Sunday, October 31, 2010

LOWER DIVISION CLERK AND DATA ENTRY OPERATOR SS

C1. ‘Food For Oil’ programme running in which of the following countries was in news recently ?
(A) Kuwait
(B) Iran
(C) Iraq
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these
2. The ‘Supreme Court of India’ recently declared which of the following proclamations unconstitutional ?
(A) Formation of an enquiry commission to probe Volcker Reports
(B) Dissolution of Bihar Assembly
(C) Setting up another commission in place of Phukan Commission
(D) Setting up a commission headed by an eminent diplomat to investigate recent Bomb Blast in Delhi instead of allowing CBI to do the same
(E) None of these
3. Which of the following is true about the recent discussion on the tariff reduction formulae proposed at the WTO ?
(A) India accepted the formulae presented by South Africa as it more or less matches with the formulae presented by it. South Africa was given the responsibility to find an amicably acceptable solution to the same
(B) India along with several others presented a formulae which was accepted by the USA but the EU refused to accept it
(C) USA, Australia and EU presented a formulae which is not acceptable to India
(D) India wishes to resign from the membership of the WTO as it is not ready sacrifice the interests of the agriculturists of India
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following European Countries was recently in news as violent riots broke out there ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) Spain
(D) France
(E) None of these
5. Sunil Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Year’ by which of the following news paper/magazines ?
(A) Businessworld
(B) Business India
(C) Economic Times
(D) Business Standard
(E) None of these
6. Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann won the ‘Nobel Prize-2005’ for their contribution in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Economics
(C) Chemistry
(D) Literature
(E) None of these
7. India, recently decided to conduct a joint air exercise with which of the following countries ?
(The exercise was in news recently as a group of people was not in favour of such joint ventures)
(A) Britain
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) France
(E) USA
8. India wants that the UN Security Council must have at least—
(A) 5 permanent members including India and China
(B) 7 permanent members including India and China
(C) 9 permanent members including India and China
(D) 11 permanent members including India and Pakistan
(E) 15 permanent members in both permanent and non-permanent category
9. Which of the following states was badly hit by a killer earthquake in October 2005 ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
10. R. K. Surati who won four Gold Medals in a Championship held in Pretoria recently is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Rifle Shooting
(B) Archery
(C) Power lifting
(D) 400 mt. Race
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following companies is not an IT/Software company ?
(A) Infosys
(B) Wipro
(C) NIIT
(D) Rolex
(E) All are IT/Software Companies
12. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
(A) NPA
(B) NAV
(C) Liquidity
(D) NAFTA
(E) IPO
13. Rahul Dravid was appointed the Captain of the Indian Cricket Team for one day series against which of the following ?
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) South Africa
(3) Australia
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) (1), (2) and (3) all
14. ‘Nalchik’ which was recently in news, is a city in—
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) China
(E) Russia
15. Anju Bobby George won Gold Medal in 16th Asian Atheletics Meet held recently. The meet was organized in—
(A) South Korea
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these
16. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the Central Information Commission (CIC) set up recently under the Right to Information Act ?
(A) Sam Pitroda
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) Wajahat Habibullah
(E) None of these
17. The 13th SAARC meet was held in—
(A) Dhaka
(B) Kathmandu
(C) Islamabad
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these
18. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Mathematical Theory of Black Holes’ ? (The author is regarded a great astrophysicists of the modern times)
(A) Dr. C. V. Raman
(B) Dr. J. V. Narlikar
(C) Dr. S. Chandrashekhar
(D) Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
(E) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
19. Asian Junior Table Tennis Championship matches were played recently in—
(A) China
(B) India
(C) South Korea
(D) Singapore
(E) None of these
20. Mr. Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri is the—
(A) External Affairs Minister of Pakistan
(B) External Affairs Minister of Bangladesh
(C) Home Minister of Pakistan
(D) Home Minister of Bangladesh
(E) None of these
21. What is India’s position in terms of the number of Internet users in the world ?
(A) 3rd
(B) 4th
(C) 5th
(D) 10th
(E) None of these
22. Which of the following countries had emerged as World’s largest Cell phone maker ? (As per the figures available upto April 2005)
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) Japan
(D) China
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following schemes is being implemented in rural areas which provides an assured employment of 100 days to a willing youth in India ?
(A) Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)
(B) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
(C) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
(D) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
(E) None of these
24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Doctor Zhivago’ ?
(A) Maxim Gorky
(B) Boris Pasternak
(C) Aldous Huxley
(D) George Eliot
(E) None of these
25. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of ‘Bharat Ratna’ ?
(A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Prof. Amartya Sen
(E) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
26. Justice Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal was the new Chief Justice of—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Mumbai High Court
(C) Delhi High Court
(D) Kolkata High Court
(E) Supreme Court of India
27. Ramon Magsaysay Awards are not given in which of the following categories ?
(A) Government Service
(B) Community Leadership
(C) Journalism
(D) Public Service
(E) Music
28. Harold Pinter, who won the Nobel Prize for Literature, is a citizen of—
(A) China
(B) Britain
(C) USA
(D) Russia
(E) Canada
29. Which of the following countries is not the member of SAARC ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Maldives
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Surinam
(E) All are members
30. Veselin Tapolev who became the World Champion recently, is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Chess
(B) Golf
(C) Snooker
(D) Badminton
(E) None of these
31. Which of the following is not an anti inflationary measure of the Government ?
(A) Strict fiscal discipline
(B) Rationalization of Excise Duties
(C) Strengthening Public Distribution System
(D) Issuing new currency notes/coins
(E) Rationalization of Import Duties
32. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is in—
(A) Vienna
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) Nebraska
(E) None of these
33. ‘Kyat’ is the monetary unit of—
(A) North Korea
(B) Israel
(C) Indonesia
(D) Mongolia
(E) Myanmar
34. Which of the following is the full form of ‘PPP’ ?
(A) Purchase Price and Power
(B) Producer Price and Power
(C) Poverty, Production and Purchases
(D) Purchasing Power Parity
(E) None of these
35. Which of the following universities of North-East states has now the status of a Central University ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Shilong
(C) Guwahati
(D) Mizoram
(E) None of these
36. Who amongst the following is not a member of G-8 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) Japan
(D) France
(E) USA
37. ‘Quartz’, which is used in ornaments or in industries, is a crystal containing—
(A) Silicon Dioxide
(B) Platinum Dioxide
(C) Silver Chloride
(D) Fluoro Carbon
(E) None of these
38. A farmer engaged in Organic Farming will never use which of the following manures ?
(A) Compost
(B) Sewage Sludge
(C) Cow dung
(D) Urea
(E) None of these
39. Which of the following is a Cricket related term ?
(A) Push in
(B) Scissor Kick
(C) Hook
(D) Smash
(E) Dribble
40. Nirmal Verma who died recently was a famous—
(A) Painter
(B) Classical singer
(C) Author
(D) Politician
(E) Social Worker
41. Which of the following is not a Banking/Finance related term ?
(A) Current Account
(B) Pay Order
(C) Par Value
(D) Short Position
(E) Infringement
42. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the area of music ?
(A) Saraswati Samman
(B) Tansen Samman
(C) Vyas Samman
(D) Borlaugh Award
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following is a major jute producing state ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
(E) West Bengal
44. The study of the origin of universe is known as—
(A) Cosmology
(B) Chronology
(C) Geology
(D) Orography
(E) None of these
45. ‘Radcliffe Line’ divides the borders of—
(A) India-China
(B) China-Russia
(C) Russia-Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan-Afghanistan
(E) India-Pakistan
46. Which of the following is the currency of Saudi Arabia ?
(A) Taka
(B) Rial
(C) Baht
(D) Ruble
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following is a book written by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam ?
(A) Wings of Fire
(B) The Transparent Mind
(C) A Brief History of Time
(D) Indian Modernity
(E) None of these
48. The RBI revised the Reverse Repo Rate recently by 25 basis points. The present rate is—
(A) 4%
(B) 4•25%
(C) 5%
(D) 5•25%
(E) 6•00%
49. Which of the following is not a famous ‘Tiger Reserve’ in India ?
(A) Sunderbans
(B) Kaziranga
(C) Sariska
(D) Kanha
(E) None of these
50. ‘Subroto Cup’ is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Cricket
(E) None of these
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (C) Sunil Bharti Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Award’ by the Economic Times news paper in the year 2005.
6. (B)The Nobel Prize winners in Economics in the field of ‘Game Theory Analysis’ in the year 2005 were Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann (Jointly).
7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (E) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (E) 14. (E) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A)18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (E) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A)
38. (D) For Organic Farming, fertilizer’s use is restricted like Urea, DAP, MOP etc. Only organic sources—conventional / FYM, Compost etc. and non-conventional organic sources like sewage, Municipal Waste, Press mud, coir pith etc. are being used.
39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (B) 50. (A)

Saturday, October 30, 2010

SAS SSC FINAL RESULT CUTOFF MARKS

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION Declaration of Final Result of SAS Apprentices in CGDA Examination, 2010 The Staff Selection Commission conducted SAS Apprentices in CGDA Examination, 2010 on 26th & 27th June, 2010. On the basis of candidates' performance in Paper-I, Paper-II, Paper-III and Interview, 408 candidates were finally qualified /selected for appointment in this examination. The category wise break-up of the candidates, selected against the reported vacancies position is given below: Category SC ST OBC OH HH UR TOTAL Vacancies 60 30 110 04 04 208 408 Candidates Recommended 60 30 110 04 04 208 408* * includes SC (4), ST (1), OBC (22), PH (1) and EXS (1).at UR standard. 2. The maximum and minimum marks obtained by the selected candidates of different categories of the aforesaid examination are given below:- Total marks of candidate SC ST OBC OH HH UR First selected 490 468 519 477 464 551 Last selected 426 415 463 450 389 479 3. Some candidates who have obtained the said minimum marks might not have found place in the Select List due to tie cases. In case of tie, due to equal marks in grand total (Paper-I +Paper-II +Paper-III+Interview), the candidates having higher in marks in the written part have been given higher rank. In case, candidates got equal marks in written part, candidates born earlier have been given higher rank. 4. As per user department requests, out of total available 453 vacancies, 10% of posts across all category has been kept reserved for ExS for filling up 45 vacancies earmarked for ExS will be taken in due course. 5. The candidature of the following 09 candidates have been withheld. 2002500140 2201502574 3003002461 3003004434 3007000410 3010001535 3206002760 3206007760 3206011450 6. The above said Lists are purely provisional and subject to the recommended candidates fulfilling all the eligibility conditions prescribed for the respective post in the Notice of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. The candidature of the candidates are liable to be cancelled by respective Regional Directors in case candidates are found not fulfilling the eligibility conditions or any other genuine reasons.
7. For candidates belonging to reserved categories for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per Government Policy, the category status is indicated against their Roll Numbers. It is important to note that some of these candidates have been declared qualified only for the category mentioned against their Roll Numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned against his/her name, or if there is mismatch between roll number and name, he/she may not be eligible to be included in the list. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to immediately contact the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown against their Roll Numbers. 8. This result is also available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. (Satya Prakash) Under Secretary (C.I) 21.10.2010

Friday, October 29, 2010

UPSC CPF ASSISTANT COMMANDANT EXAM 2008 SOLVED PAPER


General Awareness

1. In which one of the following animals is respiration done by skin ?
(A) Flying fish
(B) Sea horse
(C) Frog
(D) Chameleon
Ans : (C)

2. “Foot and Mouth Disease” is found in—
(A) Cats and Dogs
(B) Cattle
(C) Poultry
(D) Humans
Ans : (B)

3. Who of the following recognized that large quantity of energy is released as a result of the fusion of hydrogen nuclei to form deuterium ?
(A) Enrico Fermi
(B) Glenn Seaborg
(C) Hans Bethe
(D) Werner Heisenberg
Ans : (C)

4. Brass is an alloy of which of the following pairs of metals ?
(A) Aluminium and Copper
(B) Chromium and Tin
(C) Copper and Tin
(D) Copper and Zinc
Ans : (D)

5. Which one of the following bacteria helps in improving the soil fertility ?
(A) Clostridium
(B) Rhizobium
(C) Salmonella
(D) Staphylococcus
Ans : (B)

6. Consider the following statements :
1. In a person suffering from myopia, the image of a distant object is formed behind the retina.
2. Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Theory/Law/Principle)
(a) Electromagnetism
(b) Principles of Inheritance
(c) Laws of Inertia
(d) Theory of Natural Selection
List-II (Scientist)
1. Darwin
2. Faraday
3. Mendel
4. Newton
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (B)

8. Which one of the following is a vitamin ?
(A) Citric acid
(B) Folic acid
(C) Glutamic acid
(D) Linoleic acid
Ans : (B)

9. Which one of the following varieties of coal is considered the best quality ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Bituminous
(C) Lignite
(D) Peat
Ans : (A)

10. Who of the following discovered the laws of planetary orbits ?
(A) Galileo Galilei
(B) Nicholas Copernicus
(C) Johannes Kepler
(D) Isaac Newton
Ans : (C)

11. Consider the following statements—
1. The main constituent of LPG is Butane.
2. The main constituent of Biogas is Methane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

12. Through which one among the following materials does sound travel slowest ?
(A) Air
(B) Glass
(C) Water
(D) Wood
Ans : (A)

13. Which one of the following is used in preparing match sticks ?
(A) Chile saltpetre
(B) Indian saltpetre
(C) Red phosphorus
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans : (C)

14. Consider the following pairs :
1. Rewalsar lake—Himachal Pradesh
2. Nakki lake—Madhya Pradesh
3. Renuka lake—Uttarakhand
Which of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

15. Which National Highway connects Chennai and Visakhapatnam ?
(A) NH 4
(B) NH 5
(C) NH 6
(D) NH 8
Ans : (B)

16. Among A, B, C, D and E, E is shorter than D but taller than B who is taller than C. A is taller than E. If all are standing according to their heights and we start counting from the tallest who would be fourth ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) E
(D) Cannot be determined as the data is insufficient.
Ans : (B)

17. A man is facing south. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180° in the clockwise direction. The direction he is facing now is—
(A) North-east
(B) North-west
(C) South-east
(D) South-west
Ans : (D)

18. The average score of three boys in Mathematics is 30. When the score of a fourth boy is added to the total score of the three boys, the average is lowered to 25. What is the score of the fourth boy ?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Ans : (A)

19. Among five friends—
Mangla is taller than Neela but as tall as Pushpa.
Asha is taller than Sapna but not as tall as Neela.
In this group who is the shortest ?
(A) Mangla
(B) Sapna
(C) Pushpa
(D) Asha
Ans : (B)

20. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. The highest income is of—
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Ans : (B)

21. In a class of 60 students, where the girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is—
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 12
(D) 13
Ans : (C)

22. A walks 10 metre in front and 10 metre to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 metre respectively. What is the distance from his initial point ?
(A) 5 metre
(B) 10 metre
(C) 15 metre
(D) 23 metre
Ans : (A)

23. The number of terms between 11 and 200 which are divisible by 7 but not by 3 are—
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 27
(D) 28
Ans : (A)

24. What is the 6th term in the sequence of 2, 3, 6, 11, 18 ?
(A) 25
(B) 27
(C) 29
(D) 31
Ans : (B)

25. Let a number of three digits have for its middle digit the sum of the other two digits. Then it is a multiple of—
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 18
(D) 50
Ans : (A)

26. If X and Y are brothers; Z is sister of X; P is brother of Q; and Q is daughter of Y. Then who is the uncle of P ?
(A) Z
(B) X
(C) Q
(D) Y
Ans : (B)

27. A set of figures carrying certain numbers is given. Assuming that the numbers in each figure follow a similar pattern, the missing number is—

(A) 19
(B) 23
(C) 25
(D) 31
Ans : (D)

28. Some positions of dice are shown below :
What is the number opposite to 4 ?

(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 1
Ans : (D)

29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Scientists)
(a) Birbal Sahni
(b) Ramanujan Srinivasa
(c) Sir C.V. Raman
(d) Sir J.C. Bose
List-II (Well known as)
1. Mathematician
2. Paleobotanist
3. Physicist-Botanist
4. Physicist
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (B)

30. The phenomenon of “total internal reflection” is observed in which one of the following ?
(A) Glowing tube light
(B) Light passing through lens
(C) Sparkling diamond
(D) Twinkling star
Ans : (C)

31. From which year did Saka era begin ?
(A) 78 B.C.
(B) 78 A.D.
(C) 178 A.D.
(D) 278 A.D.
Ans : (B)

32. Among the following elements, which one is not present in a pure sugar ?
(A) Carbon
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Oxygen
Ans : (C)

33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Organisation)
(a) UNESCO
(b) IMF
(c) ILO
(d) UNIDO
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Geneva
2. Paris
3. Vienna
4. Washington , D.C.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)

34. By convention, who of the following is the Chairman of Press Council of India ?
(A) An eminent journalist of India
(B) A senior Civil Services Officer
(C) A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India
(D) The Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting
Ans : (C)

35. Consider the following statements :
1. No money bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of the President of India.
2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance Commission for distribution of taxes between the Union and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

36. Five-Year Plans in India are finally approved by the—
(A) Union Cabinet
(B) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(C) National Development Council
(D) Planning Commission
Ans : (C)

37. In India, the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court lies with—
(A) The President of India
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Union Ministry of Law
(D) The Parliament of India
Ans : (D)

38. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the—
(A) Preamble to the Constitution
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Ninth Schedule
Ans : (B)

39. Consider the following statements :
1. The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission.
2. The Union Finance Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Finance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

40. Consider the following statements :
1. When Vice-President acts as President of India, he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. The President of India can promulgate Ordinances at any time except when both Houses of Parliament are in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

41. The maximum number of members that the Legislative Assembly of a State in India can have is—
(A) 400
(B) 450
(C) 500
(D) 550
Ans : (C)

42. Bank rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India provides loans to—
(A) Public Sector Undertakings
(B) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(C) Private Corporate Sector
(D) Non-Banking Financial Institutions
Ans : (B)

43. Who is empowered by the Constitution of India to dissolve the Lok Sabha before expiry of its terms ?
(A) The Prime Minister of India on the advice of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The President of India
(C) The President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

44. In which year was “Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana” launched ?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Ans : (B)

45. The ‘Uruguay Round’ negotiations resulted in the establishment of—
(A) NATO
(B) OECD
(C) WHO
(D) WTO
Ans : (D)

46. With reference to Union Government, which one of the following does undertake the country-wide Economic Census ?
(A) Department of Expenditure
(B) The National Sample Survey Organization
(C) Planning Commission
(D) The Central Statistical Organization
Ans : (B)

47. Geeta Chandran is well known as a/an—
(A) Bharatnatyam dancer
(B) Classical Carnatic vocalist
(C) Film director
(D) Exponent of Violin
Ans : (A)

48. With reference to Indian Freedom Struggle, consider the following statements :
1. P.C. Ray founded the Bengal Chemical Works.
2. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai set up the Steam Navigation Company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

49. Who of the following was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha ?
(A) G. S. Dhillon
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) Hukam Singh
(D) K. S. Hegde
Ans : (B)

50. Who of the following is associated with Tashkent agreement ?
(A) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Morarji Desai
Ans : (B)

51. Simon Commission was appointed to look into the working of the—
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(B) Government of India Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (C)

52. Which one of the following is a primate ?
(A) Bear
(B) Loris
(C) Pangolin
(D) Otter
Ans : (B)

53. Consider the following :
1. Potato
2. Radish
3. Turnip
4. Yam
In which of the above are roots used as vegetables ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Ans : (B)

54. Which one of the following metals is found in ‘Plaster of Paris’ ?
(A) Calcium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Potassium
(D) Sodium
Ans : (A)

55. Which one of the following is an enzyme ?
(A) Glucagon
(B) Insulin
(C) Somatotropin
(D) Trypsin
Ans : (D)

56. International Date Line passes through which of the following ?
(A) Atlantic ocean
(B) Black sea
(C) Mediterranean sea
(D) Pacific ocean
Ans : (D)

57. The deficiency of which one of the following causes a disease called Pellagra ?
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Folic acid
(C) Nicotinic acid
(D) Pantothenic acid
Ans : (D)

58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Disease)
(a) Filaria
(b) Influenza
(c) Ringworm
(d) Typhoid
List-II (Type of causative organism)
1. Bacteria
2. Fungus
3. Nematode
4. Virus
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)

59. From the evolutionary point of view, which one of the following is closer to man ?
(A) Dolphin
(B) Flying fish
(C) Shark
(D) Tortoise
Ans : (A)

60. Who of the following is known as Lokahitavadi ?
(A) G. H. Deshmukh
(B) G. K. Gokhale
(C) J. G. Phule
(D) M. G. Ranade
Ans : (A)

61. With reference to Indian freedom struggle which one among the following events occurred earliest ?
(A) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(B) Lucknow Pact
(C) Cripps Mission Proposals
(D) August offer
Ans : (B)

62. During India’s freedom struggle, which one of the following led to the first ‘All India Hartal’ ?
(A) Protest against Rowlatt Act
(B) Protest against Jallianwalla Bagh massacre
(C) Trial of Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Arrival of Simon Commission
Ans : (D)

63. The Non-Cooperation movement was called off as a result of agitation at which one of the following places ?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Champaran
(C) Chauri Chaura
(D) Meerut
Ans : (C)

64. Consider the following pairs :
1. Ilbert Bill —Lord Hastings
2. August Offer —Lord Ripon
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (D)

65. Who of the following founded the ‘East India Association’ ?
(A) C.R. Das
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Devendra Nath Tagore
(D) V.D. Savarkar
Ans : (B)

66. Who of the following started the newspaper ‘Bande Mataram’ ?
(A) Barindra Kumar Ghose
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Devendra Nath Tagore
(D) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Ans : (B)

67. Consider the following famous historical persons :
1. Ashvaghosha
2. Bhavabhuti
3. Nagarjuna
4. Nagasena
Who of the above are Buddhist scholars ?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

68. Which one among the following types of forests exhibits highest bio-diversity ?
(A) Dry deciduous forest
(B) Tropical rain forest
(C) Moist deciduous forest
(D) Mangrove forest
Ans : (B)

69. Among the following rivers, which one is the longest ?
(A) Godavari
(B) Krishna
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Narmada
Ans : (A)

70. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank ?
(A) Jakarta
(B) Manila
(C) Singapore
(D) Bangkok
Ans : (B)

71. The National River Conservation Directorate is under—
(A) Ministry of Agriculture
(B) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(D) Ministry of Water Resources
Ans : (B)

72. Consider the following statements :
1. Mikhail Gorbachev was the first President of Russian Federation.
2. Dmitry Medvedev is the fifth President of Russian Federation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

73. Who of the following is the author of the book ‘My Country, My Life’ ?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(C) L.K. Advani
(D) Shashi Tharoor
Ans : (C)

74. Which one of the following beaches is visited by Olive Ridley turtles annually for mass nesting ?
(A) Chandipur
(B) Gahirmatha
(C) Gopalpur
(D) Paradwip
Ans : (B)

75. The administration of the English East India Company in India came to an end in—
(A) 1857
(B) 1858
(C) 1862
(D) 1892
Ans : (B)

76. Who of the following is not a sports-person ?
(A) C. B. Bhave
(B) P. T. Raghunath
(C) Samaresh Jung
(D) Suma Shirur
Ans : (A)

77. The famous name Vikram Pandit is associated with—
(A) Cairn Energy
(B) Citigroup
(C) PepsiCo
(D) Vodafone
Ans : (B)

78. What is H5N1 in the news in recent times ?
(A) A new multi-purpose helicopter of Indian Army
(B) A virus causing Bird Flu
(C) The nearest galaxy to our own Milkyway
(D) A genetically modified rice plant
Ans : (B)

79. The Jarawa tribe lives in which one of the following States/Union Territories ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(D) Lakshadweep Islands
Ans : (C)

80. A very young sportsperson of India, Virdhawal Khade is a—
(A) Boxer
(B) Chess player
(C) Golfer
(D) Swimmer
Ans : (D)

81. Which one among the following is a water soluble vitamin ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin K
Ans : (B)

82. Which one of the following is a pigment ?
(A) Albumin
(B) Elastin
(C) Keratin
(D) Melanin
Ans : (D)

83. On which one of the following dates did Jawaharlal Nehru unfurl the tri-color national flag on the banks of the Ravi as the clock struck the midnight ?
(A) 31st December, 1929
(B) 26th January, 1930
(C) 31st December, 1931
(D) 26th January, 1933
Ans : (A)

84. Tipu Sultan died fighting the English forces under—
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Lord Wellesley
(C) Lord Dalhousie
(D) Lord Hastings
Ans : (B)

85. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between—
(A) Marathas and Portuguese
(B) The English and the French
(C) The English and Portuguese
(D) Marathas and the English
Ans : (B)

86. The author of ‘Nildarpan’ was—
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Sivnath Sastri
(C) Devendra Nath Tagore
(D) Harishchandra Mukherjee
Ans : (A)

87. The firstly weekly Bengali newspaper ‘Samachar Darpan’ was published by—
(A) Harish Chandra Mukherjee
(B) Dinabandhu Mitra
(C) Marshman
(D) Vidyasagar
Ans : (C)

88. Who among the following Peshwas was popularly known as Nana-Saheb ?
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao
(C) Balaji Baji Rao
(D) Madhav Rao I
Ans : (C)

89. Who was responsible for the introduction of the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 ?
(A) Lord Mayo
(B) Lord Lytton
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (B)

90. Alauddin Khalji captured the Delhi throne after securing fabulous wealth from—
(A) Chanderi
(B) Gujarat
(C) Devagiri
(D) Madurai
Ans : (C)

91. Who of the following was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha ?
(A) Bhadrabahu
(B) Chandragupta Maurya
(C) Parsvanatha
(D) Vardhamana Mahavira
Ans : (D)

92. When Babur invaded India who was the ruler of Vijayanagara empire in south India ?
(A) Saluva Narasimha
(B) Devaraya II
(C) Krishna Deva Raya
(D) Sadasiva Raya
Ans : (C)

93. Who of the following was a contemporary of Chingiz Khan ?
(A) Mahmud of Ghazni
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Mohammad bin-Tughlaq
Ans : (B)

94. Dara Shikoh finally lost the war of succession to Aurangzeb in the battle of—
(A) Dharmat
(B) Samugarh
(C) Deorai
(D) Khanua
Ans : (B)

95. Who is the author of the book ‘Glimpses of World History’ ?
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) S. Gopalan
(D) S. Radhakrishnan
Ans : (B)

96. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Reservoir)
(a) Stanley Reservoir
(b) Koyna Reservoir
(c) Jalaput Reservoir
(d) Bhadra Reservoir
List-II (State)
1. Karnataka
2. Maharashtra
3. Orissa
4. Tamil Nadu
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (D)

97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Irrigation/Power Projects)
(a) Malprabha
(b) Kakrapara
(c) Srisailam
(d) Bhima
List-II (Location)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Maharashtra
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans : (D)

98. Which one among the following countries is the largest producer of Bauxite ?
(A) Australia
(B) Brazil
(C) West Indies
(D) India
Ans : (A)

99. The busy port of Rotterdam is situated in—
(A) The Netherlands
(B) Belgium
(C) Denmark
(D) Germany
Ans : (A)

100. Which one of the following descriptions denotes the phenomenon of E1 Nino ?
(A) A violent rotating column of air extending from a thunderstorm to the ground
(B) The deflection of the ocean currents in the northern and southern hemispheres due to the rotation of Earth
(C) The Anomalous widespread warming of the sea surface of the tropical east and central Pacific Ocean
(D) The revolving tropical storms of the Caribbean and Gulf of Mexico
Ans : (C)

101. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Country)
(a) Argentina
(b) Brazil
(c) Peru
(d) Venezuela
List-II (Capital City)
1. Buenos Aires
2. Caracas
3. Lima
4. Sao Paulo
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (B)

102. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Sea)
(a) Adriatic Sea
(b) Baltic Sea
(c) North Sea
(d) Black Sea
List-II (Country)
1. Bulgaria
2. Italy
3. Poland
4. United Kingdom
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans : (B)

103. Among the following States, which one has the highest amount of Nickel Ore resources ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

104. What is the name of the highest summit of Nilgiri Hills ?
(A) Coonoor-betta
(B) Anaimudi
(C) Doda-betta
(D) Vellangiri
Ans : (C)

105. Recently, which one of the following lost the status of a planet ?
(A) Mercury
(B) Neptune
(C) Pluto
(D) Uranus
Ans : (C)

106. Which one of the following countries was hit by the cyclone Nargis recently causing a great destruction and loss of life ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Myanmar
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (B)

107. Which one among the following is nearest to Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research ?
(A) Chidambaram
(B) Mahabalipuram
(C) Madurai
(D) Tanjavur
Ans : (B)

108. Which of the following are connected by over 1700 km-long BTC oil pipe-line ?
(A) Arabian sea and Mediterranean sea
(B) Aral sea and Caspian sea
(C) Black sea and Mediterranean sea
(D) Caspian sea and Mediterranean sea
Ans : (D)

109. Where is the old and over 2 km-long ‘Pamban Railway Bridge’ which attracts tourists from all over the country ?
(A) Nilgiris
(B) Krishna delta
(C) Palk straits
(D) Malabar coast
Ans : (C)

110. Consider the following statements :
1. The monsoon climate is found in Northern Australia.
2. The China type climate is found in Argentina.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

111. At which one of the following places is the monkey called Liontailed macaque naturally found ?
(A) Shivaliks
(B) Pachmarhi
(C) Annamalai Sanctuary
(D) Nilgiris
Ans : (C)

112. Among the following places, which one receives comparatively lowest average monsoon rainfall from June to September ?
(A) Eastern Uttar Pradesh
(B) Southern West Bengal
(C) Punjab
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (C)

113. Consider the following statements :
1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
2. Quick lime is used in the manufacture of glass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

114. Consider the following statements :
1. Ian Wilmut produced the first portable computer.
2. Adam Osborne created the first cloned sheep.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (D)

115. Which one of the following is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India ?
(A) Bhakra-Nangal Project
(B) Damodar Valley Corporation
(C) Hirakud Multipurpose Project
(D) Tungabhadra Multipurpose Project
Ans : (B)

116. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Fertilizer Industry)
(a) Aluva
(b) Namrup
(c) Nangal
(d) Sindri
List-II (State)
1. Assam
2. Jharkhand
3. Kerala
4. Punjab
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (C)

117. The famous Petronas Twin Towers are located in—
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) Malaysia
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (C)

118. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Famous place)
(a) Bhimbhetka
(b) Bhiterkanika
(c) Pattadakal
(d) Srikalahasti
List-II (State)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Orissa
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)

119. Bokaro Steel Limited was established with the assistance of—
(A) Germany
(B) Soviet Union
(C) UK
(D) USA
Ans : (B)

120. Which one of the following is not a member of Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) ?
(A) Algeria
(B) Brazil
(C) Ecuador
(D) Nigeria
Ans : (B)

121. Consider the following cities :
1. Bhatinda
2. Jamnagar
3. Mangalore
Which of the above has/have oil refineries ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

122. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Person)
(a) K. V. Kamath
(b) G. M. Rao
(c) Rajendra Pachauri
List-II (Well known as)
1. Banker
2. Environmentalist
3. Industrialist
Code
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 1 3 2
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 3 1 2
Ans : (B)

123. Consider the following statements :
1. The Shivaliks have tropical moist deciduous flora.
2. The Bundelkhand plateau has thorn and scrub forest type of vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

124. Which one among the following rivers is the longest ?
(A) Amazon
(B) Amur
(C) Congo
(D) Volga
Ans : (A)

125. Consider the following statements :
1. Rainfall in the doldrums is of convectional nature.
2. Convectional rainfall is highly localized and is associated with minimum cloudiness.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

Combined Graduate level Examination 2010 Note on Computer proficiency Test/ Skill

Combined Graduate level Examination 2010 Note on Computer proficiency Test/ Skill Test Attention of the candidates is drawn to the Note on Computer Proficiency Test/Skill Test for Combined Graduate Level Examination made available on SSC Website wherein inter alia it was stated that the test modules on spread sheets and Power Point will be administered using Open Office. Commission has now decided to use MS Excel and MS PowerPoint for these modules. Hence, candidates are advised to familiarize themselves with Microsoft Office – 2003 or above. Other details given in the earlier note remain unchanged. DD(C-II) Date: 22-10-10
Combined Graduate Level Examination Note on Proficiency Test/Skill Test I. In the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2010, posts of Assistant (CSS) and Tax Assistant for CBEC and CBDT have been included. The notice for the examination dated30.01.2010 (Para 9 D) prescribes Skill Test in Data Entry with speed of 8000 (eight thousand) key impressions per hour on computer for the post of Tax Assistan (Central Excise and Income Tax). It was also prescribed in the Notice that the “Data Entry Speed” Skill Test will be of qualifying nature, with the note that the test will be conducted in the manner decided by SSC for the purpose. Para 9(E) of the Notice states that the Commission will hold a skill test at its discretion for the post of Assistants (CSS) and that it will test computer proficiency of the candidates and will be of qualifying nature. It was further stated that this Skill Test will be conducted in the manner decided by the Commission for the purpose. II. The Commission has now decided the manner in which the aforesaid Skill Tests will be conducted. The Commission has already published three lists of candidates qualifying for the interview/skill test for posts for which interview is prescribed inter-alia including the post of Assistants (CSS), additional candidates qualifying for interview/skill test only for the post of Assistants (CSS) and additional candidates qualifying for skill test for only Tax Assistants, subject to the candidates having exercised option for the posts of Assistant (CSS) and Tax Assistant in their original application. This note is placed on the website of the Commission in order to allow adequate time to the candidates to familiarize themselves with the format(s) of the Skill Tests.
III. Skill Test in Data Entry for Tax Assistants. (i) The skill test will be administered for duration of 15 minutes on passages containing text of 2000 key depressions. (ii) The actual skill test will be preceded by a test passage for 5 minutes in order to enable the candidates to adjust to the system and key board provided by the Commission. (iii) The candidates will not be required to re-enter the text on completion of the passage and, therefore, should utilize the spare time to correct mistakes, if any. (iv) Commission will decide at its discretion qualifying standard in entry of the text for different categories of candidates taking into consideration overall performance of the candidates in the skill test and available vacancies, subject to the standards not falling below limits fixed by the Commission. (v) As clearly stated in the Notice for the examination, the skill test will be of qualifying nature. (vi) As in the past, the test passage will be in English as the purpose of the test is to test data entry skills of the candidates. IV. Test of Computer Proficiency for Assistants (CSS) 1. The Proficiency Test will consist of the following three components: (i) Word Processing (ii) Generation and working on Spread Sheets. (iii) Generation of and working on PowerPoint (or equivalent) slides.
2. The proficiency test on word processing will be identical to the skill test to be administered for Tax Assistants in scope, content and duration. 3. Before commencement of actual test on word processing a test passage of 5 minutes duration will be allowed to enable the candidates to adjust to the system and key board provided by the Commission. 4. The test on spread sheets and PowerPoint (or equivalent) will be administered for duration of 15 minutes each using Open Office. Candidates are advised to familiarize themselves on OPEN OFFICE which is freely downloadable and is very similar to M.S. Office. The tests on spread sheet will inter-alia test the ability of the candidates to generate a spread sheet, perform simple computations and effect changes in the spread sheet, besides testing their familiarity with use of spread sheets including generation of charts, graphs etc. The test on Power Point (or equivalent) will test the candidates’ familiarity in the software, their ability to generate slides, effect transition / changes in the slides etc. 5. The Commission may prescribe different qualifying standards in each of the tests depending on the overall performance of the candidates and availability of vacancies subject to the standards not falling below limits fixed by the Commission. 6. As clearly stated in the Notice of the examination, the skill test will be of qualifying nature. V. Candidates who have qualified both for the Proficiency Test for Assistant (CSS) And Skill Test for Tax Assistant and have opted for both need to take only the Proficiency Test. They will not be allowed to take the Skill Test in data entry separately.

BSF/CRPF/ITBP/SSB/CISF CONSTABLE EXAM PRACTICE SET

1. Name of the Mohanlal movie which is based on the Independence struggle:
Ans: Kalapani

2. Leading producer of the Motor bikes in the world
Ans: Japan

3. Knot is used for measuring
Ans: Speed of ship

4. In which category of winds does cyclone fall?
Ans: Variable winds

5. Which among the following is not the work of Kalidasa?
a)Vikramorvashiyam b)Mudrarakshasa
c)Kumarasambava d)Raghuvamsha
Ans: Mudrarakshasa

6. The French East India Company was formed in:
Ans: 1664

7. Name the other country, other than India celebrates Independence Day on 15th August?
Ans: South Korea

8. The French Supremacy in India came to an end by the battle of:
Ans: Wandiwash

9. Who addressed the first Parliament meeting after the election?
Prime Minister

10. The University Grants Commission was set up in
Ans: 1953

11. M.F.Hussain is a famous:
Ans: Painter

12. The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ have been taken from
Ans: Upanishad

13. What is the multiplicative inverse of 3 1/3?
Ans: 3/10

14. If a15/am=a3 then the value of m
Ans: 9

15. The only number that is the perimeter and area of the same square:
Ans: 16

16. The missing number in the series:
5, 10, 16, ---------, 31 is
Ans: 23

17. Which is the smallest fraction?
a)12/13 b)4/7 c)13/14 d)11/12
Ans: 4/7

18. Toxicology is the study of
Ans: Poisons

19. The mother as well as her two children ---------------- taken to the hospital
Ans: was

20. He congratulated me . . . my success in B.A. Degree Examination.
Ans: on
21. Which word is spelt wrongly?
(a)Bourgeois (b)Assasination (c)Mandate (d)Commissioner
Ans: (b)Assasination

22. Let us go for a walk, . . . ?
Ans: Shall we

23. I have acquaintance . . . Carnatic Music.
Ans:with

24. It is not easy to . . .the Civil Service Examination.
Ans: get through

25. One who compiles dictionary:
Ans: Lexicographer

26. Dronacharya Award is given to :
Ans: The best sports coach

27. The great Wall of China was built by :
Ans: Shi-Huan-Ti

28. The national flag of India was designed by:
Ans:Pingali Venkaiya

29. The venue of Sangam Assembly:
Madurai

30. Name the book jointly written by M.T.Vasudevan Nair and N.P. Muhammed.
Arabi Ponnu

31. Pointing to a man, a woman said “His mother is the only daughter of my brother.” How is the woman related to that man?
Mother

32. “The Young Bengal Movement” was started by :
Henry Vevian Derozio.

33. India’s biggest Nuclear Power Station:
Tarapur

34. “Lady Chatterly’s Lover” is novel written by:
D.H.Lawrence

35. Who is the author of the “One Hundred Years of Solitude”?
Gabriel Marquez

36. Millennium is a period of?
1000 years

37. “The Wall Street Catastrophe” took place in :
1929

38. The Russian ruler who was awarded Nobel Prize for Peace:
Gorbachev

39. Davis Cup is associated with which game:
Tennis

40. Which country will always be in the frontline of Olympic March past?
Greece

41. The Head Quarters of the International Cricket Council is in:
Dubai

42. Which food crop has the maximum content of Proteins:
Soya bean

43. King of fruit is :
Mango

44. “Those who do not work may not eat.” Who said this?
Stalin

45. Carbohydrate consists of :
Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen

46. “HMS Beegil” is a word associated with Charles Darwin. What is it?
A Ship

47. The use of Galvanometer:
To measure the electric current.

48. Persons sitting in an artificial satellite of the earth have:
Zero Weight

49. The instrument used to convert AC current to DC current?
Rectifier

50. Who was the first Indian to win an Oscar?
Bhanu Athaya.

51. I have... . more letters for you to write:
Some

52. John . . .to Bombay tomorrow.
travels

53. I . . . a book when he came in.
was reading

54. She was struck ------lightning
By

55. We ------- live in a small house when we were children
Used to

56. I ------- him when he was in college
Had met

57. The captain announced that he ----- from the game.
Was retiring

58. It is pleasant ------ read book in the afternoon.
to

59. The cat is hiding --------- the table
Under

60. The synonym of curious is:
Inquisitive

61. The antonym of ascend is:
Descend

62. Our cot was bitten . . . a dog.
By

63. You can swim well. . .?
Can’t you

64. He came yesterday . . .?
Didn’t he

65. Do you want to speak to me . . . anything?
About

66. I bought this purse. . . 50 rupees.
For

67. Which of the following words is spelt correctly?
(a) Elvation (b) elevation (c)elavation (e)elevetion
Ans:(b)elevation

68. Which of the following words is spelt correctly?
(a)Compulsion (b)compullsion (c)compuzion (d)comepulsion
Ans: (a)Compulsion

69. Fatigue means :
Tired

70. Consensus means:
(a) Optimistic (b) disagreement (c) continuity (d) agreement
Ans: Agreement

71. When a particular number is subtracted from each of 24, 31, 58, 79 the values will be in proportion. The number to be subtracted is :
7

72. In an election 10% of students did not vote and 60 votes recorded were declared invalid. The majority of elected candidates was 308 and it was found that he had been supported by 47% of the whole number of class. The number of valid voted recorded for each candidate:
2914, 2606

73. By selling oranges at 32 for Rs.10, a man loses 40%. How many oranges should be sell for Rs.10 if he should gain 20%?
16

74. An employee gets same salary every month. His average income per day will be :
Maximum for the period February, March, April.

75. Which among the following is best approximation for ‘What decimal of an hour is a second’?
(a)0.00029 (b)0.00028 (c)0.00027 (d)0.00026
Ans: (b)0.00028

76. When asked how many gold coins he had, the collector said:
If I arrange them in stake of five, none are left over.
If I arrange them in stake of six, none are left over.
If I arrange them in stake of seven, one is left over.
What is least number of coins?
120

77. Five equal squares are placed side by side to make a single rectangle. The perimeter of rectangle so formed is 276 cm. what is the area of a square used?
529

78. A man is facing east. He turns 110o in the clockwise direction and then 50o in anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
South

79. There are five houses P,Q,R,S, T. P is right of Q and T is left of R and right of P. Q is right of S. Which house is in the middle?
P

80. Wheel X rotates at a uniform speed of 8 revolutions per minute and wheel Y rotates at a uniform speed of 40 revolutions per second. How long after they start rotating simultaneously, will wheel Y have exactly made one revolution more than wheel X?
1/32 minute

81. ‘Hotel’ to menu is as ‘Library’ to :
Catalogue

82. If APEX coded as ZKVC then code for GIRL is:
TRIO

83. Sum of two numbers is 1/3rd of 1/5th of 195 and product is 1/6th of 1/4th of 960. Find the difference between numbers.
3

84. If 3+4=21, 5+2=35, 4+2=24. What is the value of 5+3?
40


85. The value of



is approximately
0.30

86. An isosceles triangle has equal sides measuring 7 cm each and length of third side is an integer. The number of such triangles is :
13

87. Find the missing number:
3,5,9,17,33,. . .
65

88. The weight of a dog is 24 kg and 1/3 of its weight has been increased in 3 months. Now the weight is :
(a)33 Kg (b)36 Kg (c)42 Kg (d)None of the above
Ans: None of the above.

89. The angle between the hands of a clock at 1.15 is (in degree measure):
52 ½

90. The digit in the unit place in the product of first 500 primes is :
0

91. Which of the following is different from others:
(a)BCFG (b)DEHI (c)IJMN (d)MOPQ
Ans:MOPQ

92. Arithmetic mean of first ‘n’ natural numbers is :
(n+1)/2

93. A student is ranked 9th from top and 38th from the bottom in a class. Total number of students in the class is :
46

94. If a/b=7 then (a+b)/(a-b) is :
4/3

95. Find the Odd one:
(a)Abacus (b)Napier’s bones (c)Protractor (d)Slide rule
Ans:Protactor

96. SSELFLES:SELFLESS::PERSON:
Ans:NOSREP

97. A student was asked to find 1/5 th of a number. By mistake he found 5/4 th of the number and got an answer which was 180 more than correct answer. Number is :
400

98. 13 1/3 - 12 3/4 -11 5/6+ 10 11/12 is :
Ans: -1/3

99. HCF of two numbers is 24 and their LCM is 1344. If difference between numbers is 24 then their sum is :
360

100. Average weight of 8 men increased by 1.5 kg when a man weighting 65 kg was replaced by a new man. The weight of new man is :
77 kg.

Wednesday, October 27, 2010

SSC IMPORTANT QUESTIONS GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

G. K.
Q.1) ‘Threat of global warming’ is increasing due to increasing concentration of:
(A) Ozone (B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide (D) Carbon dioxide
Q.2) When a body is taken from the earth to the moon :
(A) Its weight increases
(B) Its weight decreases
(C) Its weight remains unchanged
(D) It becomes completely weightless
Q.3) Expansion during heating :
(A) Occurs only in solid
(B) Increases the weight of the material
(C) Decreases the density of the material
(D) Occurs at the same rate for all liquids and solids
Q.4) The Finance Commission is primarily concerned with recommending to the President about :
(A) The principle governing grants-in-aid to be given to the States
(B) Distributing the net proceeds of the taxes between the Centre and the States
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.5) The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International
Treaties :
(A) With the consent of all the States
(B) With the consent of majority of States
(C) With the consent of the State concerned
(D) Without the consent of any State
Q.6) Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum
period of :
(A) One month (B) One year
(C) Seven days (D) Fourteen days
Q.7) The First day session of Indian Constituent Assembly was chaired by :
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar (D) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
Q.8) Which one of the following is not a department in the Ministry of Human Resource Development?
(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(C) Department of Technical Education
(D) Department of Woman and Child Development
Q.9) Who is known a the first Law Officer of India?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Law Minister of India
(C) Solicitor General of India
(D) Law Secretary
Q.10) The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President. He can be removed :
(A) By the President
(B) On an address from both Houses of Parliament
(C) By the Supreme Court
(D) On the recommendation of the President by the Supreme Court
Q.11) Nathu La Pass is situated in which state?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Assam
(C) Meghalaya (D) Sikkim
Q.12) Who will decide the Office of Profit?
(A) President and Governor
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Union Public Service Commission
Q.13) To be officially recognized by the Speaker of Lok Sabha as an Opposition Group, a party or Coalition
of Parties must have at least :
(A) 50 members (B) 60 members
(C) 80 members (D) 1
3
of total members of the Lok Sabha
Q.14) Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) Prohibition of liquor
(B) Right to work
(C) Equal wage for equal work
(D) Right to information
Q.15) Right to Education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years is :
(A) Included in the Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) A Fundamental Right
(C) A Statutory Right
(D) None of the above
Q.16) How many times has Financial Emergency been declared in India so far?
(A) 5 times (B) 4 times
(C) Once (D) Never
Q.17) The annual growth rate of the Indian Economy at 1999-2000 prices during 2005-2006 has been
estimated between :
(A) 8 to 9 per cent (B) 7 to 8 per cent
(C) 6 to 7 per cent (D) 5 to 6 per cent
Q.18) Which one of the following motions can the Council of Ministers in India move?
(A) No Confidence Motion
(B) Censure Motion
(C) Adjournment Motion
(D) Confidence Motion
Q.19) Which one of the following on the Consolidated Fund of India?
(A) Salary and allowances of the President of India.
(B) Salary and allowances of the Vice President of India.
(C) Salary and allowances of the Justices of the Supreme Court of India.
(D) Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Q.20) Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of an emergency period by the
Parliament?
(A) 14 days (B) 1 month
(C) 3 months (D) 6 months
Q.21) Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : Powers for conducting elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures in a free and
fair manner have been given to an independent body i.e. the Election Commission.
Reason (R) : Powers of removal of Election Commissioners is with the executive.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct?
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.22) Which one of the following is not an objective of fiscal policy of Indian Government?
(A) Full employment
(B) Price stability
(C) Regulation of inter-State trade
(D) Equitable distribution of wealth and income.
Q.23) Hindu Rate of growth refers to the rate of growth of :
(A) GDP (B) Population
(C) Foodgrains (D) Per capita income
Q.24) As per recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission, percentage share of States of the
shareable central taxes is?
(A) 28.5 (B) 29.5
(C) 30.5 (D) 32.4
Q.25) In India, national income is estimated by :
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Central Statistical Organization
(C) Indian Statistical Institute
(D) National Sample Survey Organization
ANSWERS
1. (D)
2. (B)
3. (C)
4. (D)
5. (D)
6. (D)
7. (D)
8. (C)
9. (C)
10. (A)
11. (D)
12. (B)
13. (A)
14. (D)
15. (B)
16. (D)
17. (A)
18. (D)
19. (B)
20. (B)
21. (B)
22. (C)
23. (A)
24. (C)
25. (B)
G. K.
Q.1) Bharat Nirman Scheme of the UPA Government does not include :
(A) Rural Water Supply Project
(B) Irrigation Benefit Programme
(C) Rural Electrification
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
Q.2) Which one of the following committee recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the
small scale sector in industry?
(A) Abid Hussain Committee
(B) Narasimhan Committee
(C) Nayak Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
Q.3) In the last one decade which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct
Investment inflows into India?
(A) Chemicals other than fertilizers
(B) Services sector
(C) Food Processing
(D) Telecommunication
Q.4) Who formulates the monetary policy in India?
(A) SEBI (B) RBI
(C) Finance Ministry (D) Planning Commission
Q.5) The population of Uttar Pradesh has been rapidly growing during the last two decades because of :
(A) Increased literacy rate (B) Improvement in health and control of diseases
(C) Improved agriculture (D) Rapid urbanization
Q.6) Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Educated unemployment increases with high rate of economic growth.
Reason (R) : It happens only when there is lack of professional education.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.7) Six more Public Sector Undertakings have been accorded status of miniratna by Government of India
(September 2006). Choose the one which is not included amongst them from the following :
(A) Bharat Sanchar Nigam
(B) Indian Telephone Industries
(C) Hindustan Latex
(D) Rashtriya Ispat
Q.8) Consider according to Buddhism :
Assertion (A) : There is no rebirth.
Reason (R) : There is no soul.
Now select your answer from the following code :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.9) Which one of the following propounded that destiny determines everything, man is powerless?
(A) Jainas (B) Buddhists
(C) Ajivakas (D) Mimansakas
Q.10) Lord Buddha preached the following four noble truths. Put them in correct order using the code given
below :
(a) There is suffering.
(b) There is cessation of suffering.
(c) There is a path leading to the cessation of suffering.
(d) There is cause of suffering.
Codes :
(A) a, d, b, c
(B) a, d, c, b
(C) a, c, b, d
(D) a, b, d, c
Q.11) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya was the disciple of :
(A) Sheikh Alauddin Sabir
(B) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(C) Baba Farid
(D) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi
Q.12) Which one of the following was favoured by Nehru but not favoured by Gandhiji?
(A) Truth (B) Non-violence
(C) Untouchability (D) Heavy industrialisation
Q.13) Consider :
Assertion (A) : Nehru had no regard for the Upanishads.
Reason (R) : His attitude was scientific.
Now select your answer from the following code :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.14) Ashtadhayi was written by :
(A) Vedavyas (B) Panini
(C) Shukadeva (D) Balmiki
Q.15) Adi Shankaracharya established four mathas. These mathas are situated at :
(A) Sringeri, Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayab
(B) Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayag, Kanchi
(C) Joshimath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri
(D) Puri, Sringeri, Dwarka, Varanasi
Q.16) Who was the founder of ‘Servants of India Society’?
(A) Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Justice Ranade
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q.17) The third Sangam was held at :
(A) Arrikkamedu (B) Ernakulam
(C) Madurai (D) Tuticorin
Q.18) Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Satya Shodhak Samaj’?
(A) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar (B) Jyotiba Phule
(C) Narayan Guru (D) Ramaswamy Naicker
Q.19) Cotton for textile was first cultivated in :
(A) Egypt (B) Mesopotamia
(C) Central America (D) India
Q.20) Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Muhammad Tughlaq’s scheme of token currency was a failure.
Reason (R) : Muhammad Tughlaq had no proper control over the issuance of coins.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.21) By which name was Chanakya known in his childhood?
(A) Ajaya (B) Chanakya
(C) Vishnugupta (D) Deogupta
Q.22) Rock cut architecture in Harapan culture context has been found at :
(A) Kalibangan (B) Dhaulabira
(C) Kotdiji (D) Amri
Q.23) Where was the first Madarsa set up by the British in India?
(A) Madras (B) Bombay
(C) Aligarh (D) Calcutta
Q.24) Who among the following Pakistani National was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian
Government?
(A) Liaqat Ali Khan
(B) M.A.Jinnah
(C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(D) Muhammad Iqbal
Q.25) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Lachchu Maharaj 1. Dhrupad
(b) Fayyaz Khan 2. Ghazal
(c) Sidheshwari Devi 3. Kathak
(d) Talat Mehmood 4. Thumri
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
ANSWERS
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (B)
5. (D)
6. (A)
7. (B)
8. (D)
9. (C)
10. (A)
11. (C)
12. (D)
13. (D)
14. (B)
15. (C)
16. (D)
17. (C)
18. (B)
19. (D)
20. (A)
21. (C)
22. (B)
23. (D)
24. (C)
25. (B)
G. K.
Q.1) Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
1. India’s population is characterized by a high growth rate.
2. With the current growth rate it is likely to overtake China in the near future.
3. Out of every six persons of the World one is an Indian.
4. About 40% of the India’s population is below the poverty line level.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Q.2) In the Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh States, the joint ‘Rajghat River Valley Project’ is launched
on :
(A) Ken river (B) Son river
(C) Chambal river (D) Betwa river
Q.3) Which state in the country has the largest number of districts?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Uttar Pradesh
Q.4) Environment refers :
(A) As the natural world of land, water, air, plants and animals that exist around it.
(B) To the sum total of conditions which surround man at a given point of time.
(C) The interacting systems of physical, biological and cultural elements which are interlinked.
(D) All the above.
Q.5) The cells which have the capacity to divide and differentiate into any type of cells in the body are the
focus of research of several serious diseases are :
(A) Bud cells (B) Red cells
(C) Mesangial cells (D) Stem cells
Q.6) Environmental degradation means :
(A) Overall lowering of environmental qualities
(B) Adverse changes brought in by human activities
(C) Ecological imbalance because of ecological diversity
(D) All the above
Q.7) Which one of the following is known as ‘Satellite Town’?
(A) Moradabad (B) Hyderabad
(C) Ghaziabad (D) Ahmedabad
Q.8) Which of the following rivers have almost the same point of beginning?
(A) Brahmaputra and Ganga
(B) Tapi and Beas
(C) Brahmaputra and Indus
(D) Indua and Ganga
Q.9) The local time of a place is 6.00 a.m. when the Greenwitch Mean Time (GMT) is 3.00 a.m. What is
the longitude of the place?
(A) 450 W (B) 450 E
(C) 1200 E (D) 1200 W
Q.10) In which State of India is the maximum area irrigated by Tube-wells?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Bihar
(C) Rajasthan (D) Uttar Pradesh
Q.11) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Haldia : Orissa
(B) Jamnagar : Maharashtra
(C) Numaligarh : Gujarat
(D) Panangudi : Tamil Nadu
Q.12) Which one of the following Indian rivers forms as estuary?
(A) Godavari (B) Kaveri
(C) Tapi (D) Mahanadi
Q.13) Which one of the following areas of India does not come under the zone of high seismic intensity?
(A) Uttaranchal (B) Karanatak Plateau
(C) Kachch (D) Himachal Pradesh
Q.14) Which of the following Indian island lies between India and Sir Lanka?
(A) Elephanta (B) Nicobar
(C) Rameshwaram (D) Salsette
Q.15) In which state do the Monsoons arrive first?
(A) Assam (B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra (D) Kerala
Q.16) Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographic area as a scheduled
area?
(A) Governor (B) Chief Minister
(C) Prime Minister (D) President
Q.17) The World’s highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in :
(A) Colombia (B) India
(C) Nepal (D) Switzerland
Q.18) In U.P., the district with the highest literacy percentage is :
(A) Auraiya (B) Ghaziabad
(C) Etawah (D) Allahabad
Q.19) A memorandum of understanding for India’s first river linking project has been signed between two
states linking two rivers. The states and the rivers concerned are :
List-I List-II
(A) Punjab and Rajasthan : Beas and Banas
(B) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh : Ken and Betwa
(C) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu : Krishna and Kaveri
(D) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar : Gomti and Sharda
Q.20) Consider the following statements about Uttar Pradesh :
1. Geographical area of UP is about 2,41,000 sq kms.
2. Sex ratio in UP as per 2001 census was 933 females per 1000 males.
3. UP has 17 Revenue Divisions.
4. Literacy percentage in UP as per 2001 census was 60.1.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 only
Q.21) Consider the following statements about Uttar Pradesh :
1. Literacy percentage as per 2001 census is 56.3.
2. The density of population is 690 per square km.
3. The most populous district is Kanpur Nagar.
4. The largest population of scheduled castes is in district Sitapur.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) All the four
Q.22) Consider the following statements :
1. According to a survey conducted by Uttar Pradesh Department recently, Lucknow has been found
to be most developed.
2. As per recent study conducted in 20 states by the ‘Centre for Media Studies’, corruption in 2005 in
India is less than what it was in 2002.
3. As per target set for Bharat Nirman Yojna, houses to be constructed for the rural poor would not
even meet 50% of the shortage of rural houses.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) All the three
Q.23) Special Economic Zones are being set up in UP at :
(A) Agra, Kanpur and Noida
(B) Agra, Kanpur and Greater Noida
(C) Meerut, Moradabad, Kanpur and Noida
(D) Moradabad, Kanpur, Noida and Greater Noida
Q.24) The ancient site where the full text of the Mahabarat was delivered orally to a congregation of 60,000
sages is :
(A) Ahichatra (B) Hastinapur
(C) Kampilya (D) Naimisharanya
Q.25) The quaintest relic of Chunar Fort is the shrine of :
(A) Adi Shankaracharya (B) Bhartruhari
(C) Chaitanya (D) Ramananda
ANSWERS
1. (A)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
6. (D)
7. (C)
8. (C)
9. (B)
10. (D)
11. (D)
12. (C)
13. (B)
14. (C)
15. (D)
16. (D)
17. (B)
18. (A)
19. (B)
20. (B)
21. (D)
22. (A)
23. (B)
24. (D)
25. (B)
G. K.
Q.1) Which one of the following sequences is correct in the context of three largest wheat producing
states?
(A) Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana
(B) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana
(D) Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh
Q.2) Consider the following statements about U.P. :
1. Government is striving hard to achieve goal of mass education.
2. It has decided to extend the scheme of Shiksha Mitra to urban areas.
3. The Shiksha Mitra in urban areas will receive a monthly honorarium of Rs. 2,400.
4. They will be recruited from persons receiving unemployment allowance.
Of these statements :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(B) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Q.3) Invisible export means export of :
(A) Services (B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods (D) Goods through smuggling
Q.4) The gas which emits from rice field is :
(A) Ethane (B) Methane
(C) Nitrogen (D) All of the above
Q.5) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Birha 1. Bhojpuri
(b) Kajri 2. Avadhi
(c) Malhor 3. Braji
(d) Rasia 4. Kauravi
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Q.6) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Diesel Locomotive Works : Varanasi
(B) Indian Telephone : Rae Bareilly Industries
(C) Bharat : Noida Electronic Ltd.
(D) Oil Refinery : Mathura
Q.7) Foreign Corporations are governed by :
(A) Special Act of Parliament
(B) Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Government of India
(C) Indian Companies Act, 1956
(D) None of the above
Q.8) As per recent nuclear agreement signed by George W. Bush, President of USA and Dr. Man Mohan
Sing, Prime Minister of India, the number of nuclear reactors which India has agreed to open up for
inspection by International Atomic Energy Agency is :
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 16
Q.9) The bacteria responsible for fixing nitrogen in Soyabean is :
(A) Rhizobium leguminorserum
(B) Rhizobium japonicum
(C) Rhizobium phaseoli
(D) Rhizobium trifolii
Q.10) Crop logging is a method of :
(A) Soil fertility evaluation
(B) Plant analysis for assessing the requirement of nutrients for crop production
(C) Assessing crop damage
(D) Testing suitability of fertilizers
Q.11) India’s rank in vegetable production is :
(A) First (B) Second
(C) Fourth (D) Fifth
Q.12) U.P. has been divided into :
(A) 11 agro-climatic zones (B) 9 agro-climatic zones
(C) 7 agro-climatic zones (D) None of the above
Q.13) Consider the following statements :
1. Prime Minister Dr. Man Mohan Singh launched the Jawahar Lal Nehru Urban Renewal Mission in
December 2005.
2. The Mission will have an initial corpus of Rs. One lakh crore.
3. Initially only 28 State capitals will benefit from the Mission.
4. The Mission aims to provide food for work to the urban poor.
Which of the above statement(S) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) All the four
Q.14) Government of India has taken a decision to set up a price stabilization fund for the growers of :
(A) Potato and onion (B) Sugarcane growers
(C) Coffee and tea (D) Tomato
Q.15) A labour intensive industry is one that :
(A) Requires hard manual labour
(B) Pays adequate wages to the labour
(C) Employs more hands
(D) Provides facilities to labour
Q.16) If a complete ship is hired, the Shipping Company issues :
(A) Shipping Order (B) Charter Party
(C) Bill of Entry (D) Railway Receipt
Q.17) Ripening hormone is :
(A) Gibberellin (B) Morphactin
(C) Ethylene (D) I.B.A.
Q.18) We obtain turmeric from which part of the plant?
(A) Stem (B) Root
(C) Fruit (D) Flower
Q.19) Who among the following has been given ‘World Citizenship Award’ 2006?
(A) Kofi Annan (B) Jimmy Carter
(C) Bill Clinton (D) Ronald Reagan
Q.20) Who has been recently given ‘Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration’ 2005?
(A) Bismillah Khan (B) Jyoti Basu
(C) Javed Akhtar (D) Mahesh Bhatt
Q.21) ‘Tshwane Declaration’ was signed by representative of :
(A) India and South Africa
(B) India and Brazil
(C) India, Brazil and South Africa
(D) India and Myanmar
Q.22) Who of the following have received the Nobel Prize 2006 in Medicine?
(A) John C. Mather and George F. Snoot
(B) Craig C. Mello and Andrew Z. Fire
(C) Steven Boone and Curtis Cooper
(D) Roger Kornberg
Q.23) Select the one which is not the responsibility of Gram Sabha under the ‘Rural Employment Guarantee
Act, 2005’ :
(A) To recommend projects to the Gram Panchayat and prepare list of possible works
(B) To receive applications for work and issue a dated receipt
(C) To monitor the execution of works within the Gram Panchayat
(D) To conduct regular social audits of all the projects taken up within the Gram Panchayat
Q.24) Consider the following statements about the ‘Right to Information Act, 2005’ and select one which is
not provided for or specially exempted :
(A) It is not applicable in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) An applicant making request for information will have to give reasons for seeking information
(C) Removal of Chief Information Commissioner
(D) Every Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 5 years or till the age of 65 years
whichever is earlier
Q.25) Consider the following statements :
1. The First ever East Asia Summit was held in Singapore in December 2005.
2. The Summit was attended by 16 countries from the East Asian region including India.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWERS
1. (C)
2. (D)
3. (A)
4. (B)
5. (B)
6. (C)
7. (C)
8. (A)
9. (B)
10. (B)
11. (B)
12. (B)
13. (B)
14. (C)
15. (C)
16. (B)
17. (C)
18. (A)
19. (C)
20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B)
G. K.
Q.1) Consider the following statements :
1. The International Badminton Federation is located in Kualalumpur.
2. The Federation has decided in favour of India as the host for 2009 World Badminton
Championship.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.2) Consider the following statements about one of India’s leading batsman :
1. He has scored now more than 8000 runs in Test Matches.
2. He has made four successive centuries.
3. He has made five Test double hundreds.
4. He is credited with most catches by an Indian player.
Which is he?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Rahul Dravid (D) Saurav Ganguly
Q.3) Consider the following statements :
1. The 93rd Indian Science Congress was held at Hyderabad (A.P.) in January 2006.
2. Dr. M.S.Swaminathan was the recipient of the India Science Award 2004 at the Congress.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.4) Which South American Country has elected a Leftist Leader as its President for the first time in the
180 year old history of South America?
(A) Venezuela (B) Argentina
(C) Uruguay (D) Bolivia
Q.5) President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam visited some countries; one of them happens to be country visited by
any President of India for the first time. Which one of these is that country?
(A) Mauritius (B) South Africa
(C) Myanmar (D) None of these
Q.6) Chlorophull is normally found in:
(1) Green leaves (2) Tree bark
(3) Kidney (4) Blood
Q.7) The first woman IPS officer:
(1) Kanchan Bhattacharya (2) Priti Jain
(3) Suman Bhardwaj (4) Kiran Bedi
Q.8) Through which State run the ‘Aravalli’ mountains?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan
Q.9) The captain of the victorious Italian team in the FIFA World Cup 2006 was:
(1) Marco Materazzi (2) Fabio Cannavaro
(3) Gianluigi Buffon (4) Salvatore Schillaci
Q.10) While sowing seeds the fertilizer commonly used contains:
(1) Nitrates (2) Potash
(3) Phosphorus (4) Calcium
Q.11) Where are copper, gold, iron and coal respectively found in India?
(1) Kollar, Khetri, Kudremukh, Jharia
(2) Jharia, Kollar, Kudremukh, Khetri
(3) Kudremukh, Jharia, Kollar, Khetri
(4) Khetri, Kollar, Kudremukh, Jharia
Q.12) What is washing power?
(1) Sodium chloride (2) Hydrated sodium carbonate
(3) Sodium dicarbonate (4) Calcium carbonate
Q.13) The need for effective corporate governance and independent regulatory authorities was highlighted
by the scam involving which of the following multinational corporation/s?
(1) Enron (2) World Com
(3) Xerox (4) All of the above
Q.14) ‘Carbon dioxide cycle’ implies that:
(1) carbon dioxide moves in the air in a cycle
(2) the carbon dioxide structure is cyclic
(3) carbon dioxide consumes oxygen
(4) oxygen is changed into carbon dioxide by respiration of human beings and then to oxygen and
carbon by green plants
Q.15) Light from the nearest star reaches the earth in
(1) 4.3 seconds (2) 4.3 minutes
(3) 43 minutes (4) 4.3 years
Q.16) Usual Status (US) unemployment is calculated with reference to a period of:
(1) one year (2) indefinite
(3) one month (4) one week
Q.17) An iron hammer, lying in the sum appears much hotter than its wooden handle because:
(1) iron is at a higher temperature
(2) iron is darker than wood
(3) iron absorbs more heat
(4) iron is a good conductor of heat
Q.18) It is not advisable of sleep under a tree at night because trees release:
(1) carbon dioxide (2) oxygen
(3) carbon monoxide (4) sulphur dioxide
Q.19) In the later vedic pantheon, what was the order of gods in accordance with their importance?
a. Indra b. Vishnu
c. Prajapati d. Rudra
(1) cdba (2) cbda
(3) bcda (4) bacd
Q.20) A solution with pH=2 is more acidic than a solution of pH=6 by a factor of:
(1) 4 (2) 12
(3) 400 (4) 1000
Q.21) Australasia or Oceania comprises of:
a. Australia b. New Zealand
c. New Guinea d. Pacific Islands
e. Tasmania
(1) a, b and d (2) a, b and e
(3) a, b, c and d (4) a, b, c, d and e
Q.22) The smallest possible unit of a chemical compound is:
(1) atom (2) electron
(3) proton (4) molecule
Q.23) Hypo, used in photography, is chemically:
(1) silver bromide (2) sodium thiosulphate
(3) sodium phosphate (4) silver nitrate
Q.24) Emeralds are made up of:
(1) carbon (2) calcium
(3) beryllium (4) iron
Q.25) Anaemia occurs due to the lack of:
(1) iodine (2) calcium
(3) potassium (4) iron
ANSWERS
1. (B)
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (D)
5. (C)
6. (1)
7. (4)
8. (4)
9. (2)
10. (1)
11. (4)
12. (2)
13. (4)
14. (4)
15. (4)
16. (1)
17. (4)
18. (1)
19. (1)
20. (4)
21. (4)
22. (4)
23. (2)
24. (3)
25. (4)
G. K.
Q.1) Which of the following metals was not known to the Indus people?
(1) tin (2) copper
(3) iron (4) lead
Q.2) Which one of the following emergencies can be declared by the President on his own?
(1) emergency due to external aggression or internal disturbances
(2) emergency due to failure of the constitutional machinery in a state.
(3) emergency due to threat to the financial stability or credit of India.
(4) None of these.
Q.3) Which of the following is not an objective of the Monetary Policy of RBI?
(1) Boost economic development
(2) Direct credit in desirable direction
(3) Control inflationary pressure
(4) Ensure social justice
Q.4) One of the disadvantages of the Wholesale Price Index in India is that:
(1) It does not cover the services sector.
(2) It is not available for individual commodities.
(3) It is available only on monthly basis.
(4) It is available only at constant prices.
Q.5) The National Chemical Laboratory is situated in:
(1) New Delhi (2) Bangalore
(3) Pune (4) Chennai
Q.6) The most commonly used metal in the pure form or as an alloy in domestic appliances is:
(1) aluminum (2) iron
(3) copper (4) zinc
Q.7) The process in which solid substance, on being heated, changes directly into the gaseous form known
as:
(1) dissociation (2) dissolution
(3) sublimation (4) evaporation
Q.8) Match the following:
List I List II
a. Surya Sen 1. Communist Party of India
b. NM Joshi 2. Indian Republican Army
c. PC Joshi 3. Radical President of Congress
d. SC Bose 4. All India Trade Union Federation
a b c d
(1) 2 4 1 3
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 2 1 3 4
(4) 2 4 3 1
Q.9) The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is:
(1) ethylene (2) ethane
(3) carbon dioxide (4) acetylene
Q.10) In human systems, vitamins cannot:
(1) help in digestion (2) help in metabolizing drugs
(3) help in growth (4) supply energy
Q.11) A person weighs more in a life, which is:
(1) moving up with a constant velocity.
(2) moving down with a constant velocity.
(3) accelerating upward.
(4) accelerating downward.
Q.12) With what is ‘blue revolution’ associated?
(1) agriculture (2) iron and steel industry
(3) irrigation (4) fishing
Q.13) The excavation in the Indus Valley have pushed the antiquity of Indian History to:
(1) 5000 BC (2) 4000 BC
(3) 2500 BC (4) 1000 BC
Q.14) What distinguishes economic growth from economic development is that the latter implies:
(1) an increase in per capita income
(2) changes in institutions and attitudes
(3) concern for ecology and environment
(4) All of the above.
Q.15) What of the following figures has the longest perimeter?
(1) a square of side 10 cms
(2) a rectangle of sides 12 cms and 9 cms
(3) a circle of radius 7 cms
(4) a rhombus of side 9 cms
Q.16) Match the following Viceroys with the event and occurred during their respective tenures:
List I List II
a. Wavell 1. First demand for Pakistan
b. Reading 2. The Moplah Revolt
c. Willington 3. Simla Conference
d. Linlithgow 4. Communal Award
a b c d
(1) 3 2 4 1
(2) 4 1 3 2
(3) 3 4 2 1
(4) 1 2 4 3
Q.17) The most literate union territory in India is:
(1) Delhi (2) Puducherry
(3) Chandigarh (4) Lakshadweep
Q.18) The bacteria responsible for ‘nitrogen fixation’ is found in the roots of:
(1) grass (2) citrus plants
(3) leguminous plants (4) neem tree
Q.19) A chemical reaction that takes place with the evolution of heat is called a/an:
(1) reversible reaction (2) endothermic reaction
(3) thermal reaction (4) exothermic reaction
Q.20) Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List I (People) List II (State)
a. Lepcha 1. Uttaranchal
b. Maria 2. Sikkim
c. Urali 3. Chattisgarh
d. Khasa 4. Kerala
a b c d
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 3 4 2 1
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 3 2 4 1
Q.21) Antarctic Treaty was signed in:
(1) 1960 (2) 1954
(3) 1958 (4) 1959
Q.22) The concept of Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in population means:
(1) the average number of children born to a women during her lifetime.
(2) the average number of children born to an adult male during his lifetime
(3) the average number of children born in family
(4) the average rate of growth of population
Q.23) Consider the following statements:
(a) Human Development Report is an authoritative annul publication brought out by the World Bank.
(b) It measures longevity by life expectancy at birth.
(c) Knowledge is measured by adult literacy rate.
(d) Standard of living is measured by GDP per capita (US $ PPP).
Which of the above statements is not correct?
(1) (a) (2) (b)
(3) (c) (4) (d)
Q.24) The most abundant source of iron is:
(1) milk (2) green vegetables
(3) eggs (4) beans
Q.25) The latitude and longitude of the two cities A and B are as follows:
A B
Latitude 120N 210N
Longitude 800-30’E 90-30’W
When the clock in city A shows 0800 hours UTC, what will be the time (UTC) in city B?
(1) 0200 (2) 0230
(3) 0100 (4) 0238
ANSWERS
1. (3)
2. (4)
3. (4)
4. (1)
5. (2)
6. (1)
7. (3)
8. (1)
9. (4)
10. (4)
11. (3)
12. (4)
13. (3)
14. (2)
15. (3)
16. (1)
17. (4)
18. (3)
19. (4)
20. (3)
21. (4)
22. (1)
23. (1)
24. (2)
25. (1)
G. K.
Q.1) India’s per capita net availability of food grains per day is:
(1) 454 gms (2) 285 gms
(3) 621 gms (4) 438 gms
Q.2) Which of the following powers is exclusively vested in the Rajya Sabha?
(1) to initiate impeachment proceedings against the President
(2) to recommend the creation of new All India Services.
(3) to remove the Vice-President
(4) all the above powers
Q.3) A person covers the distance from P to Q at the speed of three kmph. From Q to P he covers it at six
kmph. What is the average speed per hour?
(1) 4 kmph (2) 5 kmph
(3) 4.5 kmph (4) 3.5 kmph
Q.4) The best fertilizer for plants is:
(1) compost
(2) ammonium sulphate
(3) super phosphate of lime
(4) urea
Q.5) What is the chief function of the UPSC?
(1) to conduct examinations for appointment to All India and Central Services.
(2) to advise the President regarding claims of civil servants for costs incurred in the course of
execution of duties.
(3) to advise the President regarding disciplinary action against a civil servant.
(4) All of the above
Q.6) When the New Economic Policy was adopted in India in 1991 July the growth in real GDP was:
(1) Negative (2) 0.5 per cent
(3) 1 per cent (4) 3.5 per cent
Q.7) We always see the same face of the moon because:
(1) it is smaller than the earth.
(2) it revolves on its axis in a direction opposite to that of the earth.
(3) it takes equal time for both revolution around the earth and rotation on its own axis.
(4) it rotates at the same speed as the earth around the sun.
Q.8) When an electric bulb breaks, there is a mild bang due to:
(1) the chemical reaction between the enclosed gases
(2) the composed gases rushing out suddenly
(3) the air rushing in to fill the evacuated space
(4) some other reason
Q.9) Tetraethyl Lead (TEL) is added to petrol to:
(1) prevent freezing (2) increase boiling point
(3) increase flash point (4) increase anti-knocking rating
Q.10) In the human body, the most abundant element is:
(1) carbon (2) calcium
(3) nitrogen (4) oxygen
Q.11) The pH of human blood is around:
(1) 3 (2) 7.5
(3) 12 (4) 6
Q.12) In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble was not a part of the Constitution?
(1) Berubari case
(2) Golak Nath case
(3) Keshavananda Bharati case
(4) None of these
Q.13) Though the temperature inside lighted electric bulb is around 27000C, the filament does not burn
because:
(1) the metal of which it is made up of resistant burning
(2) the oxygen necessary for combustion (burning) is not available as the bulb is evacuated and filled
with pure nitrogen or inert gas.
(3) it cannot burn in closed systems
(4) it is made of non-metallic substance.
Q.14) Hard water does not lather well with soap because:
(1) it contains carbonates of calcium and magnesium
(2) it is highly coloured
(3) it contains suspended impurities
(4) it contains sodium chloride
Q.15) Camphor can easily be purified by the process of:
(1) sublimation (2) distillation
(3) crystallisation (4) sedimentation
Q.16) The Civil Disobedience movement caught the imagination of the people in the States. In many places,
significant popular movements came into being. Point out where it did not?
(1) Rajkot (2) Hyderabad
(3) Travancore (4) Rampur
Q.17) An electrical appliance is earthed to:
(1) protect the appliance against any damage
(2) prevent shocks
(3) reduce consumption
(4) avoid short-circuiting
Q.18) The NPT (Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty) came into force in:
(1) 1968 (2) 1972
(3) 1970 (4) 1974
Q.19) Allugel tablets used to reduce acidity contain:
(1) sodium carbonate (2) sodium hydroxide
(3) ammonia (4) aluminium hydroxide
Q.20) Lowest percentage of carbon is in:
(1) cast iron (2) steel
(3) wrought iron (4) pig iron
Q.21) Consider the following statements with regard to the Supreme Court of India:
a. The Supreme Court has been created under the Constitution of India.
b. The Supreme Court at present comprises of a Chief Justice and 25 ordinary judges.
c. The Supreme Court has its permanent seat at Near Delhi, but it can meet elsewhere if the Chief
Justice of India so decides in consultation with the President of India.
d. The Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends over disputes between India and Foreign
Countries.
Of these statements:
(1) a, b and d are correct (2) a, b and c are correct
(3) b, c and d are correct (4) a, c and d are correct
Q.22) The most malleable metal is:
(1) platinum (2) silver
(3) iron (4) gold
Q.23) According to the Reserve Bank of India Credit and Monetary Policy, the rate of increase in the
Minimum Support Price (MSP) of food grains has been more than that of the rate of inflation. This
would mean that:
(1) Inflation will be more than the price of food grains.
(2) There will be an increase in the availability of food grains.
(3) Increase in the price of food grains will be more than proportionate to the rate of inflation
(4) There will be a reduction in the open market price of food grains.
Q.24) For respiration deep sea divers use mixture of
(1) Oxygen and carbon dioxide
(2) Hydrogen and oxygen
(3) Oxygen and nitrogen
(4) Oxygen and helium
Q.25) The compound used as an anti malarial drugs is:
(1) Aspirin (2) Chloroquine
(3) Penicillin (4) Hydroquine
ANSWERS
1. (4)
2. (2)
3. (1)
4. (4)
5. (4)
6. (3)
7. (3)
8. (3)
9. (4)
10. (4)
11. (2)
12. (1)
13. (2)
14. (1)
15. (1)
16. (4)
17. (2)
18. (3)
19. (4)
20. (3)
21. (2)
22. (4)
23. (3)
24. (3)
25. (2)
GENERAL AWARENESS TEST PAPER 10
1. A substance which readily forms colloidal solution in contact with water is called
(a) Extrinsic colloid (b) Associated colloid
(c) Hydrophobic colloid (d) Hydrophilic colloid
2. An astronaut in outer space will observe sky as
(a) white (b) black
(c) blue (d) red
3. Which one of the following lenses should be used to correct the defect of astigmatism?
(a) Cylindrical lens (b) Concave lens
(c) Convex lens (d) Bifocal lens
4. Electron was discovered by
(a) Ernest Rutherford (b) Max Planck
(c) Joseph Thomson (d) Albert Einstein
5. The first thermionic value was invented by
(a) Thomas Edison (b) Richardson
(c) J.A.Fleming (d) Lee De Forest
6. The science dealing with the study of teeth is
(a) Odontology (b) Ornithology
(c) Phenology (d) Cosmology
7. When formaldehyde and potassium hydroxide are heated, we get
(a) Acetylene (b) Methyl alcohol
(c) Methane (d) Ethyl formate
8. The enzyme in whose presence glucose and fructose are converted into alcohol is
(a) Diastase (b) Maitase
(c) Invertase (d) Zymase
9. Which of the following acids is manufactured using sawdust?
(a) Oxalic acid (b) Citric acid
(c) Acetic acid (d) Butyric acid
10. The study of visceral organs is
(a) Angiology (b) Arthrology
(c) Anthrology (d) Splanchnology
11. Whose achievements are recorded in the Allahabad Pillar inscription?
(a) Chandra Gupta Maurya (b) Samundra Gupta
(c) Vikramaditya (d) Skand Gupta
12. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was equated with
(a) Mazzini (b) Cavour
(c) Garibaldi (d) Biamarck
13. Which of the following was not ordered by Alauddin Khalji to control black-marketing and
hoarding?
(a) Land revenue should be collected in kind.
(b) Cultivators should sell the harvested crops on the field only.
(c) Merchants should sell all commodities in the open.
(d) More privileges should be given to Khuts and Muqaddams.
14. The branch of biology dealing with the study of cells is known as
(a) Cytology (b) Histology
(c) Psychology (d) Physiology
15. The study of extinct animals is called
(a) Herpetology (b) Ornithology
(c) Geology (d) Palaeontology
16. The medical term used for the sleeplessness is
(a) Somnambulism (b) Insomnia
(c) Hallucination (d) Nyctinuria
17. The causative agent of Tuberculosis is
(a) Mycobacterium (b) Aspergillus
(c) Rhabdovirus (d) HIV
18. The enzyme that is present in the saliva of man is
(a) Pepsin (b) Renin
(c) Amylase (d) Trypsin
19. Blood cancer is otherwise called as
(a) Anaemia (b) Polycythemia
(c) Leucopenia (d) Leukaemia
20. For which community were seats reserved by teh Morley-Minto reforms?
(a) Jews (b) Muslims
(c) Christians (d) Sikhs
21. The tenth plan aims to reduce the poverty ratio by 2007 to
(a) 10% (b) 30%
(c) 20% (d) 5%
22. What does ECS in banking transactions stand for?
(a) Excess Credit Supervisor (b) Extra Cash Status
(c) Exchange Clearing Standard (d) Electronic Clearing Service
23. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lava and magma both have gas
(b) Neither the lave nor the magma has gas
(c) Magma has gas while lava has no gas
(d) Lava has gas while magma has no gas
24. Which one of the following is the example of sedimentary rocks?
(a) Loess (b) Basalt
(c) Granite (d) Gabbro
25. Mica is found in which one of the following pairs of rocks?
(a) State-Sandstone (b) Schist-Gneiss
(c) Limestone-Sandstone (d) Shale-Limestone
26. The Mohorovicic (Moho) Discontinuity separates
(a) Outer core and Mantle (b) Inner and Outer core
(c) Sima and Nife (d) Crust and Mantle
27. Cartels is a form of
(a) Collusive oligopoly (b) Non-collusive oligopoly
(c) Monopoly (d) Monopolistic competition
28. “The national income consists of a collection of goods and services reduced to common basis by
being measured in terms of money.” – Who says this?
(a) Samuelson (b) Kuznets
(c) Hicks (d) Pigou
29. According to India’s Report of 2001 percentage of population living in rural areas is
(a) 70 (b) 72
(c) 74 (d) 80
30. Capital : Output Ratio of a measures
(a) its per unit cost of production
(b) the amount of capital invested per unit of output
(c) the ratio of capital depreciation to quantity of output
(d) the ratio of working capital employed to quantity of output
31. The writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights are issued by
(a) The Parliament (b) The President
(c) The Supreme Court (d) The Election Commission
32. Whcih of the following is a feature to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?
(a) A single citizenship
(b) Dual judiciary
(c) Three Lists in the Constitution
(d) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
33. Which one of the following items is not included in the current account of india’s Balance of
Payments?
(a) Short-term commercial borrowings
(b) Non-monetary gold movements
(c) Investment income
(d) Transfer payments
34. Engel’s Law states the relationship between
(a) quantity demanded and price of a commodity
(b) quantity demanded and price of substitutes
(c) quantity demanded and tastes of the consumers
(d) quantity demanded and income of the consumers
35. Which of the following is not a tool of legislative control over administration in India?
(a) Dissolution of House (b) Resolutions
(c) Questions (d) No Confidence Motion
36. Evaluate the following statements:
I. The legal interpretation of equality is chiefly influenced by equality before law and equal
protection of law
II. Equality before law means rule of law
(a) I is correct but II is incorrect (b) II is correct but I is incorrect
(c) Both are correct (d) Both are incorrect
37. A writ issued by the Supreme Court compelling a quasi-judicial/public authority to perform its
mandatory duty is
(a) Quo warranto (b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition
38. In Gandhian Socialism
(a) State is required
(b) State is not required
(c) State is sometimes required and sometimes not required
(d) State is neither required nor not required
39. With which of the following books is Hobbes associated?
(a) Lectures on Jurisprudence (b) Social Contract
(c) Republic (d) Leviathan
40. In which year were the Indian states reorganized on the linguistic basis?
(a) 1947 (b) 1951
(c) 1956 (d) 1966
41. The book Truth, Love and A Little Malice’ is written by
(a) Tarun Tejpal (b) Vikram Seth
(c) Khushwant Singh (d) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
42. WLL stands for
(a) Walking Land Line (b) Walking Loop Line
(c) Wireless Land Line (d) Wireless in Local Loop
43. Who received the Wisden Award for the ‘Indian Cricketer of the 20th Century’?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Kapil Dev
(c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Anil Kumble
44. The Ad Line ‘Connecting People’ is linked with
(a) Sony Ericsson (b) Nokia
(c) Motorola (d) Airtel
45. Match teh personlities mentioned below with the activity they are associated with:
1. Rod Laver 2. Chanda Kochar
3. Birju Maharaj 4. Bala Murlikrishnan
I. Kathak Dancing II. Music
III. Lawn Tennis IV. Banking
1 2 3 4
(a) III IV I II
(b) I III II IV
(c) II I IV III
(d) IV II III I
46. Find the odd one?
(a) J.R.Hicks (b) Richard Stone
(c) Friedrich August von Hayek (d) Amartya Sen
47. ISRO is abbreviation for
(a) Indian Scientific Research Organization
(b) International Space Research Organization
(c) International Sales Research Organization.
(d) Indian Space Research Organization
48. Match the following political leaders of India with their respective political parties:
1. Sharad Pawar a. CPI
2. Sharad Yadav b. BSP
3. Mayawati c. JD(U)
4. A.B.Bardhan d. NCP
1 2 3 4
(a) III IV II I
(b) IV III II I
(c) IV III I II
(d) II I III IV
49. Which among the following countries would host the 2006 Olympic Games?
(a) India (b) South Korea
(c) Greece (d) China
50. Superconductors are those elements
(a) Whose conductivity is intermediate between metals and insulators.
(b) Whose resistance falls almost to zero at very low temperatures.
(c) Which turn into insulators at very low temperature.
(d) Which conduct electricity only at super-high temperatures.
ANSWERS
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (c)
6. (a)
7. (d)
8. (d)
9. (a)
10. (a)
11. (b)
12. (d)
13. (d)
14. (a)
15. (d)
16. (b)
17. (a)
18. (c)
19. (d)
20. (b)
21. (c)
22. (d)
23. (b)
24. (a)
25. (b)
26. (d)
27. (c)
28. (b)
29. (b)
30. (b)
31. (c)
32. (d)
33. (a)
34. (d)
35. (a)
36. (c)
37. (b)
38. (b)
39. (a)
40. (c)
41. (c)
42. (d)
43. (b)
44. (b)
45. (a)
46. (c)
47. (d)
48. (b)
49. (d)
50. (b)
G. K.
Q.1) In the Union Budgets is India, which one of the following is the largest in amount?
(A) Plan Expenditure (B) Non-Plan Expenditure
(C) Revenue Expenditure (D) Capital Expenditure
Q.2) The important metal used with iron to produce stainless steel is :
(A) Carbon (B) Tin
(C) Chromium (D) Aluminium
Q.3) What is the source of electrical energy in an artificial satellite?
(A) Solar cells (B) Mini nuclear reactor
(C) Dynamo (D) Thermopile
Q.4) The age of the tree can be determined from the :
(A) Counting of leaves on the tree
(B) Counting the number of rings on its stem
(C) Counting the branches on the tree
(D) Measurement of its height
Q.5) The fuel tanks of the spacecraft ‘Discovery’ that was launched into space on July 4, 2006 was filled
with :
(A) Liquid hydrogen only
(B) Liquid oxygen only
(C) Mixture of liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen
(D) Mixture of liquid hydrogen, liquid oxygen and liquid helium
Q.6) Consider the following statements and give the answer with the help of codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Only one side of the moon’s surface is visible from the earth.
Reason (R) : The period of rotation of the moon on its axis is equal to the period of its revolution
round the earth.
Code:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.
(D) A is wrong but R is correct.
Q.7) The weight of any body is :
(A) Same at every place on earth’s surface
(B) Maximum at poles
(C) More on equator
(D) More on mountains than in plains
Q.8) On July 3, 2006, the first train was out from Lhasa Railway station. When it passed through its highest
point over the Tibetan grassland, many passengers reached out for which of the following to ward off
altitude sickness?
(A) Mineral water bottle (B) Pollution filter mask
(C) Oxygen mask (D) Cold drink bottle
Q.9) The most toxic metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is :
(A) Copper (B) Lead
(C) Cadmium (D) Mercury
Q.10) Who is known as “Father of White Revolution” in India?
(A) M.S.Swaminathan (B) V.Kurien
(C) K.N.Bahl (D) B.P.Pal
Q.11) Blue green algae are chiefly used as biofertiliser in the crop of :
(A) Wheat (B) Gram
(C) Paddy (D) Mustard
Q.12) The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called :
(A) Inverter (B) Rectifier
(C) Transformer (D) Transmeter
Q.13) An earth satellite is kept moving in its orbit. It is due to the phenomenon of centripetal force provided
by :
(A) The rocket engine propelling the satellite
(B) The gravitational attraction of the Earth on the satellite
(C) The gravitational attraction of the Sun on the satellite
(D) The gravitational attraction of satellite on Earth
Q.14) A person meets with an accident and needs blood-transfusion but there is no time to check his
bloodgroup. Which of the following blood groups could be given to him?
(A) O + (B) O –
(C) AB + (D) AB –
Q.15) Shahtoosh shawl is made from the hair of :
(A) Hangul (B) Chinkara
(C) Chiru (D) Merino
Q.16) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Dry ice : solid carbon dioxide
(B) Mustard gas : poisonous liquid used in chemical warfare
(C) Teflon : polymer containing fluorine
(D) Fullerence : organic compounds containing fluorine
Q.17) The energy of the sun is produced by :
(A) Nuclear fission (B) Ionisation
(C) Nuclear fusion (D) Oxidation
Q.18) The tax on import and export is known as :
(A) Income Tax (B) Trade Tax
(C) Custom Duty (D) None of the above
Q.19) On which of the following dates is your shadow at noon the smallest?
(A) December 25 (B) March 21
(C) June 22 (D) February 14
Q.20) Centre for DNA fingerprinting is located at :
(A) New Delhi (B) Bangalore
(C) Pune (D) Hyderabad
Q.21) Ozone layer in atmosphere :
(A) Produces rain
(B) Produces pollution
(C) Provides safety to life on earth from ultraviolet radiation
(D) Produces oxygen in the atmosphere
Q.22) Cryogenic engines are used in :
(A) Rockets (B) Atomic reactors
(C) Defrost refrigerators (D) Doing research connected with superconductivity
Q.23) Transformer is used for :
(A) Converting AC into DC
(B) Converting DC into AC
(C) To step up DC voltages
(D) To step up or step down AC voltages
Q.24) Match the columns with Lists-I and II and select the correct answer with the help of code given below
:
List-I List-II
(a) High Velocity 1. Mach
(b) Wavelength 2. Angstrom
(c) Pressure 3. Pascal
(d) Energy 4. Jule
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Q.25) The most commonly used substance in fluorescent tubes are:
(A) Sodium oxide and argon
(B) Sodium vapour and neon
(C) Mercury vapour and argon
(D) Mercuric oxide and neon
ANSWERS
1. (C)
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (B)
5. (C)
6. (A)
7. (C)
8. (C)
9. (B)
10. (B)
11. (C)
12. (C)
13. (B)
14. (B)
15. (C)
16. (D)
17. (C)
18. (C)
19. (C)
20. (D)
21. (C)
22. (A)
23. (D)
24. (C)
25. (C)