
Ans : (C)

52. From the following names identify the one who was not the brother of Humayun.
(A) Kamran
(B) Usman
(C) Askari
(D) Hindal
Ans : (B)

53. ‘Permanent Settlement’ was introduced during the tenure of—
(A) Warren Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Sir John Shore
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (B)

54. In whose reign was the ‘Treaty of Chittor’ signed between Mughal and the Rana of Mewar ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (B)

55. Which medieval Indian ruler prior to Akbar has been referred to as the ‘Akbar of Kashmir’ ?
(A) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(B) Sultan Sikandar
(C) Zainul Abedin
(D) Mahmud Gawan
Ans : (C)

56. The Bengali leader who opposed socio-religious reforms and support orthodoxy was—
(A) Radhakant Deb
(B) Nemisadhan Bose
(C) Hemchandra Biswas
(D) Hemchandra De
Ans : (A)

57. Varindra Ghosh was associated with—
(A) Anushilan Samiti
(B) Sadhava Samaj
(C) Abhinava Bharat
(D) Swadesh Bandhav Samiti
Ans : (A)

58. Who was the first Sultan of Delhi to have levied ‘Haqq-i-Sharab’ or irrigation tax ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
(D) Firoz Tughlaq
Ans : (D)

59. Which Sultan of Delhi had established a separate agriculture department and had planned the ‘rotation of crops’ ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
Ans : (D)

60. As per world statistics 2008, what approximate percentage of world population lives in Asia ?
(A) 61%
(B) 63%
(C) 65%
(D) 66%
Ans : (A)

61. The State having highest scheduled caste population in India is—
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

62. Ujjain is situated at the bank of—
(A) Chambal river
(B) Kschipra river
(C) Godavari river
(D) Narmada river
Ans : (B)

63. Bagalihar Project lies on the—
(A) Jhelum river
(B) Ravi river
(C) Chenab river
(D) Indus river
Ans : (C)

64. Drakensberg is a mountain of—
(A) Botswana
(B) Namibia
(C) South Africa
(D) Zambia
Ans : (C)

65. Which one of the following is a cold current of the South Atlantic Ocean ?
(A) Canary Current
(B) Benguela Current
(C) Agulhas Current
(D) Brazil Current
Ans : (B)

66. Which region of the world, would you associate with ‘Bushmen’ ?
(A) East Africa
(B) Sahara Desert
(C) New Zealand
(D) Kalahari
Ans : (D)

67. Identify the only tributary of River Ganges which rises in the plains—
(A) Son
(B) Sharda or Saryu
(C) Gomti
(D) Ram Ganga
Ans : (C)

68. Uttar Pradesh holds the first place in India in the production of—
(A) Rice and wheat
(B) Wheat and sugarcane
(C) Rice and Sugarcane
(D) Wheat and pulses
Ans : (B)

69. Which one of the following is the tertiary activity ?
(A) Forestry
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Farming
(D) Marketing
Ans : (D)

70. Chilka lake is situated in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

71. The distance of Moon from the Earth is—
(A) 364 thousand kms
(B) 300 thousand kms
(C) 446 thousand kms
(D) 384 thousand kms
Ans : (D)

72. Japan is one of the leading industrial countries of the world because—
(A) It has ample mineral resources
(B) It has ample bio-energy resources
(C) Industrial revolution was initiated here
(D) It has high technological capacity
Ans : (D)

73. The planet which is called twin sister of earth is—
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Mars
(D) Pluto
Ans : (B)

74. The deepest lake of the World is—
(A) Pushkar lake in Rajasthan
(B) Lake superior in America
(C) Victoria lake in Africa
(D) Baikal lake in Russia
Ans : (D)

75. The deepest trenches of the ocean are found in—
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Arctic Ocean
(D) Atlantic Ocean
Ans : (B)

76. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen do not include duty—
(A) to protect and improve the natural environment
(B) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
(C) to strive towards abolition of untouchability
(D) to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform
Ans : (C)

77. Education which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent list by the—
(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 25th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
Ans : (C)

78. The Constitution is silent in the Directive Principles of State Policy about—
(A) adult education
(B) living wages for workers
(C) free legal aid to the poor
(D) Primary education to children till they complete the age of 6 years
Ans : (A)

79. The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly under Dr. B. R. Ambedkar had how many other members ?
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

80. The distribution of legislative power between the centre and the states in the Constitution is given in—
(A) Sixth schedule
(B) Seventh schedule
(C) Eighth schedule
(D) Ninth schedule
Ans : (B)

81. The number of High Court of Judicature in India is—
(A) Twenty
(B) Twenty one
(C) Twenty two
(D) Twenty three
Ans : (B)

82. Which one of the following states does not have a bicameral legislature ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (B)

83. The cardinal features of political system in India are—
1. It is a democratic republic.
2. It has a Parliamentary form of government.
3. The supreme power vests in people of India.
4. It provide for a unified authority
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
Ans : (D)

84. The basis of determining dearness allowances to employees of India is—
(A) National Income
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Standard of Living
(D) Per Capita Income
Ans : (B)

85. Narsinham Committee related to—
(A) Higher education reforms
(B) Tax structure reforms
(C) Banking structure reforms
(D) Planning implementation reforms
Ans : (C)

86. Note issuing department of Reserve Bank of India should always possess the minimum gold stock worth—
(A) Rs. 85 crore
(B) Rs. 115 crore
(C) Rs, 200 crore
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

87. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for—
(A) Internet Banking
(B) Credit Card
(C) Saving Account in the Bank
(D) Current Account in the Bank
Ans : (B)

88. The aim of differentiated Interest scheme was to provide concessional loans to—
(A) Weaker Section of Society
(B) Public Sector Industries
(C) Public Limited Companies
(D) Big Exporters
Ans : (A)

89. The first Industry to develop in India was the—
(A) Cottage industry
(B) Cement industry
(C) Iron and steel industry
(D) Engineering industry
Ans : (A)

90. Which one of the following states was having the highest Human Development Index in the year 2001 ?
(A) Assam
(B) Kerala
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (B)

91. In which one of the following Countries High Yield variety seed were developed for the first time ?
(A) Argentina
(B) China
(C) Mexico
(D) India
Ans : (C)

92. Which one of the following per capita daily calorie intake has been recommended for determining the poverty line in rural areas in India ?
(A) 2200
(B) 2400
(C) 2500
(D) 2600
Ans : (B)

93. In India which agency is entrusted with the collection of data of capital formation ?
(A) RBI and Central Statistical Organisation
(B) RBI and SBI
(C) RBI and all other Commercial Banks
(D) Central Statistical Organisation and National Sample Survey
Ans : (D)

94. Which one of the following duration is related to XI Five Year Plan in India ?
(A) 2005-10
(B) 2006-11
(C) 2007-12
(D) 2008-13
Ans : (C)

95. Open market operations of RBI refer to—
(A) buying and selling of shares
(B) auctioning of foreign exchange
(C) trading in securities
(D) transactions in gold
Ans : (A)

96. Which of the following is the smallest bone in the human body ?
(A) Vomer
(B) Stapes
(C) Malleus
(D) Incus
Ans : (B)
t
97. Which of the following is fish ?
(A) Sea cucumber
(B) Sea cow
(C) Sea horse
(D) Sea lion
Ans : (C)

98. The yellow colour of human urine is due to a pigment called—
(A) Cytochrome
(B) Urochrome
(C) Haemochrome
(D) Phenolichrome
Ans : (B)

99. The branch of study dealing with old age and aging is called—
(A) Oncology
(B) Gerentology
(C) Teratology
(D) Ornithology
Ans : (B)

100. Emphysaema is a disease caused by environmental pollution in which the affected organ of the body is—
(A) liver
(B) kidney
(C) lungs
(D) brain
Ans : (C)

LIC ADO EXAM 2009 ENGLISH SOLVED PAPER

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in boldto help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and manoeuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only when economic opportunities exist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence. Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.
Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low income setting. They squander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food, water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humani-tarian. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus.
However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic deve-lopment. By the time such help arrives the war has restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted ‘quick impact’ initiatives. Most economies in post conflict countries are based on agri-culture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equip-ment quickly will ensure that former soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement these measures almost immediately.

1. Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruc-tion efforts have failed ?
(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the pers-pective of the poor
(B) Rapid economic develop-ment in low income countries
(C) World Bank studies are not valid
(D) International aid organiza-tions become too involved in reconstruction efforts
(E) None of these
2. Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?
(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation
(B) Economic development measures are too rapid
(C) Focus on economic deve-lopment not humanitarian aid
(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes
(E) Lack of essential and quali-fied personnel
3. According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?
(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict
(B) Depending more on foreign aid
(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank
(D) Providing economic oppor-tunities
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?
(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humani-tarian aid
(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace
(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies
(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars
(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid
5. How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?
(A) Long term studies should be commissioned
(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order
(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste
(D) Focusing on agricultural ini-tiatives
(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country
6. What is the benefit of ‘quick impact’ aid ?
(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms
(B) Providing alternate liveli-hood to soldiers before war can restart
(C) Free land is given to soldiers
(D) Price of equipment is low
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7. exist
(A) live (B) fit
(C) create (D) occur
(E) survive
8. squander
(A) lavish (B) spend
(C) displace (D) lose
(E) misuse
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. fragile
(A) weak (B) lasting
(C) long (D) strong
(E) unstable
10. deficient
(A) surplus (B) valued
(C) short (D) secure
(E) repaired
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it—
A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.
B. In the same way, a society where rules are not followed cannot survive for long.
C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.
D. A society can exist properly only when men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.
E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.
F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.
11. Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) E
(E) F
12. Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) E
13. Which of the following is the second sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) E
14. Which of the following is the first sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) E
15. Which of the following is the third sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) E
(E) F
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully com-plete.
16. She did not like to…………her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.
(A) divulge (B) prompt
(C) enforce (D) deploy
(E) make
17. People unfortunately………that money brings happiness.
(A) assume (B) deny
(C) object (D) rely
(E) conscious
18. The public have………a protest against the new rules of the budget.
(A) organize
(B) demonstrated
(C) compiled
(D) pursued
(E) launched
19. Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her……… to the national cause.
(A) blessing
(B) involvement
(C) pursuit
(D) dedication
(E) command
20. Poverty has to be………and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.
(A) destroyed (B) eliminated
(C) finished (D) magnified
(E) considered
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of these questions, two of the words are related in some way i.e., they are similar or opposites. Pick out the option which represents that pair.
21.  1. moderate  2. easy 3. significant  4. strenuous
(A) 2–4 (B) 1–2
(C) 1–3 (D) 2–3
(E) 3–4
22. 1. focus  2. trivial  3. vital  4. site
(A) 1–2 (B) 2–4
(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4
(E) 2–3
23. 1. defer 2. dispute  3. prefer 4. challenge
(A) 2–3 (B) 1–3
(C) 2–1 (D) 2–4
(E) 3–4
24. 1. consequence 2. potential 3. influence 4. ability
(A) 4–3 (B) 2–4
(C) 2–3 (D) 1–3
(E) 4–1
25. 1. rebuke 2. oppose 3. praise 4. distrust
(A) 1–2 (B) 2–3
(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4
(E) 2–4
Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbersare printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Delinking of jobs from degrees is one of the …(26)… features of our education …(27)…. There has been a …(28)… fall in …(29)… in the acade-mic field in recent years. There is a …(30)… of degree holders in the country, as a result, university degrees have …(31)… their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been …(32)… rising. Consequently thousands of graduates and post graduates come out of these institutions and stand in queues waiting to get some …(33)… jobs …(34)… in the country. Moreover, these degree holders do not have any technical or vocational knowledge needed for a particular job. As a result, the number of educated unemployed has been rising …(35)…. It has created a very serious problem.
26. (A) minor
(B) trivial
(C) unachievable
(D) irrelevant
(E) salient
27. (A) process
(B) policy
(C) development
(D) guideline
(E) procedures
28. (A) expected (B) sheer
(C) rough (D) steep
(E) gentle
29. (A) assessment
(B) evaluation
(C) competence
(D) fees
(E) value
30. (A) flood (B) class
(C) party (D) mob
(E) rabble
31. (A) mislaid (B) lost
(C) increase (D) found
(E) establish
32. (A) slowly (B) hastily
(C) deeply (D) waiting
(E) out
33. (A) suitable (B) remain
(C) study (D) live
(E) place
34. (A) frequency
(B) occurrence
(C) event
(D) chance
(E) blocking
35. (A) fever (B) outshine
(C) lean (D) dwarfed
(E) horribly

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (D)
6. (E) 07. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (E) 15. (E)
16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (E) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C)
26. (E) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (E)

U.P POLICE 35000 CONSTABLE JOINING AND TRAINING (IN DEC.) NEWS

Over six months after 35,844 recruits were selected for the post of constables through the Transparent Recruitment Procedure approved by the Ministry of Home Affairs, the recruits are still awaiting the call for training.
The names of new recruits were announced on May 17.
The Uttar Pradesh Police Training Directorate, which has to train the biggest-ever batch in the nine-month schedule, now says the training will begin from December.
The Director General (DG) of the Directorate, Babu Lal Yadav, said: “We are far behind the schedule. The training would have started a month ago, but it is being delayed on account of the Police Housing Board.”
The Board, he said, has been given a fund of Rs 48 crore for construction of classrooms, barracks and washrooms in 65 districts and renovation at a few police training centres in two phases. The deadline for the first phase of construction was August 15 and the second November 15. 

Now, the Board says it will finish the pending work by November 30, he said.
The government has sanctioned Rs 100 crore for the police training and Rs 48 crore given to the Housing Board was part of the fund.
To accommodate such a huge number of recruits, the directorate has established Regional Training Centres in the Reserve Police Lines of 65 districts, where the Superintendents of Police have been made supervising officers, the DG said.
The Police Establishment Department has been asked to allott the recruits to various districts depending on requirement. 




The directorate, he said, will try to conduct training of the recruits at their allotted districts. The rest will be trained at the eight Police Training Schools and 30 of the PAC battalions. The 5,362 women recruits will be accommodated at Sitapur and Shahjahanpur training centres and the Moradabad police academy.
“We have got 50 Deputy SPs and 392 sub-inspectors trained recently at the Police Training Academy in Moradabad who will impart training to the recruits,” Yadav said. “Besides, we have arranged for guest teachers for various classroom training programme — including computers. Arrangements have been made for physical instructors for field training.”
The purchasing of multimedia projectors is also in process.