STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION Stenographer Grade (C&D) Examination, 2010 Declaration of Written Result to call the candidates for Skill Test (Stenographer Grade ‘C’ Only). Staff Selection Commission conducted the Stenographer Grade (C&D) Examination, 2010 on 9.1.2011 at various centres all over the country. Written result in respect of Stenographer Grade ‘D’ was declared on 25.1.2011, wherein, it was mentioned that the candidates to called for skill test for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘C’ will be declared in due course. 2. Following is the list of 2328 candidates in roll number order who have qualified provisionally in the written part of the examination for Skill Tests for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘C’ subject to their fulfilling all eligibility conditions and also correctness of the information furnished by them in their applications. The cut-off fixed and availability of candidates under different categories is as under: Category SC ST OBC EXS PH HH VH UR TOTAL Cut - Off Marks 77.50 59.75 81.00 -- 48.50 -- 30 98 --- Candidates available 414* 255* 895* -- 152 -- 31 579 2328 * includes candidates qualifying at UR standard. 3. The results are purely provisional and subject to the recommended candidates fulfilling all the eligibility conditions prescribed for the post in the Notice of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. The candidature of the candidates are liable to be cancelled by respective Regional Directors in case of the candidates found not fulfilling the eligibility conditions or for any other genuine reasons. 4. For candidates belonging to reserved categories for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per Government Policy, the category status is indicated against their Roll Numbers. It is important to note that most of these candidates have been declared qualified only for the category mentioned against their Roll Numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned against his/her name, he/she may not be eligible to be included in the list. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to immediately contact the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown against their Roll Numbers. 5. The Skill Test are scheduled to commence tentatively from 2nd fortnight of March, 2011 for programme of individual regional offices of the Commission, candidates are advised to follow concerned regional office website. In this connection the following points are brought to the notice of the candidates. Skill Test in Stenography: a) The Skill Test will be taken on computers. b) The Skill Test would be qualifying in nature. The candidates will have to appear for the stenography test. The candidates will be given one dictation for 10 minutes in English/Hindi at the Speed of 100 w.p.m. for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘C’. The transcription time is as under:- English - 40 minutes Hindi - 55 minutes c) There is no exemption from Skill Test for any category of candidates. d) If the candidates had not indicated the medium of Stenography Test at relevant place in the application form, the Commission will consider English as the medium of Stenography Test for such candidates and candidates will not be allowed to change the medium at subsequent stage.
- (2) – e) VH candidates will be required to transcribe the matter in 70 minutes for English Shorthand or in 95 minutes for Hindi Shorthand for the post of Stenographer Grade ‘C’. f) The Skill Test will be held at Commission’s Regional /Sub-Regional Offices or at other centres as may be decided by the Commission. 6. Result of this examination is available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in. (R.K. Arora) Under Secretary (C.I) 24.02.2011
Saturday, February 26, 2011
RE-EXAM CHSL SSC RESULT NOTICE CUTOFF MARKS
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION Combined Higher Secondary (10+2), 2010 (Re-Exam held at some venue of WR, ER & CR) Declaration of Written Result to call the candidates for Type Test /Data Entry Skill Test Staff Selection Commission conducted the Re-Examination of Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Examination, 2010 at some venues at Allahabad (CR), at Ranchi and Bhubaneshwar (ER) and at Nasik (WR) on 30.01.2011 for recruitment to the post of Data Entry Operators and Lower Division Clerks A total of 450 candidates appeared in the said examination. 2. Following is the list of 16 candidates in roll number order who have qualified provisionally in the written part of the examination and are thus eligible to be called for Type Test /Data Entry Skill Tests subject to their fulfilling all eligibility conditions and also correctness of the information furnished by them in their applications. Category SC ST OBC ExS PH HH VH UR Total Cut off Marks 87.50 80.25 95.25 60.00 76.50 60.00 60.00 106.50 - Candidates Available 2 0 9 1 0 0 1 3 16 3. The list is purely provisional and subject to the recommended candidates fulfilling all the eligibility conditions prescribed for the respective post in the Notice of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. The candidature of the candidates are liable to be cancelled by respective Regional Directors in case candidates found not fulfilling the eligibility conditions or any other genuine reasons. 4. For candidates belonging to reserved categories for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per Government Policy, the category status is indicated against their Roll Numbers. It is important to note that some of these candidates have been declared qualified only for the category mentioned against their Roll Numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned against his/her name, he/she may not be eligible to be included in the list. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to immediately contact the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown against their Roll Numbers.
5. Type Test/ Data Entry Skill Tests on computers are being held currently and respective Regional Offices will issue call letters to the successful candidates, subject to their options in the applications. In this connection the following points are brought to the notice of the candidates. Skill Test for Data Entry Operators: a) The Skill Test will be taken on computers. b) The ‘Data Entry Speed’ Skill Test would be qualifying in nature. Candidates allowed to take this test, will have to qualify the test at the prescribed speed on computer, to be provided by the Commission or the agency authorized by the Commission to conduct such skill test at the centre /venue so notified. c) None of the candidates including PH candidates who qualify in the written part of the examination will be exempted from the skill test as passing of the skill test is pre-condition and one of the essential qualifications for appointment to the post of Data Entry Operator. d) Only such candidates who qualify in the skill test at a speed of not less than 8,000 key depressions per hour will be eligible for being recommended for appointment as per their position in the merit list. e) The duration of the said skill test will be 15 (fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 2,000 key depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the computer. Skill Test for LDC: a) The skill test will be taken on computers. b) Typing test will be qualifying in nature and will be conducted only in English or in Hindi. English Typing @ 35 w.p.m. (Time allowed 10 minutes) (30 minutes for VH candidate) Hindi Typing @ 30 w.p.m. (Time allowed 10 minutes) (30 minutes for VH candidates). (35 w.p.m. and 30 w.p.m. corresponds to 10500 Key Depressions Per Hour/9000 Key Depressions Per Hour on an average of 5 Key Depressions for each word) 7. Result of this examination and marks of unsuccessful candidates are available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. Detailed instructions on Skill Tests are also available on the Commission’s website. (R.K. Arora) Under Secretary (C.I) 17.02.2011
5. Type Test/ Data Entry Skill Tests on computers are being held currently and respective Regional Offices will issue call letters to the successful candidates, subject to their options in the applications. In this connection the following points are brought to the notice of the candidates. Skill Test for Data Entry Operators: a) The Skill Test will be taken on computers. b) The ‘Data Entry Speed’ Skill Test would be qualifying in nature. Candidates allowed to take this test, will have to qualify the test at the prescribed speed on computer, to be provided by the Commission or the agency authorized by the Commission to conduct such skill test at the centre /venue so notified. c) None of the candidates including PH candidates who qualify in the written part of the examination will be exempted from the skill test as passing of the skill test is pre-condition and one of the essential qualifications for appointment to the post of Data Entry Operator. d) Only such candidates who qualify in the skill test at a speed of not less than 8,000 key depressions per hour will be eligible for being recommended for appointment as per their position in the merit list. e) The duration of the said skill test will be 15 (fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 2,000 key depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the computer. Skill Test for LDC: a) The skill test will be taken on computers. b) Typing test will be qualifying in nature and will be conducted only in English or in Hindi. English Typing @ 35 w.p.m. (Time allowed 10 minutes) (30 minutes for VH candidate) Hindi Typing @ 30 w.p.m. (Time allowed 10 minutes) (30 minutes for VH candidates). (35 w.p.m. and 30 w.p.m. corresponds to 10500 Key Depressions Per Hour/9000 Key Depressions Per Hour on an average of 5 Key Depressions for each word) 7. Result of this examination and marks of unsuccessful candidates are available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. Detailed instructions on Skill Tests are also available on the Commission’s website. (R.K. Arora) Under Secretary (C.I) 17.02.2011
Saturday, February 12, 2011
U.P.P.S.C General Studies Solved Paper 2011
1. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent is found at—
(A) Lothal
(B) Harappa
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) Mundigak
Ans : (C)
2. During the Rig Vedic period Niska was an ornament of—
(A) Ear
(B) Neck
(C) Arm
(D) Wrist
Ans : (B)
3. Which of the following were regarded as the hub of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period ?
(A) Anga, Magadh
(B) Kosal, Videha
(C) Kuru, Panchal
(D) Matsya, Surasena
Ans : (C)
4. Who among the following was the first to take initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region ?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Asoka
(C) Rudradaman
(D) Skandagupta
Ans : (A)
5. That Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of—
(A) Asoka
(B) Kanishka
(C) Harsha
(D) Dharmapala
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following Gupta Kings had another name Devagupta ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Kumaragupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
7. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-Chakra Jina Vihara at—
(A) Bodha Gaya
(B) Rajgrih
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath
Ans : (D)
8. Which of the following dynasties frequently assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in administration ?
(A) Chola
(B) Chalukya
(C) Pala
(D) Sena
Ans : (B)
9. Who among the following Rajput rulers is known to have written a book on music ?
(A) Jayachandra Gahadavala
(B) Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Man Singh
Ans : (C)
10. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Razia
(C) Balban
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (A)
11. Who among the following was the continuing link between Sher Shah and Akbar in the field of land revenue administration ?
(A) Birbal
(B) Todar Mal
(C) Bhagwan Das
(D) Bhar Mal
Ans : (B)
12. With which medieval ruler would you associate the statement ‘I would have lost the empire just for a handful of millet’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammad Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (C)
13. The Maratha King became a nonentity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of—
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao I
(C) Balaji Rao
(D) Madnav Rao I
Ans : (B)
14. Thomas Roe was received in audience by Jehangir at—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur Sikri
Ans : (A)
15. Which one of the following musical instruments was mastered by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Pakhawaj
(C) Veena
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
16. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his father, weakening the latter’s position against the Rajputs ?
(A) Azam
(B) Akbar
(C) Muazzam
(D) Kam Baksh
Ans : (B)
17. Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade ?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (D)
18. What did the Act V of 1843 make illegal ?
(A) Child marriage
(B) Infanticide
(C) Sati
(D) Slavery
Ans : (D)
19. Who among the following was the leader of the revolution of 1857 in Assam ?
(A) Diwan Maniram Dutta
(B) Kandarpeshwar Singh
(C) Purandar Singh
(D) Piali Barua
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following Acts transferred the Government of India from East India Company to the Crown ?
(A) Government of India Act 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act 1861
(C) Royal Titles Act 1876
(D) Indian Councils Act 1892
Ans : (A)
21. The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held at—
(A) Bombay
(B) Poona
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta
Ans : (A)
22. The paper ‘Indian Mirror’ was published during 1861 from—
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Pondicherry
Ans : (B)
23. Name the organization formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886—
(A) East India Association
(B) London India Society
(C) Indian Association
(D) Indian National Conference
Ans : (C)
24. Who among the following introduced the Vernacular Press Act ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Hastings
Ans : (A)
25. The President of Surat Session of Indian National Congress, 1907 was—
(A) R. B. Ghosh
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Annie Besant
(D) G. K. Gokhale
Ans : (A)
26. Who among the following had started Indian Home Rule Society in London ?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Shyamji Krishna Varma
(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Ans : (C)
27. The first Trade Union was founded in India in the year 1918 by—
(A) N. M. Joshi
(B) B. P. Wadia
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) S. A. Dange
Ans : (B)
28. Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a
protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Shankaran Nair
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
Ans : (C)
29. Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) N. G. Ranga
(C) Rajkumar Shukla
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)
30. In which one of the following languages was the first issue of the Journal Ghadar published ?
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Marathi
Ans : (A)
31. Who was the author of the book ‘Bandi Jiwan’ ?
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Hema Chandrakar
(C) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) Sachindra Sanyal
Ans : (D)
32. Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement :
1. Gandhi-Irvin Pact
2. Execution of Bhagat Singh
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress, 1931
4. Martyrdom of Chandra Shekhar Azad
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given
below—
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Ambika Charan Majumdar
List-II
1. Home Rule Movement
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Lucknow Session of Indian
National Congress, 1916
4. Lahore Session of Indian
National Congress, 1929
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (A)
34. Who among the following said about the Act of 1935 "a car which has brake but no engine" ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) S. C. Bose
Ans : (A)
35. Who formed the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 ?
(A) Indrasen
(B) M. N. Roy
(C) Somendranath Tagore
(D) Shachindranath Sanyal
Ans : (B)
36. Who started the individual Satyagraha ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (D)
37. Who among the following called the movements of Gandhiji as ‘political blackmail’ ?
(A) Lord Chelmsford
(B) Lord Wavel
(C) Lord Linlithgow
(D) Lord Montague
Ans : (C)
38. Muslim League observed the ‘Direct Action Day’ on—
(A) 12 August 1942
(B) 16 August 1943
(C) 16 August 1946
(D) 14 August 1947
Ans : (C)
39. Arrange in chronological order the following events which occurred during post-independence period :
1. Liberation of Goa
2. Dalai Lama fled to India
3. Chou En-Lai visited India
4. India visit of Khrushchev and Bulganin
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (D)
40. Who among the following were responsible for the creation of Ratha monuments at Mamallapuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Chalukyas
Ans : (B)
41. The ancient monuments of Elephanta are mostly
1. Buddhist
2. Jain
3. Saivite
4. Vaishnavite
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (C)
42. Which of the following temples is considered as a wonder of rock-cut architecture ?
(A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur
(B) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar
(C) Kailash Temple, Ellora
(D) Kandaria Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho
Ans : (C)
43. Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagar ?
(A) Ahmadnagar
(B) Bijapur
(C) Golconda
(D) Hampi
Ans : (D)
44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar’s Tomb —Sikandara
(B) Jahangir’s Tomb —Sahdara
(C) Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti —Fatehpur Sikri
(D) Tomb of Shaikh Nizamuddin Aulia —Ajmer
Ans : (D)
45. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Nabha
(C) Nankana
(D) Nander
Ans : (C)
46. Where did Maharaja Jaisingh II built observatories ?
1. Delhi
2. Jaipur
3. Ujjain
4. Varanasi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
47. Who among the following transformed the traditional Ganapati festival of Maharashtra into a national festival and gave it a political character ?
(A) Ramdas
(B) Shivaji
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)
48. Who among the following had founded the ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’
to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
(A) Abanindra Nath Tagore
(B) Nand Lal Bose
(C) Asit Kumar Haldhar
(D) Amrita Shergill
Ans : (A)
49. Who among the following was offered Membership of the Royal Asiatic Society of Paris ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) Vivekanand
Ans : (B)
50. The first University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in—
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
51. Who among the following had said, ‘God intended me to look upon all religions with one eye, that is why he took away the light from the other’ ?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Maharaja Sher Singh
(C) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
52. Who among the following deities is represented in art as holding a plough ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Balarama
(C) Kartikeya
(D) Maitreya
Ans : (B)
53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru —Hind Swaraj
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Wins Freedom
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose —Indian Struggle
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai —Unhappy India
Ans : (A)
54. Which one of the following will be the year of Saka Samvat in December 2009 ?
(A) 1931
(B) 1952
(C) 2066
(D) 2087
Ans : (A)
55. The smallest million city of India is—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Allahabad
(C) Rajkot
(D) Vijayawada
Ans : (C)
56. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of Chhota Nagpur plateau ?
(A) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from the Damodar
(B) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc.
(C) Development of mining industries and industrialization
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
57. Which one of the following classes of towns are included in the category of small towns by the Census of India ?
(A) Class VI
(B) Class V and VI
(C) Class IV, V and VI
(D) Class III, IV, V and VI
Ans : (D)
58. In India maximum number of cities reporting slums are found in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
59. The coast areas of which of the following oceans are called ‘ring of fire’ ?
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
60. ‘Operation Green’ was launched in Uttar Pradesh on—
(A) July 1, 2001
(B) October 2, 2001
(C) July 1, 2005
(D) June 6, 2006
Ans : (C)
61. The country which has the finest system of protected lands in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Costa Rica
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (D)
62. In India maximum alkali area is found in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
63. In India Project Elephant was launched in the year—
(A) 1968
(B) 1970
(C) 1972
(D) 1974
Ans : Project Elephant was started in 1992
64. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Simlipal —Assam
(B) Nokrek —Meghalaya
(C) Dehong Debang —Sikkim
(D) Agasthyamalai —Karnataka
Ans : (B)
65. According to the 2001 Census Report, male female ratio in India is—
(A) 1000 : 930
(B) 1000 : 934
(C) 1000 : 926
(D) 1000 : 933
Ans : (D)
66. Which State of India has the largest Muslim population according to the 2001 Census ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
67. Among the following States which one has the highest sex ratio, according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
68. The State which recorded the minimum population growth rate during 1991-2001 is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
69. In which year was the first regular Census held in India ?
(A) 1921
(B) 1881
(C) 1911
(D) 1931
Ans : (B)
70. Which of the following countries are included in the ‘Golden Crescent’ ?
1. Afghanistan
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Pakstan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)
71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley —Diamond
(B) Witwatersrand —Gold
(C) Katomga —Copper
(D) Saar —Iron ore
Ans : (D)
72. Which one of the following countries has the highest birth rate ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (D)
73. Alexandria is a port of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)
74. Which one of the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (B)
75. Persian Gulf does not form border with—
(A) Bahrain
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Oman
Ans : (D)
76. Which one of the following countries is the third largest economy of the world ?
(A) Japan
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) China
Ans : (A)
77. The Equator passes through—
(A) Central African Republic
(B) Kenya
(C) Sarawak
(D) Venezuela
Ans : (B)
78. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? Minerals—Producing Areas
(A) Copper—Arizona
(B) Coal—Carajas
(C) Iron Ore—Rastanura
(D) Petroleum—Donbas
Ans : (A)
79. Which of the following are active volcanoes ?
1. Aconagua
2. Cotopaxi
3. Etna
4. Fujiyama
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : Incorrect Options
80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ghana—Accra
(B) Kenya—Nairobi
(C) Namibia—Windhooks
(D) Nigeria—Rabat
Ans : (D)
81. Through which of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ?
(A) Davis Strait
(B) Denmark Strait
(C) Strait of Dover
(D) Strait of Gibralter
Ans : (C)
82. In which of the following group of countries maize is used as staple food ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) Russia
(C) Middle Africa
(D) South-East Asia
Ans : (C)
83. The biggest port in India is—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Kandla
Ans : (B)
84. Sankosh river forms boundary between—
(A) Bihar and West Bengal
(B) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam and West Bengal
(D) Bihar and Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
85. Pir Panjal range lies in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (B)
86. Which of the following city of Uttar Pradesh is not joined by Nationla Highway 2 ?
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)
87. Which of the following rivers is an example of the superimposed drainage ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Kosi
(C) Chambal
(D) Godawari
Ans : (C)
88. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
3. Longer crushing season
4. Cheap labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
89. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming ?
(A) Millets and Rice
(B) Cotton and Tobacco
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Vegetables and Fruits
Ans : (A)
90. Teak and Sal are the products of—
(A) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
(B) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(C) Tropical Thorn Forests
(D) Alpine Forests
Ans : (A)
91. On which one of the following rivers is ‘Tulbul’ Project located ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Ravi
(C) Beas
(D) Jhelum
Ans : (D)
92. Which one of the following is the actual source of the Son river ?
(A) Amarkantak in Shahdol district
(B) Son Muda in Shahdol district
(C) Son Bachharwar in Bilaspur district
(D) Mandla plateau
Ans : (A)
93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Nuclear Plant—Year of Commissioning
(A) Kota—1989
(B) Kakrapar—1984
(C) Kaiga—1999
(D) Kalpakkam—1995
Ans : (C)
94. Rubber industry in India is located at—
(A) Panjim
(B) Bangalore
(C) Puducherri
(D) Aurangabad
Ans : (B)
95. In March 2009 the BrahMos Missile was tested at—
(A) Pokharan
(B) Chandipur
(C) Cape Canveral
(D) Sri Harikota
Ans : (A)
96. The countries, which participated in Malabar-2009 exercises, were—
(A) China, England, Russia
(B) China, India, Russia
(C) India, USA, Japan
(D) Japan, England, USA
Ans : (C)
97. Three ‘Phalcon AWACS’ supplied by Israel were received in India for the first time in—
(A) March 2009
(B) April 2009
(C) May 2009
(D) February 2009
Ans : (C)
98. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2008 is—
(A) Al Gore
(B) Muhammad Yunus
(C) Martti Ahtisaari
(D) Wangari Maathai
Ans : (C)
99. Who among the following has been chosen for ‘Hoover Medal’ in March 2009 for his contribution to the upliftment of the poor and the rural people ?
(A) Sam Patroda
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) Baba Amte
Ans : (B)
100. In April 2009, G-20 Summit was held in—
(A) Geneva
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (B)
101. India was represented in the Annual Meet of the World Economic Forum, held in Davos (Switzerland) in January 2009, by—
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Kamal Nath
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Kapil Sibbal
Ans : (B)
102. The first woman to be the Speaker of Lok Sabha is—
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Meira Kumar
Ans : (D)
103. Which movie has been given the Best Movie Award in 66th Golden Globe Awards ?
(A) Mall E
(B) Slumdog Millionaire
(C) The Dark Night
(D) The Reader
Ans : (B)
104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Recent Padma Awardees—Awards
(A) Bhimsen Joshi– Bharat Ratna
(B) Abhinav Bindra – Padma Vibhushan
(C) Shekhar Gupta – Padma Bhushan
(D) Aishwarya Rai – Padma Shri
Ans : (B)
105. Who among the following won the best actor award in the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Hritik Roshan
(C) Abhishek Bachchan
(D) Salman Khan
Ans : (B)
106. Where did Prime Minsiter Manmohan Singh, having taken charge of the new government after 2009 elections, meet Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari for the first time ?
(A) Cairo
(B) London
(C) Shanghai
(D) Yekaterinburg
Ans : (D)
107. Which among the following countries attended as observers the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit held on 16 June 2009 ?
1. Russia
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Iran
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
108. Name the player who has been awarded the 2008 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Gautam Gambhir
(D) M. S. Dhoni
Ans : (D)
109. The only Indian Gold Medal Winner in Olympic 2008 is—
(A) Sudesh Kumar
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)
110. The winner of Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) China
(B) Malaysia
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Korea
Ans : (D)
111. The winner State of 17th Senior National Women’s Football Championship held in March 2009, was—
(A) Manipur
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (A)
112. The two games, which have been excluded from the Olympic Games to be held in 2012 in London, are—
(A) Badminton and Table Tennis
(B) Basketball and Volleyball
(C) Tennis and Wrestling
(D) Softball and Baseball
Ans : (D)
113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sushil Kumar—Wrestling
(B) Anand Pawar—Badminton
(C) Arjun Rao—Archery
(D) Pankaj Advani—Shooting
Ans : (D)
114. The captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) Dilip Tirkey
(B) Rajpal Singh
(C) Sandeep Singh
(D) V. Raghunath
Ans : (C)
115. Asia Cup Hockey Tournament was held in May 2009 in—
(A) India
(B) Malaysia
(C) South Korea
(D) UAE
Ans : (B)
116. In which of the following States the National Games, 2011 will be held ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (B)
117. A cropping system where crops are grown in the inter spaces between rows of planted trees is called—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Inter-cropping
(D) Alley cropping
Ans : (D)
118. Application of gypsum is required more in the crop of—
(A) Paddy
(B) Berseem
(C) Wheat
(D) Groundnut
Ans : (A)
119. The upper limit of available water in soil is determined at—
(A) 1/3 bar
(B) 1/2 bar
(C) 2/3 bar
(D) 1 bar
Ans : (A)
120. The place of origin of red gram is—
(A) America
(B) India
(C) South Africa
(D) Egypt
Ans : (C)
121. University of Horticulture and Forestry is located at—
(A) Coimbatore
(B) Solan
(C) Palampur
(D) Pant Nagar
Ans : (B)
122. Heroin is obtained from—
(A) Indian hemp
(B) Opium poppy
(C) Tobacco
(D) Arecanut
Ans : (B)
123. The leading producer of soybean in India is—
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
124. ‘Varuna’ is a variety of—
(A) Mustard
(B) Linseed
(C) Sunflower
(D) Sesamum
Ans : (A)
125. Farming of cloves is done in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
126. Consider the following statements— Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading producer of fish in India.
Reason (R) : West Bengal has well developed fishing industry along the sea
coast.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
127. In India the largest area under rice cultivation lies in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
128. The most popular sport goods come from—
(A) Ludhiana
(B) Jalandhar
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra
Ans : (B)
129. Which bank became the first bank to open its branch in China ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Punjab National Bank
Ans : (C)
130. After the merger of Air India and Indian Airlines, the new entity is now known as—
(A) Indian Airways
(B) India Airlines
(C) Air India
(D) Indo-Air
Ans : (A)
131. Which sector got high rate of growth in its cooperative units ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Cotton textile
(C) Jute
(D) Cement
Ans : (B)
132. The headquarters of the World Bank are at—
(A) Manila
(B) Washington
(C) New York
(D) Geneva
Ans : (B)
133. Inside trading is related to—
(A) Share market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) International trade
Ans : (A)
134. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(C) Co-existence of rich and poor
(D) Promoting both agriculture and industry in the economy
Ans : (B)
135. Diesel Locomotive engines are manufactured in India at—
(A) Chitranjan
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Varanasi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)
136. Invisible Export means export of—
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling
Ans : (A)
137. The headquarters of World Trade Organization are at—
(A) Doha
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) New York
Ans : (B)
138. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Muhammad Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)
139. The density of population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 Census, is—
(A) 689 per square km
(B) 589 per square km
(C) 489 per square km
(D) 389 per square km
Ans : (A)
140. In U.P. which one of the following tribes has the highest population ?
(A) Saharia
(B) Tharu
(C) Agaria
(D) Mahigir
Ans : (B)
141. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for—
(A) 60 Lok Sabha seats
(B) 70 Lok Sabha seats
(C) 80 Lok Sabha seats
(D) 90 Lok Sabha seats
Ans : (C)
142. Obra Thermal Power Plant was established with the help of—
(A) Soviet Russia
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) America
Ans : (A)
143. According to 2001 Census the female literacy percentage in U.P. is—
(A) 38•87
(B) 43•53
(C) 33•12
(D) 42•22
Ans : (D)
144. Which is the highest Dam in U.P. ?
(A) Mata-Tila
(B) Meja
(C) Rihand
(D) Ram-Ganga
Ans : (D)
145. In U.P. Uranium is available in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Jhansi
(C) Mirjapur
(D) Hamirpur
Ans : (A)
146. Firozabad is famous for producing—
(A) Bangles
(B) Locks
(C) Knives
(D) Shoes
Ans : (A)
147. Which one of the following is not a folk song of U.P. ?
(A) Birha
(B) Dhola Maru
(C) Kajri
(D) Rasia
Ans : (B)
148. Syed Salar Fair is held at—
(A) Bahraich
(B) Mankapur
(C) Barabanki
(D) Khalilabad
Ans : (A)
149. In U.P. Urdu Training and Research Centre is situated in—
(A) Barabanki
(B) Bareilly
(C) Lucknow
(D) Rampur
Ans : (C)
150. Central Institute of Subtropical Horticulture is located at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Saharanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)
(A) Lothal
(B) Harappa
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) Mundigak
Ans : (C)
2. During the Rig Vedic period Niska was an ornament of—
(A) Ear
(B) Neck
(C) Arm
(D) Wrist
Ans : (B)
3. Which of the following were regarded as the hub of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period ?
(A) Anga, Magadh
(B) Kosal, Videha
(C) Kuru, Panchal
(D) Matsya, Surasena
Ans : (C)
4. Who among the following was the first to take initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region ?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Asoka
(C) Rudradaman
(D) Skandagupta
Ans : (A)
5. That Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of—
(A) Asoka
(B) Kanishka
(C) Harsha
(D) Dharmapala
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following Gupta Kings had another name Devagupta ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Kumaragupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
7. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-Chakra Jina Vihara at—
(A) Bodha Gaya
(B) Rajgrih
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath
Ans : (D)
8. Which of the following dynasties frequently assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in administration ?
(A) Chola
(B) Chalukya
(C) Pala
(D) Sena
Ans : (B)
9. Who among the following Rajput rulers is known to have written a book on music ?
(A) Jayachandra Gahadavala
(B) Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Man Singh
Ans : (C)
10. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Razia
(C) Balban
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (A)
11. Who among the following was the continuing link between Sher Shah and Akbar in the field of land revenue administration ?
(A) Birbal
(B) Todar Mal
(C) Bhagwan Das
(D) Bhar Mal
Ans : (B)
12. With which medieval ruler would you associate the statement ‘I would have lost the empire just for a handful of millet’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammad Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (C)
13. The Maratha King became a nonentity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of—
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao I
(C) Balaji Rao
(D) Madnav Rao I
Ans : (B)
14. Thomas Roe was received in audience by Jehangir at—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur Sikri
Ans : (A)
15. Which one of the following musical instruments was mastered by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Pakhawaj
(C) Veena
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
16. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his father, weakening the latter’s position against the Rajputs ?
(A) Azam
(B) Akbar
(C) Muazzam
(D) Kam Baksh
Ans : (B)
17. Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade ?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (D)
18. What did the Act V of 1843 make illegal ?
(A) Child marriage
(B) Infanticide
(C) Sati
(D) Slavery
Ans : (D)
19. Who among the following was the leader of the revolution of 1857 in Assam ?
(A) Diwan Maniram Dutta
(B) Kandarpeshwar Singh
(C) Purandar Singh
(D) Piali Barua
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following Acts transferred the Government of India from East India Company to the Crown ?
(A) Government of India Act 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act 1861
(C) Royal Titles Act 1876
(D) Indian Councils Act 1892
Ans : (A)
21. The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held at—
(A) Bombay
(B) Poona
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta
Ans : (A)
22. The paper ‘Indian Mirror’ was published during 1861 from—
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Pondicherry
Ans : (B)
23. Name the organization formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886—
(A) East India Association
(B) London India Society
(C) Indian Association
(D) Indian National Conference
Ans : (C)
24. Who among the following introduced the Vernacular Press Act ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Hastings
Ans : (A)
25. The President of Surat Session of Indian National Congress, 1907 was—
(A) R. B. Ghosh
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Annie Besant
(D) G. K. Gokhale
Ans : (A)
26. Who among the following had started Indian Home Rule Society in London ?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Shyamji Krishna Varma
(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Ans : (C)
27. The first Trade Union was founded in India in the year 1918 by—
(A) N. M. Joshi
(B) B. P. Wadia
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) S. A. Dange
Ans : (B)
28. Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a
protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Shankaran Nair
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
Ans : (C)
29. Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) N. G. Ranga
(C) Rajkumar Shukla
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)
30. In which one of the following languages was the first issue of the Journal Ghadar published ?
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Marathi
Ans : (A)
31. Who was the author of the book ‘Bandi Jiwan’ ?
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Hema Chandrakar
(C) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) Sachindra Sanyal
Ans : (D)
32. Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement :
1. Gandhi-Irvin Pact
2. Execution of Bhagat Singh
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress, 1931
4. Martyrdom of Chandra Shekhar Azad
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given
below—
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Ambika Charan Majumdar
List-II
1. Home Rule Movement
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Lucknow Session of Indian
National Congress, 1916
4. Lahore Session of Indian
National Congress, 1929
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (A)
34. Who among the following said about the Act of 1935 "a car which has brake but no engine" ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) S. C. Bose
Ans : (A)
35. Who formed the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 ?
(A) Indrasen
(B) M. N. Roy
(C) Somendranath Tagore
(D) Shachindranath Sanyal
Ans : (B)
36. Who started the individual Satyagraha ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (D)
37. Who among the following called the movements of Gandhiji as ‘political blackmail’ ?
(A) Lord Chelmsford
(B) Lord Wavel
(C) Lord Linlithgow
(D) Lord Montague
Ans : (C)
38. Muslim League observed the ‘Direct Action Day’ on—
(A) 12 August 1942
(B) 16 August 1943
(C) 16 August 1946
(D) 14 August 1947
Ans : (C)
39. Arrange in chronological order the following events which occurred during post-independence period :
1. Liberation of Goa
2. Dalai Lama fled to India
3. Chou En-Lai visited India
4. India visit of Khrushchev and Bulganin
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (D)
40. Who among the following were responsible for the creation of Ratha monuments at Mamallapuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Chalukyas
Ans : (B)
41. The ancient monuments of Elephanta are mostly
1. Buddhist
2. Jain
3. Saivite
4. Vaishnavite
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (C)
42. Which of the following temples is considered as a wonder of rock-cut architecture ?
(A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur
(B) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar
(C) Kailash Temple, Ellora
(D) Kandaria Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho
Ans : (C)
43. Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagar ?
(A) Ahmadnagar
(B) Bijapur
(C) Golconda
(D) Hampi
Ans : (D)
44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar’s Tomb —Sikandara
(B) Jahangir’s Tomb —Sahdara
(C) Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti —Fatehpur Sikri
(D) Tomb of Shaikh Nizamuddin Aulia —Ajmer
Ans : (D)
45. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Nabha
(C) Nankana
(D) Nander
Ans : (C)
46. Where did Maharaja Jaisingh II built observatories ?
1. Delhi
2. Jaipur
3. Ujjain
4. Varanasi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
47. Who among the following transformed the traditional Ganapati festival of Maharashtra into a national festival and gave it a political character ?
(A) Ramdas
(B) Shivaji
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)
48. Who among the following had founded the ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’
to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
(A) Abanindra Nath Tagore
(B) Nand Lal Bose
(C) Asit Kumar Haldhar
(D) Amrita Shergill
Ans : (A)
49. Who among the following was offered Membership of the Royal Asiatic Society of Paris ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) Vivekanand
Ans : (B)
50. The first University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in—
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
51. Who among the following had said, ‘God intended me to look upon all religions with one eye, that is why he took away the light from the other’ ?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Maharaja Sher Singh
(C) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
52. Who among the following deities is represented in art as holding a plough ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Balarama
(C) Kartikeya
(D) Maitreya
Ans : (B)
53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru —Hind Swaraj
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Wins Freedom
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose —Indian Struggle
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai —Unhappy India
Ans : (A)
54. Which one of the following will be the year of Saka Samvat in December 2009 ?
(A) 1931
(B) 1952
(C) 2066
(D) 2087
Ans : (A)
55. The smallest million city of India is—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Allahabad
(C) Rajkot
(D) Vijayawada
Ans : (C)
56. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of Chhota Nagpur plateau ?
(A) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from the Damodar
(B) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc.
(C) Development of mining industries and industrialization
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
57. Which one of the following classes of towns are included in the category of small towns by the Census of India ?
(A) Class VI
(B) Class V and VI
(C) Class IV, V and VI
(D) Class III, IV, V and VI
Ans : (D)
58. In India maximum number of cities reporting slums are found in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
59. The coast areas of which of the following oceans are called ‘ring of fire’ ?
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
60. ‘Operation Green’ was launched in Uttar Pradesh on—
(A) July 1, 2001
(B) October 2, 2001
(C) July 1, 2005
(D) June 6, 2006
Ans : (C)
61. The country which has the finest system of protected lands in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Costa Rica
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (D)
62. In India maximum alkali area is found in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
63. In India Project Elephant was launched in the year—
(A) 1968
(B) 1970
(C) 1972
(D) 1974
Ans : Project Elephant was started in 1992
64. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Simlipal —Assam
(B) Nokrek —Meghalaya
(C) Dehong Debang —Sikkim
(D) Agasthyamalai —Karnataka
Ans : (B)
65. According to the 2001 Census Report, male female ratio in India is—
(A) 1000 : 930
(B) 1000 : 934
(C) 1000 : 926
(D) 1000 : 933
Ans : (D)
66. Which State of India has the largest Muslim population according to the 2001 Census ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
67. Among the following States which one has the highest sex ratio, according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
68. The State which recorded the minimum population growth rate during 1991-2001 is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
69. In which year was the first regular Census held in India ?
(A) 1921
(B) 1881
(C) 1911
(D) 1931
Ans : (B)
70. Which of the following countries are included in the ‘Golden Crescent’ ?
1. Afghanistan
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Pakstan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)
71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley —Diamond
(B) Witwatersrand —Gold
(C) Katomga —Copper
(D) Saar —Iron ore
Ans : (D)
72. Which one of the following countries has the highest birth rate ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (D)
73. Alexandria is a port of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)
74. Which one of the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (B)
75. Persian Gulf does not form border with—
(A) Bahrain
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Oman
Ans : (D)
76. Which one of the following countries is the third largest economy of the world ?
(A) Japan
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) China
Ans : (A)
77. The Equator passes through—
(A) Central African Republic
(B) Kenya
(C) Sarawak
(D) Venezuela
Ans : (B)
78. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? Minerals—Producing Areas
(A) Copper—Arizona
(B) Coal—Carajas
(C) Iron Ore—Rastanura
(D) Petroleum—Donbas
Ans : (A)
79. Which of the following are active volcanoes ?
1. Aconagua
2. Cotopaxi
3. Etna
4. Fujiyama
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : Incorrect Options
80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ghana—Accra
(B) Kenya—Nairobi
(C) Namibia—Windhooks
(D) Nigeria—Rabat
Ans : (D)
81. Through which of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ?
(A) Davis Strait
(B) Denmark Strait
(C) Strait of Dover
(D) Strait of Gibralter
Ans : (C)
82. In which of the following group of countries maize is used as staple food ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) Russia
(C) Middle Africa
(D) South-East Asia
Ans : (C)
83. The biggest port in India is—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Kandla
Ans : (B)
84. Sankosh river forms boundary between—
(A) Bihar and West Bengal
(B) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam and West Bengal
(D) Bihar and Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
85. Pir Panjal range lies in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (B)
86. Which of the following city of Uttar Pradesh is not joined by Nationla Highway 2 ?
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)
87. Which of the following rivers is an example of the superimposed drainage ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Kosi
(C) Chambal
(D) Godawari
Ans : (C)
88. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
3. Longer crushing season
4. Cheap labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
89. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming ?
(A) Millets and Rice
(B) Cotton and Tobacco
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Vegetables and Fruits
Ans : (A)
90. Teak and Sal are the products of—
(A) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
(B) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(C) Tropical Thorn Forests
(D) Alpine Forests
Ans : (A)
91. On which one of the following rivers is ‘Tulbul’ Project located ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Ravi
(C) Beas
(D) Jhelum
Ans : (D)
92. Which one of the following is the actual source of the Son river ?
(A) Amarkantak in Shahdol district
(B) Son Muda in Shahdol district
(C) Son Bachharwar in Bilaspur district
(D) Mandla plateau
Ans : (A)
93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Nuclear Plant—Year of Commissioning
(A) Kota—1989
(B) Kakrapar—1984
(C) Kaiga—1999
(D) Kalpakkam—1995
Ans : (C)
94. Rubber industry in India is located at—
(A) Panjim
(B) Bangalore
(C) Puducherri
(D) Aurangabad
Ans : (B)
95. In March 2009 the BrahMos Missile was tested at—
(A) Pokharan
(B) Chandipur
(C) Cape Canveral
(D) Sri Harikota
Ans : (A)
96. The countries, which participated in Malabar-2009 exercises, were—
(A) China, England, Russia
(B) China, India, Russia
(C) India, USA, Japan
(D) Japan, England, USA
Ans : (C)
97. Three ‘Phalcon AWACS’ supplied by Israel were received in India for the first time in—
(A) March 2009
(B) April 2009
(C) May 2009
(D) February 2009
Ans : (C)
98. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2008 is—
(A) Al Gore
(B) Muhammad Yunus
(C) Martti Ahtisaari
(D) Wangari Maathai
Ans : (C)
99. Who among the following has been chosen for ‘Hoover Medal’ in March 2009 for his contribution to the upliftment of the poor and the rural people ?
(A) Sam Patroda
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) Baba Amte
Ans : (B)
100. In April 2009, G-20 Summit was held in—
(A) Geneva
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (B)
101. India was represented in the Annual Meet of the World Economic Forum, held in Davos (Switzerland) in January 2009, by—
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Kamal Nath
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Kapil Sibbal
Ans : (B)
102. The first woman to be the Speaker of Lok Sabha is—
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Meira Kumar
Ans : (D)
103. Which movie has been given the Best Movie Award in 66th Golden Globe Awards ?
(A) Mall E
(B) Slumdog Millionaire
(C) The Dark Night
(D) The Reader
Ans : (B)
104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Recent Padma Awardees—Awards
(A) Bhimsen Joshi– Bharat Ratna
(B) Abhinav Bindra – Padma Vibhushan
(C) Shekhar Gupta – Padma Bhushan
(D) Aishwarya Rai – Padma Shri
Ans : (B)
105. Who among the following won the best actor award in the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Hritik Roshan
(C) Abhishek Bachchan
(D) Salman Khan
Ans : (B)
106. Where did Prime Minsiter Manmohan Singh, having taken charge of the new government after 2009 elections, meet Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari for the first time ?
(A) Cairo
(B) London
(C) Shanghai
(D) Yekaterinburg
Ans : (D)
107. Which among the following countries attended as observers the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit held on 16 June 2009 ?
1. Russia
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Iran
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
108. Name the player who has been awarded the 2008 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Gautam Gambhir
(D) M. S. Dhoni
Ans : (D)
109. The only Indian Gold Medal Winner in Olympic 2008 is—
(A) Sudesh Kumar
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)
110. The winner of Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) China
(B) Malaysia
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Korea
Ans : (D)
111. The winner State of 17th Senior National Women’s Football Championship held in March 2009, was—
(A) Manipur
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (A)
112. The two games, which have been excluded from the Olympic Games to be held in 2012 in London, are—
(A) Badminton and Table Tennis
(B) Basketball and Volleyball
(C) Tennis and Wrestling
(D) Softball and Baseball
Ans : (D)
113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sushil Kumar—Wrestling
(B) Anand Pawar—Badminton
(C) Arjun Rao—Archery
(D) Pankaj Advani—Shooting
Ans : (D)
114. The captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) Dilip Tirkey
(B) Rajpal Singh
(C) Sandeep Singh
(D) V. Raghunath
Ans : (C)
115. Asia Cup Hockey Tournament was held in May 2009 in—
(A) India
(B) Malaysia
(C) South Korea
(D) UAE
Ans : (B)
116. In which of the following States the National Games, 2011 will be held ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (B)
117. A cropping system where crops are grown in the inter spaces between rows of planted trees is called—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Inter-cropping
(D) Alley cropping
Ans : (D)
118. Application of gypsum is required more in the crop of—
(A) Paddy
(B) Berseem
(C) Wheat
(D) Groundnut
Ans : (A)
119. The upper limit of available water in soil is determined at—
(A) 1/3 bar
(B) 1/2 bar
(C) 2/3 bar
(D) 1 bar
Ans : (A)
120. The place of origin of red gram is—
(A) America
(B) India
(C) South Africa
(D) Egypt
Ans : (C)
121. University of Horticulture and Forestry is located at—
(A) Coimbatore
(B) Solan
(C) Palampur
(D) Pant Nagar
Ans : (B)
122. Heroin is obtained from—
(A) Indian hemp
(B) Opium poppy
(C) Tobacco
(D) Arecanut
Ans : (B)
123. The leading producer of soybean in India is—
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
124. ‘Varuna’ is a variety of—
(A) Mustard
(B) Linseed
(C) Sunflower
(D) Sesamum
Ans : (A)
125. Farming of cloves is done in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
126. Consider the following statements— Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading producer of fish in India.
Reason (R) : West Bengal has well developed fishing industry along the sea
coast.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
127. In India the largest area under rice cultivation lies in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
128. The most popular sport goods come from—
(A) Ludhiana
(B) Jalandhar
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra
Ans : (B)
129. Which bank became the first bank to open its branch in China ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Punjab National Bank
Ans : (C)
130. After the merger of Air India and Indian Airlines, the new entity is now known as—
(A) Indian Airways
(B) India Airlines
(C) Air India
(D) Indo-Air
Ans : (A)
131. Which sector got high rate of growth in its cooperative units ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Cotton textile
(C) Jute
(D) Cement
Ans : (B)
132. The headquarters of the World Bank are at—
(A) Manila
(B) Washington
(C) New York
(D) Geneva
Ans : (B)
133. Inside trading is related to—
(A) Share market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) International trade
Ans : (A)
134. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(C) Co-existence of rich and poor
(D) Promoting both agriculture and industry in the economy
Ans : (B)
135. Diesel Locomotive engines are manufactured in India at—
(A) Chitranjan
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Varanasi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)
136. Invisible Export means export of—
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling
Ans : (A)
137. The headquarters of World Trade Organization are at—
(A) Doha
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) New York
Ans : (B)
138. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Muhammad Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)
139. The density of population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 Census, is—
(A) 689 per square km
(B) 589 per square km
(C) 489 per square km
(D) 389 per square km
Ans : (A)
140. In U.P. which one of the following tribes has the highest population ?
(A) Saharia
(B) Tharu
(C) Agaria
(D) Mahigir
Ans : (B)
141. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for—
(A) 60 Lok Sabha seats
(B) 70 Lok Sabha seats
(C) 80 Lok Sabha seats
(D) 90 Lok Sabha seats
Ans : (C)
142. Obra Thermal Power Plant was established with the help of—
(A) Soviet Russia
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) America
Ans : (A)
143. According to 2001 Census the female literacy percentage in U.P. is—
(A) 38•87
(B) 43•53
(C) 33•12
(D) 42•22
Ans : (D)
144. Which is the highest Dam in U.P. ?
(A) Mata-Tila
(B) Meja
(C) Rihand
(D) Ram-Ganga
Ans : (D)
145. In U.P. Uranium is available in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Jhansi
(C) Mirjapur
(D) Hamirpur
Ans : (A)
146. Firozabad is famous for producing—
(A) Bangles
(B) Locks
(C) Knives
(D) Shoes
Ans : (A)
147. Which one of the following is not a folk song of U.P. ?
(A) Birha
(B) Dhola Maru
(C) Kajri
(D) Rasia
Ans : (B)
148. Syed Salar Fair is held at—
(A) Bahraich
(B) Mankapur
(C) Barabanki
(D) Khalilabad
Ans : (A)
149. In U.P. Urdu Training and Research Centre is situated in—
(A) Barabanki
(B) Bareilly
(C) Lucknow
(D) Rampur
Ans : (C)
150. Central Institute of Subtropical Horticulture is located at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Saharanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)
Monday, February 7, 2011
CGL CPO SI FINAL RESULT CUTOFF NOTICE
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2010
Declaration final result for the post of SI in CPOs only.
The final result for all the posts except SI in CPOs of above examination was declared on 7.1.2011. Total number of candidates qualified for interview for the post of SI in CPOs were 1605 candidates (1577 male and 28 female).
2. Out of above, total 1200 candidates have been selected for the post of SI in CPOS. The category-wise break-up of the candidates against the vacancies reported by the user departments, is as below:
For Male Candidate
BSF
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
145
40
156
-
335
676
Filled
24
40
34
-
112*
210
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 1, ST = 5, OBC = 14, EXS =1)
CISF
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
67
33
121
-
229
450
Filled
67
33
121
-
229*
450
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 2, ST = 3, OBC = 48, EXS =1)
CRPF
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
112
56
202
-
379
749
Filled
24
56
45
-
79*
204
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 1, ST = 11, OBC = 6)
ITBP
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
52
2
18
-
25
97
Filled
2
2
12
-
25*
41
* filled UR vacancies includes (OBC = 4)
SSB
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
51
28
114
-
195
388
Filled
13
28
74
-
162*
277
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 1, ST = 3, OBC = 41)
For Female Candidate
C I S F
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
7
3
13
-
27
50
Filled
3
1
6
-
8*
18
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 1, OBC = 1)
3. Marks obtained by the first and last selected candidates under respective CPOs are given below:
For Male Candidate
B.S.F
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
278
304
288
-
335
Last Selected candidate
154
211
184
-
186
C.I.S.F
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
293
310
300
-
337
Last Selected candidate
204
242
237
-
257
CRPF
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
275
268
278
-
306
Last Selected candidate
157
207
183
-
183
I.T.B.P
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
199
299
232
-
287
Last Selected candidate
188
267
185
-
223
S.S.B
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
203
253
279
-
280
Last Selected candidate
165
215
186
-
180
For Female Candidate
C.I.S.F
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
263
294
276
-
309
Last Selected candidate
242
294
219
-
256
Note :- Marks obtained by the first and last candidates in above CPOs are based on their merit-cum-preference.
4. Criteria for resolving tie cases: In the event of tie of marks in grand total, the candidate, getting higher marks in written, has been assigned higher rank. In the event of candidate, getting equal marks even in written, the higher marks obtained in first cut off (Tier I) has been taken into account for assigning higher rank. In the event of candidate getting equal marks in first cut off also, the older candidate (based on Date of Birth) has been given higher rank. In the case of tie even at this stage, the tie is resolved on the basis of ascending alphabetic order of name.
5. Candidates have been allocated to the different CPOs on the basis of their merit cum order of preferences given by them in the application form. In case no/invalid preference has been given by any candidate, he/she has been considered in merit order only if there were unfilled vacancies left in their respective categories.
6. Following candidates have been placed in the provisional list on the basis of inputs provided by the concerned Regional Office. They are advised to contact the Regional Office concerned immediately whether there is any discrepancy in documentation and/or doubt about fulfillment of eligibility criterion – (Roll Nos.2201507805, 2201542379, 2201575929, 2402500818, 2405528038, 2405530171, 2406502588, 3206015931, 3206022321, 7007502672 and 7207501321).
7. Two candidates (1 UR and 1 OBC) who had given preference for only one CPO were not considered for other CPOs. The vacancies of the preferred CPO got exhausted by the time their turn came in merit order for allocation.
8. Some candidates of ST category could not get selected despite getting higher marks than the last selected UR candidate for certain CPOs, as they had availed some relaxation as ST candidates and could not be considered to have qualified under UR standards. They were considered for allocation only against ST vacancies and by the time their turn came in merit order for allocation, the ST vacancies got filled up and they could not be selected.
9. The above said Lists are purely provisional and subject to the recommended candidates fulfilling all the eligibility conditions prescribed for the respective post in the Notice of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. The candidature of the candidates are liable to be cancelled by respective Regional Directors in case candidates found not fulfilling the eligibility conditions or any other genuine reasons.
10. For candidates belonging to reserved categories for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per Government Policy, the category status is indicated against their Roll Numbers. It is important to note that some of these candidates have been declared qualified only for the category mentioned against their Roll Numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned against his/her name, he/she may not be eligible to be included in the list. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to immediately contact the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown against their Roll Numbers.
11. Result of this examination is available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in and htt/://sscresults.nic.in.
12. Marks of the finally qualified and non-qualified candidates who were declared qualified for interview (total 1605 candidates) are being uploaded on SSC's Website.
Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2010
Declaration final result for the post of SI in CPOs only.
The final result for all the posts except SI in CPOs of above examination was declared on 7.1.2011. Total number of candidates qualified for interview for the post of SI in CPOs were 1605 candidates (1577 male and 28 female).
2. Out of above, total 1200 candidates have been selected for the post of SI in CPOS. The category-wise break-up of the candidates against the vacancies reported by the user departments, is as below:
For Male Candidate
BSF
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
145
40
156
-
335
676
Filled
24
40
34
-
112*
210
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 1, ST = 5, OBC = 14, EXS =1)
CISF
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
67
33
121
-
229
450
Filled
67
33
121
-
229*
450
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 2, ST = 3, OBC = 48, EXS =1)
CRPF
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
112
56
202
-
379
749
Filled
24
56
45
-
79*
204
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 1, ST = 11, OBC = 6)
ITBP
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
52
2
18
-
25
97
Filled
2
2
12
-
25*
41
* filled UR vacancies includes (OBC = 4)
SSB
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
51
28
114
-
195
388
Filled
13
28
74
-
162*
277
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 1, ST = 3, OBC = 41)
For Female Candidate
C I S F
Category
SC
ST
OBC
EXS
UR
TOTAL
Vacancies
7
3
13
-
27
50
Filled
3
1
6
-
8*
18
* filled UR vacancies includes (SC = 1, OBC = 1)
3. Marks obtained by the first and last selected candidates under respective CPOs are given below:
For Male Candidate
B.S.F
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
278
304
288
-
335
Last Selected candidate
154
211
184
-
186
C.I.S.F
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
293
310
300
-
337
Last Selected candidate
204
242
237
-
257
CRPF
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
275
268
278
-
306
Last Selected candidate
157
207
183
-
183
I.T.B.P
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
199
299
232
-
287
Last Selected candidate
188
267
185
-
223
S.S.B
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
203
253
279
-
280
Last Selected candidate
165
215
186
-
180
For Female Candidate
C.I.S.F
Category
SC
ST
0BC
EXS
UR
First Selected candidate
263
294
276
-
309
Last Selected candidate
242
294
219
-
256
Note :- Marks obtained by the first and last candidates in above CPOs are based on their merit-cum-preference.
4. Criteria for resolving tie cases: In the event of tie of marks in grand total, the candidate, getting higher marks in written, has been assigned higher rank. In the event of candidate, getting equal marks even in written, the higher marks obtained in first cut off (Tier I) has been taken into account for assigning higher rank. In the event of candidate getting equal marks in first cut off also, the older candidate (based on Date of Birth) has been given higher rank. In the case of tie even at this stage, the tie is resolved on the basis of ascending alphabetic order of name.
5. Candidates have been allocated to the different CPOs on the basis of their merit cum order of preferences given by them in the application form. In case no/invalid preference has been given by any candidate, he/she has been considered in merit order only if there were unfilled vacancies left in their respective categories.
6. Following candidates have been placed in the provisional list on the basis of inputs provided by the concerned Regional Office. They are advised to contact the Regional Office concerned immediately whether there is any discrepancy in documentation and/or doubt about fulfillment of eligibility criterion – (Roll Nos.2201507805, 2201542379, 2201575929, 2402500818, 2405528038, 2405530171, 2406502588, 3206015931, 3206022321, 7007502672 and 7207501321).
7. Two candidates (1 UR and 1 OBC) who had given preference for only one CPO were not considered for other CPOs. The vacancies of the preferred CPO got exhausted by the time their turn came in merit order for allocation.
8. Some candidates of ST category could not get selected despite getting higher marks than the last selected UR candidate for certain CPOs, as they had availed some relaxation as ST candidates and could not be considered to have qualified under UR standards. They were considered for allocation only against ST vacancies and by the time their turn came in merit order for allocation, the ST vacancies got filled up and they could not be selected.
9. The above said Lists are purely provisional and subject to the recommended candidates fulfilling all the eligibility conditions prescribed for the respective post in the Notice of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. The candidature of the candidates are liable to be cancelled by respective Regional Directors in case candidates found not fulfilling the eligibility conditions or any other genuine reasons.
10. For candidates belonging to reserved categories for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per Government Policy, the category status is indicated against their Roll Numbers. It is important to note that some of these candidates have been declared qualified only for the category mentioned against their Roll Numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned against his/her name, he/she may not be eligible to be included in the list. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to immediately contact the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown against their Roll Numbers.
11. Result of this examination is available on SSC's Website: http://ssc.nic.in and htt/://sscresults.nic.in.
12. Marks of the finally qualified and non-qualified candidates who were declared qualified for interview (total 1605 candidates) are being uploaded on SSC's Website.
Saturday, February 5, 2011
ssc will recruit 53200 constables news
Mumbai:
The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will recruit 53,200
constables for central para-military forces through a common
recruitment examination, SSC Chairman N K Raghupathy said here
today.
This is the first time that government has decided to conduct a
common recruitment examination for recruitment of Constable
(General Duty) in all central para-military organizations through
Staff Selection Commission. Earlier, the respective CPOs used to
make recruitment of constables (GD) on their own.
Ministry of Home Affairs has intimated about 49,070 tentative
vacancies of constables (General Duty) collectively, in BSF, CISF,
CRPF and SSB for which a written test will be held on June 5 for
candidates qualifying in physical standard/physical efficiency test
and about 5000 vacancies are tentatively available in ITBP and
Assam Rifles for which written examination will be held on May 1.
Raghupathy said the total vacancies may reach 80,000 by the
time of written examinations.
The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will recruit 53,200
constables for central para-military forces through a common
recruitment examination, SSC Chairman N K Raghupathy said here
today.
This is the first time that government has decided to conduct a
common recruitment examination for recruitment of Constable
(General Duty) in all central para-military organizations through
Staff Selection Commission. Earlier, the respective CPOs used to
make recruitment of constables (GD) on their own.
Ministry of Home Affairs has intimated about 49,070 tentative
vacancies of constables (General Duty) collectively, in BSF, CISF,
CRPF and SSB for which a written test will be held on June 5 for
candidates qualifying in physical standard/physical efficiency test
and about 5000 vacancies are tentatively available in ITBP and
Assam Rifles for which written examination will be held on May 1.
Raghupathy said the total vacancies may reach 80,000 by the
time of written examinations.
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)