RAJASTHAN POLICE CONSTABLE ANSWER KEY

RAJASTHAN POLICE CAN ANSWER
KEY 23 JANUARY 201
PART-C PAPER SET-A (1 1 )(2 1)(3 3)(4 2)(5 1)(6 3)(7 4)(8 1)(9 4)(10 2)
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1)(60 2)

ALL INDIA CONSTABLE RECRUITMENT NOTICE (SSC NOTICE)

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
PRESS NOTE
Staff Selection Commission is going to conduct examination for recruitment
of Constable (General Duty) in Central Police Organizations under Ministry of
Home Affairs, in the pay scale of Rs.5200 – 20200 with Grade Pay of Rs.2000/-.
The Age limit is 18-23 years. This is the first time that the Government has
decided to conduct a common recruitment examination for recruitment of Constable
(General Duty) in all the CPOs, through Staff Selection Commission. Earlier, the
respective CPOs used to make recruitment of Constables (GD) by their own.
2. Ministry of Home Affairs has intimated about 49,070 tentative vacancies of
Constables (General Duty) collectively, in BSF, CISF, CRPF and SSB for which
written test will be held on 5.6.2011 for candidates qualifying in physical
standard/physical efficiency test and about 5000 vacancies are tentatively available
in ITBP and Assam Rifles for which written examination will be held on 1.5.2011.
The Commission will publish respective notices in 5-11 February, 2011 Edition
of Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar. The Candidates domiciled in a State /
UT are only eligible for vacancies in respective States / UTs. Allocation to different
CPOs in the case of common recruitment will be made on merit-cum-option basis.
Candidates applying for vacancies in ITBP are required to send their application to
Office of Dy. Director, Staff Selection Commission, North-Western Region,
Chandigarh and those applying for vacancies in Assam Rifles are required to send
their applications to Office of Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission,
North-Eastern Region, Guwahati, Assam, irrespective of the Centre of the Written
Examination selected by them. However, in case of Common Recruitment for BSF,
CRPF, CISF and SSB, applications are to be sent by candidates to the respective
Regional / Sub-Regional Offices of the Staff Selection Commission in whose
jurisdiction the Centre of Written Examination falls. The candidates will have
option to apply online (http://ssc.online) or submit paper application.
3. The following are major features of the Recruitment:-
(i) Vacancies have been allocated UT/State-wise in CPO to be filled by
candidates domiciled in the State / UT.
(ii) (ii) Separate vacancies have been reserved for Border Districts and
Naxalite / Militancy affected areas in different States / UTs.
(iii) Entire recruitment is scheduled to be completed in six months for Assam
Rifles and ITBP and in nine months for other CPOs.
(iv) The selection process will consist of Physical Standards Test (PST) / Physical
Efficiency Test (PET), Written Examination for PST/PET qualified candidates
and Medical Examination for candidates shortlisted on the basis of Written
Examination.
(v) Vacancies are likely to increase and will be finalized before the Written
Examination.
(vi) The Written Examination will consist of Matriculation level questions on
General Intelligence and Reasoning, General Knowledge and Awareness,
Elementary Mathematics and English or Hindi.
Detailed notice and application forms will be available on SSC website
http://ssc.nic.in from 5.2.2011 onwards.

STENOGRAPHER GRADE D CUTOFF MARKS AND RESULT NOTICE

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION Stenographer Grade (C&D) Examination, 2010 Declaration of Written Result to call the candidates for Skill Test (Stenographer Grade ‘D’ Only). Staff Selection Commission conducted the Stenographer Grade (C&D) Examination, 2010 on 9.1.2011 at various centres all over the country. A total of 37839 candidates appeared in the said examination. 2. Following is the list of 10654 candidates in roll number order who have qualified provisionally in the written part of the examination for Skill Tests for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘D’ only subject to their fulfilling all eligibility conditions and also correctness of the information furnished by them in their applications. The number of candidates to be called for Skill Test for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘C’ out of these qualified candidates will be declared in due course. The cut-off fixed and availability of candidates under different categories is as under: Category SC ST OBC EXS PH HH VH UR TOTAL Cut - Off Marks 49 36 53 36 30 30 30 59 --- Candidates available 1970 989 3627 27 407 20 37 3577 10654 3. The results are purely provisional and subject to the recommended candidates fulfilling all the eligibility conditions prescribed for the post in the Notice of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. The candidature of the candidates are liable to be cancelled by respective Regional Directors in case of the candidates found not fulfilling the eligibility conditions or for any other genuine reasons. 4. For candidates belonging to reserved categories for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per Government Policy, the category status is indicated against their Roll Numbers. It is important to note that some of these candidates have been declared qualified only for the category mentioned against their Roll Numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned against his/her name, he/she may not be eligible to be included in the list. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to immediately contact the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown against their Roll Numbers. 5. The Skill Test are scheduled to commence tentatively in the first fortnight of March, 2011. In this connection the following points are brought to the notice of the candidates. Skill Test in Stenography: a) The Skill Test will be taken on computers. b) The Skill Test would be qualifying in nature. The candidates will have to appear for the stenography test. The candidates will be given one dictation for 10 minutes in English/Hindi at the Speed of 80 w.p.m. for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘D’. The transcription time is as under:- English - 50 minutes Hindi - 65 minutes c) There is no exemption from Skill Test for any category of candidates. d) If the candidates had not indicated the medium of Stenography Test at relevant place in the application form, the Commission will consider English as the medium of Stenography Test for such candidates and candidates will not be allowed to change the medium at subsequent stage.
- (2) – e) VH candidates will be required to transcribe the matter in 75 minutes for English Shorthand or in 100 minutes for Hindi Shorthand for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘D’. f) The Skill Test will be held at Commission’s Regional /Sub-Regional Offices or at other centres as may be decided by the Commission. 6. Result of this examination is available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. (Satya Prakash) Under Secretary (C.I) 25.01.2011

RESULT INFORMATION (STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION)

1. SSC STENOGRAPHERS EXAM GRADE C AND D RESULT MAY BE ON SSC WEBSITE TODAY (25/1)


2. SSC GRADUATE LEVEL CPO FINAL RESULT MAY BE ON SSC WEBSITE TODAY (25/01). OR BY 31 JAN.

FOR MORE UPDATES STAY CONNECTED.

ssc math model set paper

1. The average wages of a worker during a fortnight
comprising 15 consecutive working days was Rs.90 per
day. During the first 7 days, his average wages was Rs.87/
day and the average wages during the last 7 days was
Rs.92 /day. What was his wage on the 8th day?
1. 83
2. 92
3. 90
4. 97
Ans : D
2. The average of 5 quantities is 6. The average of 3 of
them is 8. What is the average of the remaining two
numbers?
1. 6.5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 3.5
Ans : C
3. The average temperature on Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday was 250. The average temperature on Thursday,
Friday and Saturday was 240. If the temperature on
Saturday was 270, what was the temperature on
Wednesday?
1. 240
2. 210
3. 270
4. 300
Ans : D
4. The average age of a group of 12 students is 20years.
If 4 more students join the group, the average age
increases by 1 year. The average age of the new students
is
1. 24
2. 26
3. 23
4. 22
Ans : A
5. When a student weighing 45 kgs left a class, the
average weight of the remaining 59 students increased
by 200g. What is the average weight of the remaining 59
students?
1. 57 kgs
2. 56.8 kgs
3. 58.2 kgs
4. 52.2 kgs
Ans : A
6. Three math classes: X, Y, and Z, take an algebra test.
The average score in class X is 83.
The average score in class Y is 76.
The average score in class Z is 85.
The average score of all students in classes X and Y
together is 79.
The average score of all students in classes Y and Z
together is 81.
What is the average for all the three classes?
1. 81
2. 81.5
3. 82
4. 84.5
Ans : B
7. The average weight of a class of 24 students is 36
years. When the weight of the teacher is also included,
the average weight increases by 1kg. What is the weight
of the teacher?
1. 60 kgs
2. 61 kgs
3. 37 kgs
4. None of these
Ans : B
8. The average of 5 quantities is 10 and the average of 3
of them is 9. What is the average of the remaining 2?
1. 11
2. 12
3. 11.5
4. 12.5
Ans : C
9. The average age of a family of 5 members is 20 years.
If the age of the youngest member be 10 years then what
was the average age of the family at the time of the birth
of the youngest member?
1. 13.5
2. 14
3. 15
4. 12.5
Ans : D
10. A student finds the average of 10 positive integers.
Each integer contains two digits. By mistake, the boy
interchanges the digits of one number say ba for ab. Due
to this, the average becomes 1.8 less than the previous
one. What was the difference of the two digits a and b?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 2
4. 4
Ans : C
11. Average cost of 5 apples and 4 mangoes is Rs. 36. The
average cost of 7 apples and 8 mangoes is Rs. 48. Find
the total cost of 24 apples and 24 mangoes.
1. 1044
2. 2088
3. 720
4. 324
Ans : B
Interest
1. A father left a will of Rs.35 lakhs between his two
daughters aged 8.5 and 16 such that they may get equal
amounts when each of them reach the age of 21 years.
The original amount of Rs.35 lakhs has been instructed to
be invested at 10% p.a. simple interest. How much did the
elder daughter get at the time of the will?
1. Rs. 17.5 lakhs
2. Rs. 21 lakhs
3. Rs. 15 lakhs
4. Rs. 20 lakhs
Ans : B
2. What will Rs.1500 amount to in three years if it is
invested in 20% p.a. compound interest, interest being
compounded annually?
1. 2400
2. 2592
3. 2678
4. 2540
Ans : B
3. If a sum of money grows to 144/121 times when
invested for two years in a scheme where interest is
compounded annually, how long will the same sum of
money take to treble if invested at the same rate of
interest in a scheme where interest is computed using
simple interest method?
1. 9 years
2. 22 years
3. 18 years
4. 33 years
Ans : B
4. The population of a town was 3600 three years back. It
is 4800 right now. What will be the population three years
down the line, if the rate of growth of population has been
constant over the years and has been compounding
annually?
1. 6000
2. 6400
3. 7200
4. 9600
Ans : B
5. A man invests Rs.5000 for 3 years at 5% p.a. compound
interest reckoned yearly. Income tax at the rate of 20%
on the interest earned is deducted at the end of each
year. Find the amount at the end of the third year.
1. 5624.32
2. 5630.50
3. 5788.125
4. 5627.20
Ans : A
6. The difference between the compound interest and the
simple interest on a certain sum at 12% p.a. for two years
is Rs.90. What will be the value of the amount at the end
of 3 years?
1. 9000
2. 6250
3. 8530.80
4. 8780.80
Ans : D
7. Vijay invested Rs.50,000 partly at 10% and partly at
15%. His total income after a year was Rs.7000. How
much did heinvest at the rate of 10%?
1. Rs.40,000
2. Rs.40,000
3. Rs.12,000
4. Rs.20,000
Ans : B
8. A sum of money invested for a certain number of years
at 8% p.a. simple interest grows to Rs.180. The same sum
of money invested for the same number of years at 4%
p.a. simple interest grows to Rs.120 only. For how many
years was the sum invested?
1. 25 years
2. 40 years
3. 33 years and 4 months
4. Cannot be determined
Ans : A
9. How long will it take for a sum of money to grow from
Rs.1250 to Rs.10,000, if it is invested at 12.5% p.a simple
interest?
1. 8 years
2. 64 years
3. 72 years
4. 56 years
Ans : D
10. Rs. 5887 is divided between Shyam and Ram, such that
Shyamâ €™s share at the end of 9 years is equal to Ramâ
€™s share at the end of 11 years, compounded annually at
the rate of 5%. Find the share of Shyam.
1. 2088
2. 2000
3. 3087
4. None of these
Ans : C
Geometry
1. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line
joining (5, -2) and (9, 6) internally in the ratio 1 : 3.
1. (6, 0)
2. (6, 3)
3. (0, 6)
4. (3, 6)
Ans : A
2. Find the number of triangles in an octagon.
1. 326
2. 120
3. 56
4. Cannot be determined
Ans : C
3. Find the equation of a line whose intercepts are twice
of the line 3x – 2y – 12 = 0
1. 3x – 2y = 24
2. 2x – 3y = 12
3. 2x – 3y = 24
4. None of these
Ans : A
4. Find the area of the sector covered by the hour hand
after it has moved through 3 hours and the length of the
hour hand is 7cm.
1. 77 sq.cm
2. 38.5 sq.cm
3. 35 sq.cm
4. 70 sq.cm
Ans : B
5. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (-6, -2),
(-4, -6), (-2, 5).
1. 36
2. 18
3. 15
4. 30
Ans : C
6. A stairway 10ft high is such that each step accounts for
half a foot upward and one-foot forward. What distance
will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the
top of the stairway?
1. 30 ft
2. 33 ft
3. 10 ft
4. 29 ft
Ans : D
7. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 120 degrees
greater than each exterior angle. How many sides are
there in the polygon?
1. 6
2. 8
3. 12
4. 3
Ans : C
8. What is the area of the largest triangle that can be
fitted into a rectangle of length â €˜l’ units and width â
€˜w’ units?
1. lw/3
2. (2lw)/3
3. (3lw)/4
4. (lw)/2
Ans : D
9. Which of the following is inCorrect?
1. An incentre is a point where the angle bisectors meet.
2. The median of any side of a triangle bisects the side at right
angle.
3. The point at which the three altitudes of a triangle meet is the
orthocentre
4. The point at which the three perpendicular bisectors meet is the
centre of the circumcircle.
Ans : B
10. A and B are two points with the co-ordinates (-2, 0)
and (0, 5). What is the length of the diagonal AC if AB form
one of the sides of the square ABCD?
1. units
2. units
3. units
4. units
Ans : B
Second Paper:
1. How long will Lucy have to wait before for her $2,500
invested at 6% earns $600 in simple interest?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
E. 6 years
2. Grace has 16 jellybeans in her pocket. She has 8 red
ones, 4 green ones, and 4 blue ones. What is the
minimum number of jellybeans she must take out of her
pocket to ensure that she has one of each color?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 13
E. 16
3. If r = 5 z then 15 z = 3 y, then r =
A. y
B. 2 y
C. 5 y
D. 10 y
E. 15 y
4. What is 35% of a number if 12 is 15% of a number?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 28
D. 33
E. 62
5. A computer is on sale for $1600, which is a 20%
discount off the regular price. What is the regular price?
A. $1800
B. $1900
C. $2000
D. $2100
E. $2200
6. A car dealer sells a SUV for $39,000, which represents
a 25% profit over the cost. What was the cost of the SUV
to the dealer?
A. $29,250
B. $31,200
C. $32,500
D. $33,800
E. $33,999
7. After having to pay increased income taxes this year,
Edmond has to sell his BMW. Edmond bought the car for
$49,000, but he sold it for a 20% loss. What did Edmond
sell the car for?
A. $24,200
B. $28,900
C. $35,600
D. $37,300
E. $39,200
8. If Sam can do a job in 4 days that Lisa can do in 6 days
and Tom can do in 2 days, how long would the job take if
Sam, Lisa, and Tom worked together to complete it?
A. 0.8 days
B. 1.09 days
C. 1.23 days
D. 1.65 days
E. 1.97 days
9. Find 0.12 ÷12
A. 100
B. 10
C. 1
D. 0.01
E. 0.001
10. Divide x5 by x2
A. x25
B. x10
C. x7
D. x3
E. x2.5
11. Which of the following numbers could be described in
the following way: an integer that is a natural, rational and
whole number?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2.33
D. -3
E. none of the above
12. Find the mode of the following list of numbers: 2, 4, 6,
4, 8, 2, 9, 4, 3, 8
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
13. In the fraction 3/x, x may not be substituted by which
of the following sets?
A. {1, 2, 4}
B. {-2,-3,-4}
C. {1, 3, 7}
D. {0, 10, 20}
E. {1.8, 4.3}
14. Sarah needs to make a cake and some cookies. The
cake requires 3/8 cup of sugar and the cookies require 3/5
cup of sugar. Sarah has 15/16 cups of sugar. Does she
have enough sugar, or how much more does she need?
A. She has enough sugar.
B. She needs 1/8 of a cup of sugar.
C. She needs 3/80 of a cup of sugar.
D. She needs 4/19 of a cup of sugar.
E. She needs 1/9 of a cup of sugar.
15. At a company fish fry, 1/2 in attendance are
employees. Employees ’ spouses are 1/3 of the
attendance. What is the percentage of the people in
attendance who are not employees or employee
spouses?
A. 10.5%
B. 16.7%
C. 25%
D. 32.3%
E. 38%
16. In a college, some courses contribute more towards
an overall GPA than other courses. For example, a
science class is worth 4 points; mathematics is worth 3
points; History is worth 2 points; and English is worth 3
points. The values of the grade letters are as follows, A=
4, B=3, C=2, D=1, F=0. What is the GPA of a student who
made a “C” in Trigonometry, a “B” in American
History, an “A” in Botany, and a “B” in
Microbiology?
A. 2.59
B. 2.86
C. 3.08
D. 3.33
E. 3.67
17. There are 8 ounces in a ½ pound. How many ounces
are in 7 3/4 lbs?
A. 12 ounces
B. 86 ounces
C. 119 ounces
D. 124 ounces
E. 138 ounces
18. If the value of x and y in the fraction XZ/Y are both
tripled, how does the value of the fraction change?
A. increases by half
B. decreases by half
C. triples
D. doubles
E. remains the same
19. What is the next number in the following pattern? 1,
1/2, 1/4, 1/8, ___
A. 1/10
B. 1/12
C. 1/14
D. 1/15
E. 1/16
20. Of the following units which would be more likely
used to measure the amount of water in a bathtub?
A. kilograms
B. liters
C. milliliters
D. centigrams
E. volts
21. If a match box is 0.17 feet long, what is its length in
inches the most closely comparable to the following?
A. 5 1/16 inch highlighter
B. 3 1/8 inch jewelry box
C. 2 3/4 inch lipstick
D. 2 3/16 inch staple remover
E. 4 1/2 inch calculator
22. Which of the following fractions is the equivalent of
0.5%?
A. 1/20
B. 1/200
C. 1/2000
D. 1/5
E. 1/500
23. In the graph below, no axes or origin is shown. If
point B ’s coordinates are (10,3), which of the following
coordinates would most likely be A’s?
A. (17, -2)
B. (10, 6)
C. (6,
D. (-10, 3)
E. (-2, -17)
24. Over the course of a week, Fred spent $28.49 on
lunch. What was the average cost per day?
A. $4.07
B. $3.57
C. $6.51
D. $2.93
E. $5.41
25. Of the following units, which would be most likely to
measure the amount of sugar needed in a recipe for 2
dozen cookies?
A. degrees Celsius
B. milliliters
C. quarts
D. kilograms
E. cups
26. Jim has 5 pieces of string. He needs to choose the
piece that will be able to go around his 36-inch waist. His
belt broke, and his pants are falling down. The piece
needs to be at least 4 inches longer than his waist so he
can tie a knot in it, but it cannot be more that 6 inches
longer so that the ends will not show from under his shirt.
Which of the following pieces of string will work the
best?
A. 3 4/5 feet
B. 3 2/3 feet
C. 3 3/8 feet
D. 3 1/4 feet
E. 2 1/2 feet
27. After purchasing a flat screen television for $750, John
realizes that he got a great deal on it and wishes to sell it
for a 15% profit. What should his asking price be for the
television?
A. $800.30
B. $833.60
C. $842.35
D. $862.50
E. $970.25
28. If 300 jellybeans cost you x dollars. How many
jellybeans can you purchase for 50 cents at the same
rate?
A. 150/x
B. 150x
C. 6x
D. x/6
E. 1500x
29. If 6 is 24% of a number, what is 40% of the same
number?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
E. 25
30. Lee worked 22 hours this week and made $132. If she
works 15 hours next week at the same pay rate, how
much will she make?
A. $57
B. $90
C. $104
D. $112
E. $122
31. The last week of a month a car dealership sold 12 cars.
A new sales promotion came out the first week of the
next month and the sold 19 cars that week. What was the
percent increase in sales from the last week of the
previous month compared to the first week of the next
month?
A. 58%
B. 119%
C. 158%
D. 175%
E. 200%
32. If 8x + 5x + 2x + 4x = 114, the 5x + 3 =
A. 12
B. 25
C. 33
D. 47
E. 86
33. If two planes leave the same airport at 1:00 PM, how
many miles apart will they be at 3:00 PM if one travels
directly north at 150 mph and the other travels directly
west at 200 mph?
A. 50 miles
B. 100 miles
C. 500 miles
D. 700 miles
E. 1,000 miles
34. What is the cost in dollars to steam clean a room W
yards wide and L yards long it the steam cleaners charge
10 cents per square foot?
A. 0.9WL
B. 0.3WL
C. 0.1WL
D. 9WL
E. 3WL
35. Find 8.23 x 109
A. 0.00000000823
B. 0.000000823
C. 8.23
D. 8230000000
E. 823000000000
36. During a 5-day festival, the number of visitors tripled
each day. If the festival opened on a Thursday with 345
visitors, what was the attendance on that Sunday?
A. 345
B. 1,035
C. 1,725
D. 3,105
E. 9,315
37. Which of the following has the least value?
A. 0.27
B. 1/4
C. 3/8
D. 2/11
E. 11%
39. Which year did the same number of boys and girls
attend the conference?
A. 1995
B. 1996
C. 1997
D. 1998
E. None
40. Which two years did the least number of boys attend
the convention?
A. 1995 and 1996
B. 1995 and 1998
C. 1996 and 1997
D. 1997 and 1994
E. 1997 and 1998
Answer Key
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. E 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. D
14. C 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. E 19. E 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. A
25. E 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. C 34. A 35.
D 36. E 37. E 38. A 39. A 40. A

VACANCIES IN VARIOUS MINISTRIES/OFFICES OF GOI

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
(Western Region - WR)
1ST Floor, South Wing, Pratistha Bhavan, 101, MK Road, Mumbai - 400020
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Western Region (WR), Mumbai, invite application for the following posts in various Ministries/ Offices of the Government of India :

1.
Technical Officer-I : 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2000, Age : 18-27 years
2. Senior Research Assistant : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4200, Age : 20 -27 years
3. Technical Officer : 05 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4200, Age : 28 years
4. Senior Library Information Assistant : 04 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4200, Age : 18-27 years
5. Laboratory Assistant : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4200, Age : 18-27 years
6. Junior Cartographic Assistant : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2800, Age : 18-25 years
7. Field Assistant : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs.4200, Age : 18-27 years
8. Deputy Ranger : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 2400, Age : 28 years
9. Senior Radio Technician : 08 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 30 years
10. Assistant Examiner : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs. 4200, Age : 21-30 years




Fee Payable : Rs.50/- (No fee for Women/ SC/ST/PH and Ex-Servicemen) by means of Central Recruitment Fee Stamps (CRFS) only, available at head post office all over the country.

How to Apply : Application in prescribed format should be sent in an envelope superscribed with bold letters as "Application for the posts of .................... " on or before 12/02/2011 (19/02/2011 for candidates from far-flung areas) to Office of the Regional Director, Staff Selection Commission, (Western Region) 1ST Floor, Pratishtha Bhavan, 101, MK Road, Mumbai - 400020.

For further details and application form, please view http://www.sscwr.org/upload/selection-posts/wreng_2011-01-17.pdf

SSC NEWS UPDATE

1. RESULT OF STENOGRAPHERS GRADE C AND D EXAM WILL BE ON ON SSC WEBSITE BEFORE 14 FEB.




2. SKILL TEST FOR CHSL EXAM WILL BE START FROM 14 FEB.



3. detailed prog of pet/me of Spl Exam for SI will be on reg off website before 31/1/11.pet will commence on 14th Feb



4. there are 3000 vacancies in chsl exam.



5. marks of candiadtes not qualifying for PET/ME of Spl Exam for SI in CPOS available on ssc website now



6. marks of candidates not qualifying for chsl exam available on ssc website now.



7. stenographers grade c and d exam cutoff may be around 100 for general candidates it is my guess only.



8. pet details for cpo spl exam for male candidates
race 1600 meter in 6 minutes 30 seconds
race 100 meter in 16 sec.
high jump 1.2 mtrs in 3 chances
long jump 3.65 mtrs in 3 chances
shot put (16 lbs) 4.5 mtrs in 3 chances



9. pet details for cpo spl exam for female candidates
100 meters race in 18 seconds
800 meters race in 4 minutes
long jump 2.7 mtrs in 3 chances
high jump .9 mtrs in 3 chances



10. keep visiting for more updates.. best of luck for chsl skill test and for cpo spl pet. and medical test

CHSL (LDC AND DEO) NON QUALIFIED CANDIDATES MARKS ON SSC WEBSITE

1 STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION COMBINED HIGHER SECONDARY (10+2) EXAMINATION, 2010 MARKS OF NON-QUALIFIED /REJECTED CANDIDATES IN WRITTEN PART The Staff Selection Commission conducted an open competitive examination for the post of Data Entry Operator and LDC on 27&28.11.2010 on all India basis. A total of 9,91,514 candidates appeared in the said examination. The result of the written part was declared on 14.01.2010 and posted on the Commission’s website wherein 17507 candidates have been declared qualified in the written part for being called for Data Entry Skill Test and Typing Test on Computer. 2 . Candidate except those qualified in the written part can ascertain his/her marks through the website by entering their Roll No./Name. The particulars of the candidates appearing on the website are based on the coding (blackening the corresponding rectangles in pencil) of their particulars by the candidates on the first page of OMR Answer Sheet. The candidate had already been cautioned through instructions given in the front page of OMR sheet that “Answer Book not bearing candidate’s Name, Roll No. & Ticket No. will not be evaluated and such candidate would be awarded “ZERO” marks”. “Please ensure that you have written and coded your particulars correctly to avoid rejection. Further, Note-II under Para-19 of the Notice for the Examination also cautioned the candidate that “Candidate should note that answer sheets not bearing Candidate’s Name, Roll Number, Signature, Ticket Number and Test Form Number (Blackening the relevant rectangle as per instructions given to the candidates) will not be evaluated and such candidates would be awarded “ZERO” mark. In other words, wrong coding or no coding leads to no evaluation”. Accordingly, the OMR sheets of the candidates whose scripts were without their signature or who have wrongly coded their particulars on first page of OMR Answer Sheet, have been rejected and awarded zero marks. 3. Mistakes/Discrepancies committed by the candidates have been indicated in code against the respective candidates which are as under: Code Abbreviation WS Without Signature Roll No. Roll No. (Wrong/Incomplete) DUP ROLL Duplicate Roll No. (Coded roll no. is of other candidate) TF Test Form No. (Wrong/Incomplete) TICKNO Ticket No. (Wrong/Incomplete) INV ROLL Invalid Roll No. (Coded roll no. is out of range) DR Duplicate Roll No. (Coded roll no. is of other candidate) 4. The OMR sheets have been scanned and evaluated by computer and marks of the candidates have been generated through computer after thorough checking and verification and are 100% error free. No representations regarding reevaluation of their OMR sheet, re-totaling of marks, etc will be entertained by the Commission. (Satya Prakash) Under Secretary(C-I) Dated 19.01.2011

MULTI TASKING STAFF SSC MODEL SET PAPER MATH

Directions (Q. 01-05) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
01. 2.8 1.5 + of 250 = ?
(a) 24.2
(b) 24.02
(c) 42.2 (d) 2.42
(e) None of these


04. 8² ×2⁶ ÷ 8^2.4 = 8 ?
(a) 10.6
(b) 9.6
(c) 8.6
(d) 6.6
(e) None of these
05. 160% of 250 + ? = 120% of 400
(a) 160
(b) 40
(c) 80
(d) 120
(e) None of these
Direction (Q. 06-10): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the following number series ?
06. 2 8 26 ? 242
(a) 78
(b) 72
(c) 82
(d) 84
(e) None of these
07. 3 4 12 ? 196
(a) 45
(b) 40
(c) 41
(d) 49
(e) None of these
08. 9 17 ? 65 129
(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 35
(d) 33
(e) None of these
09. 7 13 ? 64.75
(a) 27
(b) 25
(c) 23
(d) 27
(e) None of these
10. 5 3 6 ? 64.75
(a) 15
(b) 15.5
(c) 17.5
(d) 17.25
(e) None of these
11. Out of 5 women and men, a committee of three members is to be formed in such a way that at least one member is a women. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 80
(b) 84
(c) 76
(d) 96
(e) None of these
12. The present ages of Amit and his father are in the ratio of 2:5 respective. Four years hence the ratio of their ages will become 5:11 respectively. What was the father’s age five years ago ?
(a) 40 years
(b) 45 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
(e) None of these
13. Twice the square of a number is six times the other number. What is the ratio of the first number to the second?
(a) 1:4
(b) 2:5
(c) 1:3
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
14. Manoj sold an article for Rs 15,000. Had he offered a discount of 10% on the selling price, he would have earned a profit of 8%. What is the cost price?
(a) Rs 12,500
(b) Rs 13,500
(c) Rs 12,250
(d) Rs 13, 250
(d) None of these
15. The cost of 8 pens and 4 pencils is Rs 176 and the cost of 2 pens and pencils is Rs 48. What is the cost of one pen ?
(a) Rs 16
(b) Rs 14
(c) Rs 12
(d) Rs 18
(e) None of these
16. In now many different ways can the letters of the word TOTAL be arranged ?
(a) 120
(b) 60
(c) 48
(d) 72
(e) None of these
17. If the area of a circle is 616 cm2, what is its perimeter?
(a) 76cm
(b) 84 cm
(c) 96 cm
(d) 80cm
(e) None of these
18. B and C together can complete a work in 8 days, A and B together can complete the same work in 12 days, and A and C together can complete the same work in 16 days. In, how many days can A, B and C together complete the same work ?

19. What will be the compound interest accured on an amount fo Rs 10,000 @ 20 p. c. p. a. in two years if the interest is compound half-yearly ?
(a) Rs 4,400
(b) Rs 4,600
(c) Rs 4,641
(d) Rs 4,680
(e) None of these
20. The income of A is 150% of the income of B and the income of is 120% of the income of A. If the total income of A, B and C together is Rs 86,000, what is C’s income ?
(a) Rs 30,000
(b) Rs 32,000
(c) Rs 20,000
(d) Rs 36,000
(e) None of these
Direction (Q. 21-25): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (you are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
21. 7999.99 + 72 49.99 = ?
(a) 12000
(b) 12600
(c) 12500
(d) 11600
(e) 11000
22. (25.01)² - (15.99)²
(a) 361
(b) 381
(c) 369
(d) 375
(e) 356
23. 380 ×12.25 - 365 ÷ 15 = ?
(a) 4500
(b) 4550
(c) 4800
(d) 4850
(e) 4650
24. 180% of 25501 + 50% 0f 28999 = ?
(a) 62400
(b) 64000
(c) 60400
(e) 64200
(e) 61600
25. 171.995×14.995 ÷ 25 = ?
(a) 105
(b) 115
(c) 110
(d) 125
(e) 120


Answers: 01. a 02. e 03. b 04. d 05. c 06. e 07. a 08. d 09. b 10. c 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. e 16. b 17. e 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. e 24. c 25. a

SSC GRADUATE LEVEL TIER I 2011 MODEL SET PAPER

1. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains ?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
Ans : (D)

2. The Constitution of India was adopted in—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1949
(C) 26 November, 1949
(D) 31 December, 1949
Ans : (C)

3. In a nuclear reactor, one of the following is used as a fuel—
(A) Coal
(B) Uranium
(C) Radium
(D) Diesel
Ans : (B)


4. The first muslim ruler to introduce the system of price control was—
(A) Balban
(B) Jalaluddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (D)

5. Tansen, a great musician, was in the court of—
(A) Akbar
(B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Krishna Deva Rai
Ans : (A)

6. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (B)

7. Where is National Sugar Institute established?
(A) Kanpur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Lucknow
(D) Gajrola
Ans : (A)

8. A national leader, whose birthday is observed as the National Education Day on November 11, is—
(A) J. B. Kriplani
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : (C)

9. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is constructed on the river—
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Godavari
(D) Indus
Ans : (B)

10. The Bermuada Triangle lies in—
(A) Western North Atlantic Ocean
(B) Eastern South Atlantic Ocean
(C) North Pacific Ocean
(D) South Indian Ocean
Ans : (A)

11. Who among the following has been honoured with Bharat Ratna for the year 2008 ?
(A) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(B) G. Madhavan Nair
(C) Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Ans : (C)

12. Which of the following is India’s first nuclear powered submarine launched on 26 July, 2009 ?
(A) INS Virat
(B) INS Arihant
(C) INS Vikrant
(D) INS Talwar
Ans : (B)

13. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through—
(A) Glass
(B) Vacuum
(C) Water
(D) Air
Ans : (A)

14. Galvanised iron sheets have a coating of—
(A) Tin
(B) Lead
(C) Zinc
(D) Chromium
Ans : (C)

15. I.B.R.D. is also known as—
(A) International Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) Bank of America
Ans : (B)

16. The Gupta king who assumed the title of Vikramaditya was—
(A) Skandagupta
(B) Samudragupta
(C) Chandragupta–II
(D) Kumaragupta
Ans : (C)

17. Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Citizenship
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Union Executive
Ans : (C)

18. Which amidst the following countries of the European union has not adopted the single currency Euro ?
(A) France
(B) U. K.
(C) Germany
(D) Spain
Ans : (B)

19. Permanent members of U. N. Security Council are—
(A) U.K., U.S.A., Russia, China, Japan
(B) U.S.A., France, China, U.K., Canada
(C) U.S.A., France, U.K., Russia, Canada
(D) U.S.A., U.K., France, Russia, China
Ans : (D)

20. The author of the book ‘My Country My Life’ is—
(A) Lal Krishna Advani
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) Dilip Kumar
(D) Sunil Gavaskar
Ans : (A)

21. The Partition of Bengal was revoked by the British Government in the year—
(A) 1907
(B) 1917
(C) 1911
(D) 1921
Ans : (C)

22. The first talkie film in India was—
(A) Raja Harish Chandra
(B) Alam Ara
(C) Chandi Das
(D) Jhansi Ki Rani
Ans : (B)

23. ‘Blue Revolution’ is related to—
(A) Space research
(B) Irrigation
(C) Fisheries
(D) Drinking water
Ans : (C)

24. India has the maximum foreign trade with—
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) U.S.A.
(D) U.K.
Ans : (C)

25. The most urbanised country in the world is—
(A) Japan
(B) Singapore
(C) Germany
(D) Israel
Ans : (B)

26. Which is the highest finance body for small scale industries ?
(A) IDBI
(B) SIDBI
(C) IFCI
(D) NABARD
Ans : (B)

27. What is the new name of the old region ‘Siam’ ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Thailand
(C) Philippines
(D) Cambodia
Ans : (B)

28. Great poet Amir Khusarau’s birth place was—
(A) Patiyali (Etah)
(B) Kanpur
(C) Tehran
(D) Lahore
Ans : (A)

29. Bauxite is an ore of one of the following metals—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Silver
(C) Tin
(D) Steel
Ans : (A)

30. Who organized the fourth Buddhist council ?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Harsha
(C) Bindusara
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (D)

31. Who was the last ruler of Lodi dynasty ?
(A) Bahlol Lodi
(B) Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Sikandar Lodi
(D) Daulat Khan Lodi
Ans : (B)

32. The Capital of Andaman and Nicobar islands is—
(A) Port Blair
(B) Diu
(C) Kolkata
(D) Tirupati
Ans : (A)

33. Who among the following decides if a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Finance Minister
Ans : (B)

34. ‘Bar’ is the unit of—
(A) Heat
(B) Temperature
(C) Current
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Ans : (D)

35. Right to vote is a—
(A) Political right
(B) Civil right
(C) Economic right
(D) Legal right
Ans : (A)

36. Koneru Humpy is associated with—
(A) Lawn Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C) Chess
(D) Badminton
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following hills connect eastern and western ghats ?
(A) Satpura
(B) Vindhya
(C) Nilgiri
(D) Aravalli
Ans : (C)

38. Which country is known as the ‘Cockpit of Europe’ ?
(A) Belzium
(B) Switzerland
(C) Netherlands
(D) Luxembourg
Ans : (A)

39. In Uttar Pradesh, Charkula folk dance is related with—
(A) Ruhelkhand region
(B) Brij region
(C) Bundelkhand region
(D) Avadh region
Ans : (B)

40. Which among the following is a central university in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Avadh University, Faizabad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi Kashi Vidyapeeth, Varanasi
(C) Chhatrapati Sahuji Maharaj University, Kanpur
(D) Allahabad University, Allahabad
Ans : (D)

41. Lucknow Congress session 1916, was presided over by—
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Ambika Charan Majumdar
(D) Pt. J. L. Nehru
Ans : (C)

42. Rihand Project is located at—
(A) Lalitpur district
(B) Mirzapur district
(C) Aligarh district
(D) Sultanpur district
Ans : (B)

43. Where was ‘Tanchoi’ brocade developed ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Surat
(D) Tanjavur
Ans : (A)

44. Who wrote ‘Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna Ab Hamare Dil Mein Hai’ ?
(A) Mohammed Iqbal
(B) Kazi Nazrul Islam
(C) Anand Narayan Mulla
(D) Ram Prasad Bismil
Ans : (D)

45. The chemical that is used in making artificial rain is—
(A) Silver Nitrate
(B) Silver Iodide
(C) Silver Nitrite
(D) Silver Chloride
Ans : (B)

46. Which of the following is the hardest substance in the human body ?
(A) Bone
(B) Enamel
(C) Nail
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

47. Agricultural income tax is a source of revenue to—
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Local Administration
(D) Centre and State Governments
Ans : (B)

48. Largest Mica deposits are in—
(A) South Africa
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) India
Ans : (D)

49. Lalitpur district in U. P. is known for the—
(A) Uranium deposits
(B) Sugar industry
(C) Polic training academy
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

50. Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English alphabet ‘S’ ?
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Pacific Ocean
Ans : (C)

English Language

Directions—(Q. 51–55) In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate words four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate the correct sequence.

51. Tourists always enjoyed .................... the setting sun in the Darjeeling hills.
(A) to watch
(B) watching
(C) in seeing
(D) seeing
Ans : (B)

52. The speaker did not properly space out his speech, but went on .......... one point only.
(A) stressing
(B) avoiding
(C) devoting
(D) decrying
Ans : (A)

53. A ............... of Japanese artists stepped off the coach amidst a warm welcome.
(A) troop
(B) troupe
(C) band
(D) gang
Ans : (B)


54. Today students should be reconciled .............. the way things are changing.
(A) with
(B) to
(C) for
(D) at
Ans : (A)

55. Ramappa ........... as the Mayor of the town and he will assume charge this Friday.
(A) elects
(B) elected
(C) is elected
(D) is electing
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 56—60) In these questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, indicate corresponding to (D).

56. He ate (A) / nothing (B) / since yesterday. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

57. An experimental vaccine (A) / has brought (B) / glimmer of hope for malarial researcher. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

58. After making me wait for two agonising hours (A) / the great man called me in (B) / and asked me what do I want. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

59. The ebb and flow of the tides (A) / are (B) / now understood. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

60. The green paint on the wall (A) / provides a suitable contrast (B) / with the yellow doors. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Group of four words are given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word.
61. (A) Submitted
(B) Admitted
(C) Comitted
(D) Omitted
Ans : (C)

62. (A) Brillient
(B) Valiant
(C) Salient
(D) Radiant
Ans : (A)

63. (A) Recuperate
(B) Regulate
(C) Reinstate
(D) Seperate
Ans : (D)

64. (A) Cease
(B) Seize
(C) Beseige
(D) Beseech
Ans : (C)

65. (A) Carrier
(B) Carreer
(C) Courier
(D) Barrier
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 66–70) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and indicate the answer.

66. Censure
(A) Criticise
(B) Appreciate
(C) Blame
(D) Abuse
Ans : (A)

67. Diligent
(A) Industrious
(B) Indifferent
(C) Intelligent
(D) Energetic
Ans : (A)

68. Contemplation
(A) Consideration
(B) Meditation
(C) Deliberation
(D) Speculation
Ans : (B)

69. Adulation
(A) Duration
(B) Argument
(C) Flattery
(D) Institution
Ans : (C)

70. Quiver
(A) Quarrel
(B) Quicken
(C) Waver
(D) Tremble
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 71–75) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and choose the correct alternative.

71. ANIMOSITY
(A) Love
(B) Lust
(C) Luck
(D) Loss
Ans : (A)

72. ALTERCATION
(A) Explanation
(B) Challenge
(C) Compromise
(D) Opposition
Ans : (C)

73. COAX
(A) Dull
(B) Dissuade
(C) Active
(D) Speed
Ans : (B)

74. ERUDITE
(A) Educated
(B) Unscholarly
(C) Scholarly
(D) Possessive
Ans : (B)

75. AFFLUENT
(A) High
(B) Poor
(C) Rare
(D) Fluent
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 76–80) In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate the correct answer.

76. A few days before his death, he made a clean breast of everything.
(A) Confessed
(B) Took off his shirt
(C) Suffered
(D) Spoke ill
Ans : (A)

77. I am done for.
(A) Ruined
(B) Rewarded
(C) Answered
(D) Questioned
Ans : (A)

78. For a healthy and lasting friendship one must be on the level.
(A) Equally rich
(B) Mentally compatible
(C) Honest and sincere
(D) Ready for sacrifices
Ans : (A)

79. The foolish young man soon made ducks and drakes of the vast property his father left him.
(A) Squandered
(B) Distributed
(C) Spent
(D) Gave in charity
Ans : (A)

80. All his ventures went to the winds.
(A) Dissipated
(B) Spread all over
(C) Got speed of the winds
(D) Became well-known
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 81–90) In these questions, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Indicate your correct answer—

Passage
Happy is the man who …(81)… the habit of reading when he is young. He has secured a lifelong source of …(82)…, instruction and inspiration. So long as he has his beloved books he need …(83)… feel lonely. He always has a pleasant …(84)… of leisure moments. He is the …(85)… of wealth more precious than gold. …(86)… indeed is the man who does not read and …(87)… is his life. …(88)… gives the highest kind of pleasure. When we are …(89)… it is a healthy recreation to lose …(90)… in the company of books.

81. (A) owns
(B) buys
(C) acquires
(D) takes
Ans : (C)

82. (A) pleasure
(B) satisfaction
(C) sadness
(D) dejection
Ans : (A)

83. (A) always
(B) ever
(C) sometimes
(D) never
Ans : (D)

84. (A) source
(B) occupation
(C) possession
(D) relief
Ans : (A)

85. (A) possessor
(B) loser
(C) master
(D) heir
Ans : (A)

86. (A) rich
(B) lucky
(C) poor
(D) bad
Ans : (C)

87. (A) full
(B) vacuum
(C) empty
(D) deep
Ans : (C)

88. (A) writing
(B) speaking
(C) listening
(D) reading
Ans : (D)

89. (A) weak
(B) fresh
(C) sick
(D) tired
Ans : (C)

90. (A) himself
(B) ourselves
(C) yourselves
(D) themselves
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 91–95) In these questions, you have one brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer-each question out of the four alternatives and indicate the correct answer.

Passage
The public sector banks are witnessing in India a period of transition and are at crossroads, where they without giving up social responsibility, should also remain healthy. They need to undertake risky experiments. yet perform it innovatively in a way it does not fail. They should make forays into new areas which are rarely tread by them and lose no emerging opportunities. It should be understood that absence of any bad advance is no sign of efficient banking system. It only indicates immense. conservatism. However this is no guarantee for profit. There should be a balance between liquidity and risk. Past sins should be forgotten. Novel and pragmatic techniques should be adopted without which banks would be in danger.

91. What according to the author, are the public sector banks witnessing ?
(A) A period of profit
(B) A period of change
(C) A period of certainty
(D) A loss-making period
Ans : (B)

92. In addition to being socially responsible, what does the author want the banks to be ?
(A) Customer-friendly
(B) Able to attract foreign investors
(C) Financially healthy
(D) Senseless risk-takers
Ans : (C)

93. How can the banks take risks without risking a failure ?
(A) By being innovative
(B) By soliciting the help of the government
(C) By being financially healthy
(D) By being conservative
Ans : (A)

94. What does the absence of any bad advance indicate ?
(A) A penchant for risks
(B) Immense conservatism
(C) Financial independence
(D) A deep-seated social commitment
Ans : (D)

95. What would happen if novel and pragmatic techniques are ignored ?
(A) Will put the banks in danger
(B) Will undermine the banks’ social commitment
(C) Will reveal the untapped talent
(D) Will result in inefficient portfolio management
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 96–100) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate the appropriate answer.

96. Simple, fast-spreading plant without flowers or leaves, which can often cause disease—
(A) Bacteria
(B) Amoeba
(C) Virus
(D) Fungus
Ans : (A)

97. One who is greedy—
(A) Voracious
(B) Avaricious
(C) Carnivorous
(D) Omnivorous
Ans : (B)

98. An area of land that is controlled by a ruler—
(A) Colony
(B) Dominion
(C) County
(D) Municipality
Ans : (B)

99. A place where Jews worship according to their religion—
(A) Cathedral
(B) Synagogue
(C) Chapel
(D) Demagogue
Ans : (B)

100. One who is indifferent to pleasure and pain—
(A) Ascetic
(B) Esoteric
(C) Stoic
(D) Sceptical
Ans : (C)

REASONING

Directions—(Q. 1–5) Select the related letter/word/number/figure from the given alternatives.

1. Book : Publisher :: Film : ?
(A) Writer
(B) Editor
(C) Director
(D) Producer
Ans : (D)

2. Menu : Food :: Catalogue : ?
(A) Books
(B) Library
(C) Newspaper
(D) Rack
Ans : (A)

3. FILM : ADGH :: MILK : ?
(A) ADGF
(B) HDGE
(C) HDGF
(D) HEGF
Ans : (C)


4. BJNT : CIOS :: DHPV : ?
(A) EGQU
(B) EIQW
(C) ELPV
(D) EIOU
Ans : (A)

5. KIJM : QOPS :: MKLO : ?
(A) LMOR
(B) OMNS
(C) KMOQ
(D) OMNQ
Ans : (D)

6. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded ?
(A) 5279431
(B) 5978213
(C) 8251896
(D) 8543691
Ans : (C)

7. If in a code language PRINCIPAL is written as MBOQSOMVW and TEACHER is written as FDVSZDB, how is CAPITAL written in that code ?
(A) SVMOFVW
(B) SVMODVW
(C) BVMODVW
(D) SVMIDVW
Ans : (A)

8. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?
Statement : If more encouragement is given to Sports, Indians will win more gold medals at the Olympic Games.
Assumptions : I. Indians do not win gold medals.
II. More encouragement in Sports leads to better performance.
(A) Only I is valid
(B) Only II is valid
(C) Both assumptions are valid
(D) Both assumptions are invalid
Ans : (B)

9. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which one of the given conclusions is definitely drawn from the given statements.
Statement : All virtuous persons are happy.
No unhappy person is virtuous.
Conclusions : I. Happiness is related to virtue
II. Unhappy person is not virtuous.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Both I and II follow
Ans : (D)

10. Rahim travelled straight from point E to F at a distance of 5 km. From F he turned left and travelled 6 km and reached point G, there he took a left turn and travelled 5 km to reach point H. He took another left turn and travelled 2 km and reached point I. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 7 km
Ans : (B)

11. A man is facing East, then the turns left and goes 10 m, then turns right and goes 5 m, then goes 5 m to the South and from there 5 m to West. In which direction is he, from his original place ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 12–17) Find the odd word/letters/number/figure from the given responses.

12. (A) Newspaper
(B) Press
(C) Edition
(D) Audition
Ans : (D)

13. (A) Microbe
(B) Microfilm
(C) Microphone
(D) Microscope
Ans : (A)

14. (A) PRSQ
(B) UWXV
(C) LONM
(D) CEFD
Ans : (C)

15. (A) YXVU
(B) ORQP
(C) KJHG
(D) MLJI
Ans : (B)

16. (A) 43
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
Ans : (C)

17. (A) 21, 42
(B) 24, 48
(C) 37, 74
(D) 35, 28
Ans : (D)

18. In a coding system PEN is written as NZO and BARK as CTSL. How can we write PRANK in that coding system ?
(A) NZTOL
(B) CSTZN
(C) NSTOL
(D) NTSLO
Ans : (C)

19. If BROTHER is coded as 2456784 SISTER is coded as 919684, What is the code for ROBBERS … ? …
(A) 18, 15, 22, 5, 18, 19
(B) 4562, 684
(C) 9245, 784
(D) 4522849
Ans : (D)

20. A word given in Capital Letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one can be formed by using the letters of the given words. Find out that word—
ENVIRONMENT
(A) EMINENT
(B) ENTRANCE
(C) ENTERTAIN
(D) MOVEMENT
Ans : (A)

21. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters—
ARCHITECTURE
(A) LECTURE
(B) UREA
(C) CHILDREN
(D) TENT
Ans : (B)

22. A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word—
REVOLUTIONARY
(A) REVOLT
(B) TRAIL
(C) VOCATION
(D) VOLUNTARY
Ans : (C)

23. Giridharlal’s family consists of his wife Radha. 3 sons and 2 daughters. One daughter is yet to be married and the other daughter has a son. Two sons have 2 children each and the third son has 3 children. An old aunt and sonin-law also stay with them. How many members are there in Giridharlal’s family ?
(A) 20
(B) 19
(C) 18
(D) 17
Ans : (A)

24. A family went out for a walk. Daughter walked before the father. Son was walking behind the mother and ahead of father. Who walked last ?
(A) Son
(B) Father
(C) Mother
(D) Daughter
Ans : (B)

25. Seema is the daughter-in-law of Sudhir and sister-in-law of Ramesh. Mohan is the son of Sudhir and only brother of Ramesh. Find the relation between Seema and Mohan—
(A) Sister-in-law
(B) Aunt
(C) Cousin
(D) Wife
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–32) Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives—

26. Orange : Peel : : Nut : … ? …
(A) Pulp
(B) Shell
(C) Kernel
(D) Rind
Ans : (B)

27. Foundation : Edifice : : Constitution : … ? …
(A) Government
(B) State
(C) Nation
(D) Cabinet
Ans : (A)

28. Plat : Botany : : Man : … ? …
(A) Ecology
(B) Psychology
(C) Anthropology
(D) Sociology
Ans : (C)

29. GIKM : TRPN : : JLNP : … ? …
(A) QOMN
(B) WUSQ
(C) PRTV
(D) TVXZ
Ans : (B)

30. ACAZX : DFDWU : : GIGTR : … ? …
(A) JKJQO
(B) JLJQO
(C) JKJOQ
(D) JLJOP
Ans : (B)

31. 63 : 80 : : 120 : … ? …
(A) 125
(B) 143
(C) 170
(D) 180
Ans : (B)

32. 7 : 49 : 56 : : 14 : 196 : 210 : : … ? …
(A) 9 : 81 : 91
(B) 12 : 140 : 156
(C) 21 : 441 : 462
(D) 21 : 440 : 461
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 33–39) Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives—

33. (A) Square
(B) Circle
(C) Rectangle
(D) Triangle
Ans : (B)

34. (A) Temple
(B) Mosque
(C) Theatre
(D) Church
Ans : (C)

35. (A) Sweet
(B) Bitter
(C) Salty
(D) Tasteless
Ans : (D)

36. (A) ZMYL
(B) VIUH
(C) REQD
(D) ANBO
Ans : (D)

37. (A) LJNP
(B) ECGI
(C) CAFG
(D) SQUW
Ans : (C)

38. (A) 16—64
(B) 17—68
(C) 20—100
(D) 21—84
Ans : (C)

39. (A) 63
(B) 126
(C) 215
(D) 342
Ans : (B)

40. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following—
1. Seed 2. Flower
3. Soil 4. Plant
5. Fruit
(A) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(B) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(C) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
(D) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
Ans : (D)

41. Arrange the following words according to the dictionary—
1. Scenery 2. Science
3. Scandal 4. School
5. Scatter
(A) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(B) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
(C) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
Ans : (A)

42. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions are implicit in the given statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?
Statement : All children like icecream and some children like chocolates.
Assumptions : I. Children who like chocolates also like icecream.
II. Pinky does not like
chocolates but she likes ice-cream.
(A) Only assumption I is implicit
(B) Only assumption II is implicit
(C) Both assumptions I and II are is implicit
(D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 43–44) If you start running from a point towards. North and after covering 4 km you turn to your left and run 5 km, and then again turn to your left and run 5 km, and then turn to your left again and run another 6 km, and before finishing you take another left turn and run I km, then answer questions 43 and 44 based on this information—

43. How many km are you from the place you started ?
(A) 1 km
(B) 2 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 4 km
Ans : (A)

44. In which direction will you be moving while finishing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (C)

45. In a certain code the following numbers are coded in a certain way by assigning sings—
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
∠∠⊄+⊇∨÷.-
Which number can be decoded from the following ?
∨∠-⊄⊇
(A) 62953
(B) 62935
(C) 62593
(D) 62539
Ans : (B)

46. If UNITY is written as FMRGB in a certain code, how would TRANQUIL be written using the same code ?
(A) GIZMJFRO
(B) TZMFJROM
(C) MJROIZBS
(D) GMPFZROI
Ans : (A)

47. A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word—
EXEMPLIFICATION
(A) FIXATION
(B) EXAMPLE
(C) AXE
(D) EXTRA
Ans : (D)

48. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters—
COMMISSION
(A) OSMOSIS
(B) CONICS
(C) MOAN
(D) COMMON
Ans : (D)

49. In a cricket match, five batsman, A, B, C, D and E scored an average of 36 runs. D scored five more than E; E scored 8 fewer than A; B scored as many as D and E combined; and B and C scored 107 between them. How many runs did E score ?
(A) 62
(B) 45
(C) 28
(D) 20
Ans : (D)

50. The average age of 50 students of a class is 16 years. When 10 new students are admitted, then the average age increased by 0.5 years. The average age of the new students is—
(A) 17 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 19 years
(D) 20 years
Ans : (C)

SSC CPO SPL. EXAM RESULT NOTICE CUTOFF MARKS

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
Declaration of result of Written Examination of Sub Inspector in CPOs, Examination, 2010 – for
calling the candidates for PET/ Medical Examination.
The Staff Selection Commission had conducted the Sub-Inspectors in Central Police Organizations
(CPOs) Special Examination, 2010 on 12.12.2010 on all India basis.
2. Following is the list of 34763 candidates who have, on the basis of their performance in Paper-I of
the examination, qualified provisionally for Physical Efficiency (Endurance) Test(PET) and Medical
Examination for the post of Sub-Inspectors in the CPOs, subject to their fulfilling all the conditions of
eligibility. The details of the candidates are as follows :-
Male
Category SC ST OBC ExS UR TOTAL
Cut-off
marks
45.50 56.75 56.75 - 71.50
Candidates
available
7678 4219 13485 158 # 7734 33274
# EXS Qualified at UR standard. Female
Category SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL
Cut-off
marks
55.75 63.00 63.75 - 78.35
Candidates
available
223 103 611 1 # 367 1305
# EXS Qualified at UR standard.
3. In respect of 1953 candidates for whom SEX code is not available, the cut off fixed for female
candidates which is higher than cut-off for male candidates, has been applied to shortlist the candidates. The
category wise number of candidates available is given below. The actual sex code for these candidates shall
be verified and accordingly the candidates shall be called for PET examination as male or female candidate.
Category SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL
Cut-off
marks
55.75 63.00 63.75 - 78.35
Candidates
available
10 07 17 - 92 126
4. On the remaining 1827 (1953-126) candidates, the cut off fixed for male candidates is applied to
shortlist candidates. The category wise number of available candidates is given below. Out of these 58
candidates only male candidates will be called for PET .
Category SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL
Cut-off
marks
45.50 56.75 56.75 - 71.50
Candidates
available
14 02 09 - 33 58
-2-
5. Hence, the total number of candidates qualified to be called for PET/MET is
(33274+1305+126)=34705 + additional male candidates out of 58 as explained in para 4 above.
For detailed information regarding eligibility conditions including the physical measurement, etc., candidates
are advised to refer to the Notice of the Examination.
6. Paper-II will be evaluated only of those candidates who qualify in Physical Efficiency Test (PET) &
medical examination and candidate qualifying in Paper-II of the written examination will be called for
Personality Test (Interview) in due course.
7. The list herein is PROVISIONAL. The candidates whose roll numbers figure in the list would be
called for Physical Efficiency (Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Examination subject to their fulfilling all
the eligibility conditions/ requirements as prescribed for the post in the Notice of Examination and also
subject to thorough verifications of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures,
handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. If on verification from the
application form, it is found that any candidate does not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, he/she will
not be eligible to appear for the Eligibility Test, etc.
8. Particulars of the candidates including their category status as indicated in the result have been taken
from their OMR answer scripts of Paper-I. It is important for such candidates for whom certain percentage of
vacancies are reserved as per the policy of the Government, to note that if any of them does not actually
belong to the category shown against his/her roll number, he/she may not be eligible for appearing in the
Eligibility Tests, Physical Efficiency(Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Examination. It is, therefore, in the
interest of such candidates to contact the respective Regional Offices of the Commission immediately in all
such cases where they do not belong to the category shown against their roll numbers in the result.
9. The date of Physical Efficiency (Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Examination will be intimated
to the qualified candidates by the respective Regional Office of the Commission in due course.
10. The list of candidates qualified provisionally is also available on the Commission’s Website :
http://ssc.nic.in and http: sscresults.nic.in.
11. Marks of the non-qualified candidates would be made available on SSC’s website shortly. Marks of
the qualified candidates would be made available only after declaration of the final result.
(R Mohanty)
Under Secretary (C.I)-2
14.01.2011
By Speed Post
No.10/1/2010-C.I
Government of India
Staff Selection Commission
Department of Personnel & Training
Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions
Block No.12, CGO Complex, Lodi Road ,New Delhi-110003.
Dated 14.01.2011
To
All RDs/DDs [BY NAME]
Staff Selection Commission.
New Delhi / Mumbai/ Chennai/ Bangalore/ Allahabad
/ Kolkata/ Guwahati/ Chandigarh/ Raipur.
Subject:- Recruitment of S.I. in CPOs Special Examination, 2010 – List of candidates qualified for
appearing in the Eligibility Tests, Physical Efficiency(Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical
Examination.
Madam / Sir,
I am directed to forward herewith for further necessary action, a copy of the list along with a
computer CD, in roll number order of 34763 candidates, who have qualified provisionally and
subject to their fulfilling all eligibility conditions, for appearing in the Eligibility Tests, Physical
Efficiency(Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Examination for the post of Sub- Inspectors in Central
Police Organisation (CPOs) on the basis of their performance in Paper-I (OMR) of the above said
examination. Details of the candidates are as follows :-
Male
Category SC ST OBC ExS UR TOTAL
Cut-off
marks
45.50 56.75 56.75 - 71.50
Candidates
available
7678 4219 13485 158 # 7734 33274
# EXS Qualified at UR standard. Female
Category SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL
Cut-off
marks
55.75 63.00 63.75 - 78.35
Candidates
available
223 103 611 1 # 367 1305
# EXS Qualified at UR standard.
3. In respect of 1953 candidates for whom SEX code is not available, the cut off fixed for female (cut
off for female being higher) candidates has been applied to shortlist the candidates. The category wise
-2-
number of candidates available is given below. The actual sex code for these candidates shall be verified
and accordingly the candidates shall be called for PET examination as male or female candidate.
Category SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL
Cut-off
marks
55.75 63.00 63.75 * 78.35
Candidates
available
10 07 17 - 92 126
4. In respect of the remaining 1827 (1953-126) candidates the cut off fixed for male is applied to
shortlist candidates. The category wise number of available candidates is given below. Out of these 58
candidates only female candidates will be called for PET. The concerned RDs shall ensure after verifying
the fact from application of the candidate that no female candidate from this list should be called for PET.
Category SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL
Cut-off
marks
45.50 56.75 56.75 * 71.50
Candidates
available
14 02 09 - 33 58
5. Hence, the total number of candidates qualified to be called for PET/MET is
(33274+1305+126)=34705 + additional male candidates out of 58 as explained in para 4 above.
One copy of the list may please be displayed, along with a copy of the enclosed Write-up, on the
Notice Board of your office for information of the candidates.
6. The particulars of the candidates including their category status as shown in the list have
been taken from their OMR answer scripts of Paper-I.
7. The list is to be treated as Provisional subject to thorough scrutiny and verification of
eligibility aspects of the candidates in all respects with reference to the Notice of the Examination.
Particulars of the candidates should be verified with reference to the entries made in the application
forms and copies of certificates submitted by them in support of their category status, etc.
Discrepancies, if any found on verification, may please be got clarified from the Headquarters
before calling the candidates concerned for PET, etc. All such discrepancy cases particularly of
category change, should be intimated to the Headquarters giving complete details within 10 days
from the date of issue of this letter. It would also be necessary to verify the identity of the
candidates from the photo bearing portion of their ACs of the written examination.
3/-
-3-
8. The date of Eligibility Tests, Physical Efficiency (Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Examination
will be intimated to the qualified candidates in due course. Detailed schedule for PET, etc., may be
drawn in consultation with RHQ Section of the Headquarters.
Kindly acknowledge receipt of this letter along with its enclosures.
Encls: As above
Yours faithfully,
(R Mohanty)
Under Secretary (C.I)-2
14.01.2011
Copy along with a copy of the result to :-
1. MHA Shri B.K. Sahu, Director (Pers), MHA, 2nd Floor, Gate No.4, Room
No.216-B, North Block, New Delhi-110 001. Tel. No.23092956.
2. BSF Shri Arvind Ranjan, IG(Pers.), Office of the BSF, 5th Floor, Block No.10,
CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110 003.
3. CRPF Shri Umed Singh, DIG (Estt.), Office of the CRPF, 2nd Floor, Block
No.1, CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110 003. Tel.No.011-24362498
4. ITBP Shri Pramod S. Phalnikar, DIG (Pers.-II & Rectt.), Office of the ITBP, 4th Floor,
Block No.2, CGO Complex, New Delhi-110 003.
5. CISF Shri Prashant Kumar, DIG (Pers), Office of the CISF, 4th Floor, Room No.410,
Block No.13, CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110 003.
Tel. No.011-24362555
6. SSB Shri S.K.Bhagat, IG(Pers.), O/o the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), East Block-5, R.K.
Puram, New Delhi-110 066. Tel.No.26188211

LDC AND DEO WRITTEN EXAM RESULT NOTICE CUTOFF MARKS

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
Combined Higher Secondary (10+2), 2010
Declaration of Written Result to call the candidates
for Type Test /Data Entry Skill Test
Staff Selection Commission conducted the Combined Higher Secondary (10+2)
Examination, 2010 on 27&28.11.2010 for recruitment to the post of Data Entry
Operators and Lower Division Clerks at various centres all over the country. A total
of 9,91,514 candidates appeared in the said examination.
2. Following is the list of 17507 candidates in roll number order who have
qualified provisionally in the written part of the examination and are thus eligible to
be called for Type Test /Data Entry Skill Tests subject to their fulfilling all eligibility
conditions and also correctness of the information furnished by them in their
applications.
Category SC    ST    OBC    ExS     PH    HH      VH        UR                 Total
Cut off
Marks
               87.50 80.25 95.25 60.00 76.50 60.00 60.00 106.50 -
Candidates
Available
                2242 1367 8072 1007 625          83  246            3865                17507
3. The above said Lists are purely provisional and subject to the recommended
candidates fulfilling all the eligibility conditions prescribed for the respective post in
the Notice of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity
with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application
forms, admission certificates, etc. The candidature of the candidates are liable to be
cancelled by respective Regional Directors in case candidates found not fulfilling the
eligibility conditions or any other genuine reasons.
4. For candidates belonging to reserved categories for whom certain percentage of
vacancies are reserved as per Government Policy, the category status is indicated
against their Roll Numbers. It is important to note that some of these candidates
have been declared qualified only for the category mentioned against their Roll
Numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned
against his/her name, he/she may not be eligible to be included in the list. It is,
therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to immediately contact the
respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not
belong to the category shown against their Roll Numbers.
5. Due to administrative reasons the Commission has decided to hold reexamination
at some venues at Ranchi, Nasik and Bhubaneshwar on 30.1.2011.
Result of these candidates appeared in the re-scheduled examination will be released
subsequently.
6. Schedule for holding the Type Test/ Data Entry Skill Test on computers will be
available on Commission’s website shortly. In this connection the following points are
brought to the notice of the candidates.
Skill Test for Data Entry Operators:
a) The Skill Test will be taken on computers.
b) The ‘Data Entry Speed’ Skill Test would be qualifying in nature. Candidates
allowed to take this test, will have to qualify the test at the prescribed speed on
computer, to be provided by the Commission or the agency authorized by the
Commission to conduct such skill test at the centre /venue so notified.
c) None of the candidates including PH candidates who qualify in the written part
of the examination will be exempted from the skill test as passing of the skill test is
pre-condition and one of the essential qualifications for appointment to the post of
Data Entry Operator.
d) Only such candidates who qualify in the skill test at a speed of not less than
8,000 key depressions per hour will be eligible for being recommended for
appointment as per their position in the merit list.
e) The duration of the said skill test will be 15 (fifteen) minutes and printed
matter in English containing about 2,000 key depressions would be given to each
candidate who would enter the same in the computer.
Skill Test for LDC:
a) The skill test will be taken on computers.
b) Typing test will be qualifying in nature and will be conducted only in English or
in Hindi.
English Typing @ 35 w.p.m. (Time allowed 10 minutes) (30 minutes for VH candidate)
Hindi Typing @ 30 w.p.m. (Time allowed 10 minutes) (30 minutes for VH candidates).
(35 w.p.m. and 30 w.p.m. corresponds to 10500 Key Depressions Per Hour/9000 Key
Depressions Per Hour on an average of 5 Key Depressions for each word)
7. Result of this examination is available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in and
http://sscresults.nic.in. Detailed instructions on Skill Tests are also available on the
Commission’s website.

RESULTS INFORMATION

SSC CPO SPL EXAM AND CHSL LDC AND DEO EXAM RESULT NOW ON SSC WEBSITE PLEASE GO THROUGH THIS LINK AND CLICK RESULT TAB FOR RESULT www.ssc.nic.in/SSC.html

SSC STENO RE-EXAM FULLY SOLVED ANSWER KEY ALL PARTS

 SSC STENOGRAPHER GRADE C AND D RE-EXAM 9-1-11
1. FATGUE
2. SUMMARISE
3. BIQU
4. ZWTQ
5. 125/197
6. 222
7. 183
8. Q17 T 20
9. BROTHER-SISTER
10. BADMINTON
11. AU
12. ANHU
13. EIMPSW
14. 8
15. 824- 14
16. 7, 13, 3
17. 4,3,2,5,1
18. 5,1,3,2,4
19. acbcb
20 FC
21. ECDAB
22. 91
23. 200
24. 17
25. 27
26. 40
27. THURSDAY
28. 32 YEARS
29. MOTHER
30. 61
31. NORTH-WEST
32. 2 KM
33. BOTH I AND II FOLLOW TENSION IS
34. ONLY II FOLLOWS
35. A
36. 60
37. NATURAL
38. REOWLF
39. 8237693
40. YMOYSL
41. 846
42. 214
43. 4
44. 8
45. 8100
46. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING - A
47. AMONG THE FOUR ANSWER - A
48. IF A MIRROR - B
49. 27
50. FROM THE GIVEN - B



51. tughluq dynasty
52. lord canning
53.firoz tughluq
54. perian
55. occupation
56. lord warren hasting
57. wage< marginal revenue product
58. 1966-69
59. unchanged income distribution overall
60.regressive
61cheque
62. explicit costs
63. china
64. earthquake
65 nilgiris biosphere reserve
66. konkan coastal plain
67. tamil
68. hawai
69 electorate for the panchayat
70 legal justice
71. lok sabha
72. indicate as many preferences as there are candidates to be elected
73. interval between question hour and next agenda
74. 1954
75. balck and rough
76. melting point
77. electron
78. near the neck
79. lysosome
80 bone
81 sex chromosomes
82. rennin
83 copper at cathode and anodes dissolve to give copper
84. argon
85. suplphur dioxide gas
86. Cl2o
87. eniac
88. desk top publishing
89. andhra pradesh
90. doyen of hindustani vocal music
91.one thousandth of the solar mass
92. vijay kelkar
93.tamil nadu
94.10 BILLION
95 818
96 15
97. tokyo
98. yogeshwar dutt
99. usa
100. anita desai

101. serveral guests noticed Mr. sharma / collapsing in his chair/ and gasping for breath/ no error

answer b
102. This is our second reminder/ and we are much surprised/ at receiving no answer from you/ no error
answer d

103. you should/ be always greatful/ to your mentor. / no error
answer b

104. the furnitures/ had become old and rusty./ no error
answer a

105. most people/ are afraid of/ swine flu these days. / no error
answer d

106 I may not be able / to attend/ to the function. / no error
answer c

107 he is / residing here / since 1983/ no error
answer a

108 at his return/ we asked him/ many questions/ no error
answer a

109 the chief guest entered into/ the room./ no error
answer d

110. she is/ very angry /on him /no error
answer c


fill in the blanks

111. we shall go for a picnic if the weather..is....... good
a is b was c has been d had been

112. mr and mrs joshi go for a ...brisk.. walk just before dinner.

a vibrant b brisk c vivacious d slow

113 ......excessive...... weight gain or weight loss is not good for your body
a explosive b expressive c extensive d excessive

114 john must have the .determination..... to stick to his diet, if he wants to lose weight.
a obstinacy b determination c decision d obligation

115 there was an ...overwhelming....... response for the marathon.
a overwhelming
b overriding
c excessive
d extreme

116 some animals have unique...characteristics...... that allow them to survive in extreme weather conditions.
a characteristics b problems c feelings d conditions

117 did the boys turn..up.. for football practice?
a up b on c back d in

118 the fireman managed to put..down.. the fire.
a away b down c out d off

119 the pupil was asked to write down...... his name on the front page of the exercise book
a back b in c down d about

120 the teacher found many mistakes in my composition, when she went..through.. it
a into b about c for d though

121 to 125 choose the correct alternative in case no improvement is needed your answer is d

121 the advancements in medical science has proved to be a boon  for all of us.
a has proven
b had proven
c have proved
d no improvement
answer c


122. educational facilities in under developed nations are often limiting.
limited
limitless
delimiting
no improvement
answer a

123 docors are known for their illegible handwriting
ineligible
eligible
incorrigible
no improvement
answer d

124 he cited a number of reasons for his absence
a sited b recited c sighted d no improvement
answer d

125 he received many praised for his latest invention
great may praises
much praise
too much praises
no improvement
answer c
idiom/ phrase

126 yesterday in a collision between a truck and a car he had a close shave.
a maintain cleanliness
b remove the entire hair
c a narrow escape
d close relations
answerc

127 the piece of parental property has created bad blood between the two brothers
a impure relation
b ill matched temper
c active enmity
d bad parentage
answer c

128 since you couldb't accept a timely warning, it's no use repenting now. why cry over spilt milk
cry over irreparable loss
to regret uselessly
cry needlessly
feel guilty of
answer a

129 after fifteen years of marriage she did not expect her husband to leave her in the lurch
listen to her
provoke her
ignore her
desert her
answer d

130 who are we to sit in judgement over their choices
a lecture
b criticize
c speak
d communicate
answer b

131 the teacher took me to task for not completing my homework
a gave me additional homework
punished me
took me to the principlal
redcuced my homework
answer b

132 do not lose your head when faced with a difficult situation
a forget anything
b neglect anything
c panic
d get jealous
answer c

133 when i entered the hosue everything was at sixes and sevens
a quarrel among six or seven people
to have six or seven visitors at a time
in disorder or confusion
an unpleasant argument
answer c

134 he was pulled up by the director of the company
assaulted
dragged
reprimanded
cleared

answer b

135 the storm broguht about great destruction in the valley
invited
caused
succeeded
halted

answer b


opposite meaning
136 stationary- standing speedy moving fast
137 fictitious- real ambitious unbelievable imaginary
138 acquitted- jailed exonerated convicted accused
139 exhaustive- interesting short incomplete complete
140 sacrifice - assimilate abandon acquire absorb
141 thoroughly- superficially carefully freely callously
142 gradual - unscrupulous dynamic rapid enthuiastic
143 retain- remember release unfurl engage
144 enmity- rivalry amicability animosity proximity
145 diligent- incompletent lazy entravagant frugal


choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word

146 imaginary- fabulous ficititious factitious fallacious
147 tranquil- tremendous dynamic treacherous peaceful
148 sordid sore unpleasant splendid dissatisfied
149 nefarious- docile natural neurotic wicked
150 mellow- melodious dramatic genial fruity
151 boisterous- boyish huge sound noisy
152 shines glows dazzles blazes glitters
153 circuitous- short roundabout circular different
154 insensitive- repulsive revolting cunning callous
155- dearth- scarcity familiarity closeness relation

156 to 160 PQRS

156. 1. once there was a king
p. on the next day a group of merchants passed on that way
q. the people in his kingdom were very lazy
r the king wanted to teach them a lesson
s one night he had arranged a big stone in the middle of the road
6. they didn't move the stone, but passed round it

sqrp   roqs   qrsp qsrp
answerc
157 d
158 c
159
160
161. biscuit
162. interrupt
163. accessibility
164. suggestion
165 cabbage
166. vacilate
167. skilfull
168. antepathy
169. againest
170. literecy

171 to 175 active passive

171. india is evolving a new plan to control here population
a a new plan is evolved by india to control here population
b a new plan has been evolved by india to control her population
c a new plan was being evolved to control her population by india
d a new plan is being evolved by india to control her population
answer d
172. we found the lock broken last night

a. the lock was found by us breaking last night
the lock was found by us broken last night
c the lock was broken by us last night
d the broken lock we found last night
answer b
173. they should shoot the traitor dead.
a the traitor should be shot at by them
b the traitor should be shot them
c the traitor should be shot dead by them.
d the traitor is shot by them
ans c
174. who inaugurated the fair?
the fair was inaugurated by whom
the fair is inaugurated by who
by whom was the fair inaugurated
by who was the fair inaugurated
ans c
175 close the doors
a let the doors are closed
the doors are to be closed
c let the doors be closed
d allwow the doors to close
ans c

176 opinionated
177 phobia
178 fanatical
179 ceasefire
180 ridicule
in the following passage some of the words have been left out. first read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. then fill  in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given

India and 25 other countries agreed to the copenhagen accord  even as other developing countries accepted it as an irreversible decision later. the accord come out of ......181 bargaining lasting almost 20 hours among......182 of governments of some of the most.....183 countries of the world. at the ....184 of the day on saturday, india.....185 to have given ground on some ......186 but blocked intrusion on other red lines. It had become.....187 within the first week of the .....188 that the best even the four emerging and.....189 economies of the developing world were going to do was to defend the......190 economic resource sharing regimes.

181 difficult  hard  easy  early    answer b
182 rulers kings heads chiefs      answer d
183 influential   corrupted useless beautiful    ans a
184 middle evening night end                   ans d
185 proved appeared viewed cleared      ansb
186 materials thougts issues discussions       ans b
187 evident ambiguous vague indecisive       ans a
188 accord talks issues thoughts                 ans a
189 economic political powerful praiseworthy        ans c
190 expected existing resultant consequential      ans d

                      passage
the stone age was a period of history which began in approximately 2 million bc and lasted until 3000 bc its name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that modern scientist discovered. this period was divided into the paleolithic, mesolithic, and neolithic ages. during the first period 2 million to 8000 bc the fist hatched and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed. as a result of the ice age, which evolved about 1 million years in the paleolithic age, people were forced to seek shelther in caves, wear clothing and develop new tools.

    During the mesolithic age 8000 to 6000 bc people made crude pottery and the first fish hooks, took dogs for hunting, and developed a bow and arrowk, which was used until the fourteenth century ad.
       The nbeolithic age 6000 to 3000 bc saw human kind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in the previous ages, establishing permanent settements and creating goverments.

191 the stone age was divided into ------------ periods
five four three six
answerc
192 what developed first in the paleolithic period
the bow and arrow
pottery
the fist hatched
the fish hook
ans c
193 which period lasted longest
paleolithic
ice age
mesolithic
neolithic
ans a
194 for how many years did mesolithic age exist
2000 3000 4000 5000
ans a
195 when did people create governments
8000 - 6000 bc
2 million to 8000 bc
6000 to 3000 bc
2 million to 1 million bc

ans c

196 what did the  speaker and mr. albert
answer b
197. why did the speaker not
answer d
198. mr. albert west was
ans b
199. why did
ans d
200. why was
ans a