CPO EXAM PAPER II MODEL TEST PAPER

Directions: In Question Nos. 1 to 10, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error mark (D) as your answer.

1. A moment delay/would have proved costly/ in the situation./No error.

2. Ram disappointed his mother/ as he did not/ write to her very often./No error.

3. After you will return/ from Chennai/ I will come and see you./ No error.

4. Scenes from the film / had to be censured/ before it was released./ No error.

5. When my sister was ill/ I went to the hospital/ on alternative days./ No error.

6 The beautiful/ surrounding of the place/ enchanted me./ No error.

7. No Porter being available/ he carried/ all his luggages himself./ No error.

8 He will not be able/ to cope up with/ the pressure of work./ No error.

9. Lasers are/ indispensable tools/ for the delicate eyes surgery./ No error.

10. I take great pleasure/ to welcome you/ to this institution./ No error.



Directions: In Question Nos. 11 to 15, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given.

11. Indignation

(A) hatred

(B) anger

(C) disapproval

(D) contempt



12. Acronym

(A) A word with two or more meanings

(B) A word of new coinage

(C) A word formed by the initial letters of words

(D) A word of picturesque effect



13. Meticulous

(A) interfere

(B) courage

(C) agreement

(D) careful



14. Rescind

(A) change

(B) revoke

(C) repeat

(D) reconsider



15. Antipathy

(A) dishonesty

(B) disturbance

(C) demonstration (D) dislike



Directions: In Question Nos. 16 to 20, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

16. APPARENT

(A) Illegible

(B) Hidden

(C) Mysterious

(D) Remote



17. ALIEN

(A) Native

(B) Domiciled

(C) Natural

(D) Resident



18. FUTILE

(A) upright

(B) costly

(C) eminent

(D) worthy



19. AUDACIOUS

(A) meek

(B) cowardly

(C) mild

(D) gentle



20. ARROGANT

(A) simple

(B) timid

(C) civilized

(D) modest



Directions: In Question Nos. 21 to 30, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word.

21. The food that an average Indian eats has been found to be deficient _____ vitamins and proteins.

(A) of

(B) from

(C) with

(D) in



22. The patient is _____ of stomachache.

(A) suffering

(B) experiencing

(C) complaining

(D) afflicting



23. A good teacher should _____ responses from the students.

(A) elicit

(B) provoke

(C) command

(D) infer



24. Had he taken his degree five years ago he _____ got a promotion by now.

(A) might

(B) would have

(C) will be

(D) was



25. There will be a rush for seats when the train

(A) will arrive

(B) arrived

(C) is arriving

(D) arrives



26. He drove the car very fast _____

(A) Did he?

(B) Does he?

(C) Didn’t he?

(D) Was he?



27. He _____ wants to succeed in life must be prepared to work hard.

(A) whoever

(B) whom

(C) who

(D) whose



28. It is time you _____ home.

(A) go

(B) went

(C) come

(D) reach



29. _____ a walk in the morning will improve your health.

(A) Going to

(B) Go to

(C) Go for

(D) Going for



30. Government must _____ the rise in prices.

(A) cheque

(B) check

(C) cease

(D) seize



Directions: In Question Nos. 31 to 40, four alternatives are given for the underlined or given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined or given idiom/phrase.



31. The bus had a close shave as its driver swerved to the right a split second before the on-coming truck could run into it.

(A) serious accident

(B) close collision

(C) narrow escape

(D) deep dent



32. Fits and starts

(A) slowly

(B) not regularly

(C) continuously

(D) quickly



33. When the Inspector entered the class some of the students shook in their shoes.

(A) stamped the ground with their shoes

(B) showed signs of anger

(C) trembled with fear

(D) stood up to salute



34. In high spirits

(A) full of hope and enthusiasm

(B) under tremendous stress

(C) under the influence of liquor

(D) mentally deranged



35. He amassed his wealth through sharp practices.

(A) dishonest means

(B) illegal means

(C) intelligent decisions

(D) quick decisions



36. He is not in the good books of his boss.

(A) a lover of good books

(B) in favour with

(C) not of the same opinion as

(D) as good as



37. The officer is fed up with the complaints made against the clerk.

(A) annoyed

(B) disgusted

(C) pleased

(D) satisfied



38. A white elephant,

(A) a rare species of elephants

(B) an expensive gift

(C) a costly but useless possession

(D) a worthless thing



39. Ins and outs

(A) entry and exit points

(B) full details

(C) tactical moves

(D) complexity of character



40. All his ventures went to the winds.

(A) dissipated

(B) spread all over

(C) got speed of the winds

(D) became well-known



Directions: In Question Nos. 41 to 50, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.



41. Government by a ruler who has unlimited power.

(A) Despotism

(B) Autocracy

(C) Monarchy

(D) Anarchy



42. An occasion of great importance

(A) exemplary

(B) momentous

(C) herculean

(D) grandiose



43. A person who is always hopeful and look: upon the brighter side of things

(A) florist

(B) artist

(C) theist

(D) optimist



44. Place of burial

(A) cave

(B) church

(C) synagogue

(D) cemetry



45. To have a very high opinion of oneself

(A) exaggeration

(B) adulation

(C) abundance

(D) conceited



46. One who believes in giving equal opportunity to women in all fields

(A) Fanatic

(B) Misogynist

(C) Philanderer

(D) Feminist



47. Inability to sleep

(A) hysteria

(B) insomnia

(C) aphasia

(D) amnesia



48. One who is given to pleasures of the flesh.

(A) terrestrian

(B) epicurean

(C) celestial

(D) pedestrian



49. A tank where fish or water plants are kept

(A) Aquarium

(B) Sanatorium

(C) Nursery

(D) Aviary



50. A person who never takes alcoholic drinks

(A) teetotaller

(B) alcoholic

(C) addict

(D) bagpiper

Directions: In Question Nos. 51 to 55, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt.



51.

(A) poignant

(B) relevent

(C) prevalent

(D) malignant



52.

(A) seize

(B) achieve

(C) wierd

(D) leisure



53.

(A) repent

(B) serpent

(C) flagrent

(D) reverent



54. (A) dining

(B) shining

(C) determining

(D) begining



55.

(A) vendetta ‘

(B) verisimilitude

(C) vicarious

(D) vociferrate



Directions: In Question Nos. 56 to 65, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at A, B and C which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is D.



56. He was weary of failure, Didn’t he?

(A) Isn’t he?

(B) Wasn’t he?

(C) Doesn’t he?

(D) No improvement



57. What you have been doing since the work shop last month?

(A) have you done

(B) you have done

(C) have you been doing

(D) No improvement



58. Keats says the idea very well in his poems.

(A) speaks

(B) describes

(C) expresses

(D) No improvement



59. The enemy soldiers went back hastily.

(A) returned

(B) retreated

(C) retrenched

(D) No improvement



60. No sooner had the teacher entered the room and the boys rushed to their seats.

(A) when

(B) than

(C) but

(D) No improvement



61. We have already disposed our old house.

(A) disposed off

(B) disposed out

(C) disposed of

(D) No improvement



62. We can buy anything in this shop, Can we?

(A) Isn’t it?

(B) Can’t we?

(C) Don’t we?

(D) No improvement



63. If I had followed your advice, I would not regret today.

(A) will not regret

(B) had not regretted

(C) would not have regretted

(D) No improvement



64. Somebody must be made to answer for the securities scam.

(A) to

(B) after

(C) upon

(D) No improvement



65. Corruption is the most serious problem in India.

(A) the more serious

(B) the seriouser

(C) serious

(D) No improvement



Directions: In Question Nos. 66 to 70, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.



66. The cat is running after the rat.

(A) The rat was being run after by the cat

(B) The rat is being run after by the cat

(C) The rat is run after by the cat

(D) The cat is being run after by the rat



67. English is spoken all over the world.

(A) All over the world English speaks

(B) English speaks all over the world

(C) The whole world speaks English

(D) People speak English all over the world



68. The boys elected Mohan captain.

(A) The boys were elected captain by Mohan

(B) Mohan is elected captain by the boys

(C) Mohan was elected captain by the boys

(D) Mohan and the boys elected the captain



69. They threw away the Rubbish.

(A) The Rubbish will be thrown away

(B) The Rubbish was being thrown away

(C) The Rubbish was thrown away

(D) The Rubbish thrown away



70. Let him see the picture.

(A) Let the picture be seen by him

(B) The picture is seen by him

(C) Let him the picture be seen

(D) The picture is seen by him



Directions: In Question Nos. 71 to 80, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four Parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations s correct. Then find the correct answer.



71.

1. There was a lamp hanging on the wall

P. Then he picked a lot of jewels off the trees in the garden

Q. He put the lamp inside his shirt

R. He put them in his pockets

S. Aladdin climbed a ladder and took down the lamp

6. Then he put more jewels inside his shirt on top of the lamp.

(A) PRQS

(B) RSPQ

(C) SQPR

(D) QSRP



72.

1. Gopal and Sheela felt very bored one evening

P. Gopal wanted to stay on for the next show

Q. So they decided to go to the cinema

R. They reached the theatre in time for the interval

S. On the way there was a traffic jam

6. But Sheela wanted to return home

(A) PSQR

(B) SQPR

(C) QSRP

(D) SQRP



73.

1. Ferdinand rose up to receive the messenger

P. At the end of his account he was moved to tears

Q. He fell on his knees and thanked him

R. He made him sit on a level with himself

S. He listened to the circumstantial account of his voyage

6. It was a great conquest the Almighty gave to a sovereign.

(A) RPSQ

(B) RSPQ

(C) QPRS

(D) PKSQ



74.

1. In order to judge the inside of others, study your own

P. and though one has one prevailing passion

Q. for, men, in general are very much alike

R. yet their operations are very much the same

S. and another has another

6. and whatever engages or disgusts, pleases or offends you in others, will engage, disgust, please or offend others in you.

(A) QPSR

(B) PQRS

(C) RQPS

(D) PRQS



75.

1. Paucity of funds

P. universities cannot make

Q. essentials like books

R. sufficient expenditure on

S. ordains that the

6. journals and equipment.

(A) QPRS

(B) SPRQ

(C) PQRS

(D) QSRP



76.

1. The symptoms of

P. and certain other changes

Q. what is popularly called

R. serious forgetfulness, confusion

S “serility” include

6. in personality behaviour.

(A) QSRP

(B) PQRS

(C) SRQP

(D) QPSR



77.

1. When they heard the bell P. out of his clothes

Q. as quickly

R. every boy scrambled

S. and got into bed

6. as possible.

(A) QRPS

(B) PSQR

(C) RQSP

(D) RPS.Q



78.

1. Thirty years from now

P. and industry will be scarce

Q. almost half of the people

R. that water for drinking, farming

S. then living may find

6. according to a study by Dr. S. Posten.

(A) SPQR

(B) SRPQ

(C) QSRP

(D) QSPR



79.

1. A good cry can be a

P. bring relief from anxiety

Q. prevent a headache or

R. and it might even

S. healthy way to

6. other physical consequence

(A) SRQP

(B) SRPQ

(C) SPRQ

(D) SPQR



80.

1. Long, long, time ago

P. who lived with his three wives

Q. in a country called Kosala

R. there ruled a noble king

S. and four sons

6. beautiful, graceful and well versed in all shastras.

(A) PQRS

(B) SPQR

(C) RQPS

(D) QRSP





Directions: In the following passage (Question Nos. 81 to 90), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Cloze Passage

Scientists have developed an electronic circuit that 81 the wiring of the human brain in some ways – an achievement that 82 revolu-tionalise computer science and 83 understanding of how nature’s most powerful 84 works. The 85 built on a 86 chip the size of a finger nail, is 87 from the thinking machines of science-fiction. For one thing it cannot 88 , the way the 89 can. But researchers say it could 90 in better speech and object recognition by computers.



81.

(A) imitates

(B) mimics

(C) limits

(D) expands



82.

(A) shall

(B) ought

(C) could

(D) have



83.

(A) exceed

(B) improve

(C) impair

(D) develop



84.

(A) processor

(B) electronic system

(C) circuit

(D) brain



85.

(A) computer

(B) monitor

(C) system

(D) circuit



86.

(A) silicon

(B) minute

(C) big

(D) brown



87.

(A) for

(B) above

(C) beyond

(D) far



88.

(A) equate

(B) teach

(C) learn

(D) recognise



89.

(A) computer

(B) processor

(C) chip

(D) brain



90.

(A) yield

(B) give

(C) respond

(D) result



Directions: In Question Nos. 91 to 100, you have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.



PASSAGE – I

For any activity, discipline is the key word. It should begin with the self, then be extended to the family, neighbours, environment, workplace, society and the nation at large. It is from society that inspiration is drawn. Systems and institutions should provide the inspiration to society through performance which in turn will provide leaders, capable of rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation. The nationalists’ spirit then becomes infectious.

91. What is the key word for Activity according to the passage?

(A) Active Discipline

(B) Key Discipline

(C) Self Discipline

(D) Discipline



92. According to the passage Discipline should begin

(A) with the self

(B) with the self, family and neighbours

(C) with the self, family, neighbours and environment

(D) with the self, family, workplace, society



93. According to the passage, where do we draw inspiration from?

(A) Society

(B) Society and nation

(C) Environment

(D) Nothing in particular



94. According to the passage, a good leader should be capable of

(A) rebuilding a nation the way he/she likes

(B) rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation

(C) building a national consensus

(D) rebuilding and structuring a nation



95. What is the meaning of the word “infectious” in the passage?

(A) dangerous

(B) spreading to everyone

(C) spreading to everyone by germs

(D) give disease



PASSAGE -II

A 23-year-old British woman was yesterday sentenced to six months in jail for leaving her two-year-old daughter home alone eight-hours-a-day, five days a week for a year while she went to work. The young mother from the central town of Warwick initially hired a babysitter, when she landed a job in a travel agency but eventually reached the point when she could no longer afford the facility, prosecutors said. The woman then started leaving the child home by herself, providing it with food and toys and removing all potentially dangerous objects from its reach. At first the mother came home at lunch time but had to stop because her daughter threw tantrums every time she left to go back to work.

The mother, who was not identified, told the court, “If I had money I would not have done it. It was a case of that or not keeping my job and living on benefit”.

The judge, Mr. Harrison Hall, however said “Having had a child, the absolute priority is to look after it. There must be an alternative to leaving a child alone all day, a thing you would not do even to a dog”.



96. The young mother had to work in the office

(A) 40 hours a week

(B) 8 hours a week

(C) 48 hours a week

(D) all the seven days a week



97. The word ‘Facility’ in sentence refers to

(A) her job in the travel agency

(B) living in a well furnished apartment

(C) getting adequate salary

(D) employing someone to look after the child



98- The mother stopped coming home for lunch because

(A) her house was far away from the office

(B) she was not able to control her angry baby

(C) she had to work extra hours to earn more

(D) she was not interested in looking after the baby



99. The sentence “If I had money, I would not have done it” means

(A) I had money and so I did not leave the baby alone

(B) I had money and so I left the baby alone

(C) I had no money and so I left the baby alone

(D) I had no money and so I did not leave the baby alone



100. Which one of the following statements about the judge Mr. Harrison Hall is correct?

(A) He can tolerate cruelty to children but not to animals

(B) He can tolerate cruelty to animals but not to children

(C) He can tolerate cruelty both to children and animals

(D) He can tolerate cruelty neither to children nor to animals

SUB-INSPECTOR 2008 QUESTION PAPER CPO SSC

SSC CENTRAL POLICE ORGANIZATION SUB-INSPECTORS EXAM 2008 SUB-INSPECTOR 2008 QUESTION PAPER

SSC CENTRAL POLICE ORGANIZATION SUB-INSPECTORS EXAM 2008 SUB-INSPECTOR 2008 QUESTION PAPER

HELD ON [ 9-11-2008 ]

SSC C.P.O. Sub-Inspector Exam 2008 General Awareness : Solved Paper
1. The Qutub Minar was completed by the famous ruler—
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khilji
Ans : (B)
2. Which of the following are incorrectly paired ?
(A) Krishnadeva Raya—Amukta malyada
(B) Harshavardhana—Nagananda
(C) Kalidasa —Ritusamhara
(D) Visakhadatta—Kiratarjuniyam
Ans : (D)
3. Who was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) Muhammed Ali Jinnah
(B) Badruddin Tyabji
(C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(D) Abul Kalam Azad
Ans : (B)
4. During which Gupta King’s reign did the Chinese traveler Fa-hien visit India ?
(A) Chandra Gupta I
(B) Samudra Gupta
(C) Chandra Gupta II
(D) Kumara Gupta
Ans : (C)
5. The administrative consequence of the Revolt of 1857 was transfer of power from—
(A) East India Company to the British Crown
(B) British Crown to the East India Company
(C) East India Company to the Governor General
(D) British Crown to the Board of Directors
Ans : (A)
6. The issue on which the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930 was launched was—
(A) Equal employment opportunities for Indians
(B) The proposed execution of Bhagat Singh
(C) Salt monopoly exercised by the British Government
(D) Complete freedom
Ans : (D)
7. The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after—
(A) Every five years
(B) Every six years
(C) On the advice of the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
8. Who was the last Governor-General of India ?
(A) Sir Cripps
(B) Lord Mountbatten
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Sir Attlee
Ans : (C)
9. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two years’ time ?
(A) B.J.P.
(B) Janata Party
(C) Janata Dal
(D) Samajwadi Janata Party
Ans : (B)
10. Which Directive Principle bears the direct impact of Gandhi’s moral philosophy ?
(A) Equal pay for equal work
(B) Provision of free legal aid and advice
(C) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows
(D) Protection of the monuments of historical importance
Ans : (B)
11. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes ‘Untouchability’ ?
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
Ans : (D)
12. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to address his resignation letter ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Secretary of Lok Sabha
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (C)
13. The Preamble of our Constitution reads India as—
(A) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
(B) Socialist, Democratic, Secular Republic
(C) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
(D) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
Ans : (D)
14. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India ?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertaking
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)
15. Match the following cities and their airports—
List-I
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji
(b) Heathrow
(c) Payalebar
(d) Kaitak
List-II
1. Singapore
2. Hongkong
3. London
4. Mumbai
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (D)
16. Which one of the following methods of soil conservation is most effective in arid areas ?
(A) Mulching
(B) Shelter belt
(C) Gully plugging
(D) Terracing
Ans : (B)
17. The river which is not Westflowing towards the Arabian Sea is—
(A) Narmada
(B) Tapti
(C) Periyar
(D) Kaveri
Ans : (D)
18. Tsunamis are caused by—
(A) Mixing of cold and warm currents
(B) Earthquakes
(C) Changes in sea level
(D) Volcanic eruption
Ans : (B)
19. Which current is responsible for increasing the temperature of Western Europe ?
(A) Labrador current
(B) Gulf stream
(C) Canari current
(D) North Equatorial current
Ans : (D)
20. Smog is a combination of—
(A) Air and water vapours
(B) Water and smoke
(C) Fire and water
(D) Smoke and fog
Ans : (D)
21. A refrigerator operating in a chemist’s shop is an example of—
(A) Free good
(B) Final good
(C) Producer’s good
(D) Consumer’s good
Ans : (D)
22. Disinvestment is—
(A) Offloading of shares of private companies to government
(B) Offloading of government shares to private companies
(C) Increase in investment
(D) Closing down of business concerns
Ans : (B)
23. S.D.R. stands for—
(A) Special Dollar Rights
(B) Special Drawing Rights
(C) State Drawing Rights
(D) Specific Dollar Rights
Ans : (B)
24. The Commission in India dealing with minimum support price, procurement price, etc. in connection with agricultural goods is the—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Agricultural Costs and Prices Commission
(C) Agricultural Price Commission
(D) National Marketing Commission
Ans : (B)
25. Which one of the following is a development expenditure ?
(A) Irrigation expenditure
(B) Civil administration
(C) Debt services
(D) Grant-in-aid
Ans : (A)
26. When average cost of production (AC) falls, marginal cost of production must be—
(A) Rising
(B) Falling
(C) Greater than the average cost
(D) Less than the average cost
Ans : (D)
27. Green Banking means—
(A) Development of forestry by banks
(B) Financing of environmental friendly projects by banks
(C) Financing of irrigation projects by banks
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
28. Which one of the following is not correct ?
(A) First Five Year Plan, 1951-56
(B) Second Five Year Plan, 1956-61
(C) Third Five Year Plan, 1961-66
(D) Fourth Five Year Plan, 1966-71
Ans : (D)
29. Which one of the following is not a quantitative credit control technique ?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Cash Reserve Ratio
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(D) Increase of interest rate on saving deposit
Ans : (D)
30. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Good and bad money cannot circulate together
(D) Cannot say
Ans : (B)
31. Tetanus is caused by—
(A) Clostridium
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteriophage
(D) Salmonella
Ans : (A)
32. Vitamin E is particularly important for—
(A) Development of teeth
(B) Carbohydrate metabolism
(C) Normal activity of sex glands
(D) General health of epithelial tissues
Ans : (C)
33. Birds usually have a single—
(A) Kidney
(B) Lung
(C) Testis
(D) Ovary
Ans : (D)
34. Blood pressure is controlled by—
(A) Adrenal gland
(B) Thyroid gland
(C) Thymus
(D) Corpus luteum
Ans : (A)
35. The carbon dioxide content in the air that we exhale is about—
(A) 4%
(B) 8%
(C) 12%
(D) 16%
Ans : (A)
36. Maximum harm to a tree is caused by—
(A) Loss of half of its leaves
(B) Loss of all leaves
(C) Loss of half of its branches
(D) Loss of its bark
Ans : (B)
37. Mineral constituent of chlorophyll is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Calcium
(D) Potassium
Ans : (B)
38. Which part of tongue bears cells for sour taste ?
(A) Front
(B) Back
(C) Sides
(D) Middle
Ans : (C)
39. The deficiency of Vitamin B causes—
(A) Scurvy
(B) Dermatitis
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Phynoderma
Ans : (C)
40. In which vertebrate does oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed ?
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibian
(C) Bird
(D) Mammal
Ans : (B)
41. Which of the following circuit elements is used to ‘block’ DC in an electronic circuit ?
(A) Resistance
(B) Capacitance
(C) Inductance
(D) Diode
Ans : (B)
42. Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have—
(A) Bifocal lens
(B) Convex lens
(C) Concave lens
(D) Polaroids
Ans : (A)
43. The number of satellites of the planet Mercury is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 16
Ans : (A)
44. A boy sitting in an open car moving with constant speed throws a ball straight up into the air. The ball falls—
(A) Behind him
(B) In front of him
(C) Into his hand
(D) By his side
Ans : (C)
45. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system ?
(A) Asteroids
(B) Comets
(C) Planets
(D) Nebulae
Ans : (D)
46. The process involved in making soap is—
(A) Saponification
(B) Hydrolysis
(C) Condensation
(D) Polymerisation
Ans : (A)
47. Sea water can be purified by the process of—
(A) Distillation
(B) Evaporation
(C) Filtration
(D) Fractional distillation
Ans : (A)
48. Detergents clean surfaces on the principle of—
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface tension
(C) Elasticity
(D) Floatation
Ans : (B)
49. The compound to which H2 does not add is—
(A) Biphenyl ethylene
(B) Tetraphenyl ethylene
(C) Tetrachloro ethane
(D) Tetracyano ethylene
Ans : (D)
50. Ammonal is a mixture of—
(A) Aluminium powder and ammonium nitrate
(B) Aluminium powder and ammonium chloride
(C) Aluminium powder and ammonium sulphate
(D) Aluminium powder and potassium nitrate
Ans : (A)
51. Which gas does not form the part of atmosphere ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Helium
(C) Chlorine
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
52. The number of players in each side in Water Polo is—
(A) 07
(B) 09
(C) 05
(D) 04
Ans : (A)
53. A kilowatt-hour is unit of—
(A) Energy
(B) Power
(C) Electric charge
(D) Electric current
Ans : (A)
54. In the post-independence period, economic reforms were first introduced in India under—
(A) P.V. Narasimha Rao Government (1990)
(B) Indira Gandhi Government (1980)
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Government (1985)
(D) Janata Party Government (1977)
Ans : (A)
55. The Report of Vijay Kelkar Committee relates to—
(A) Trade Reforms
(B) Centre-State Financial Relations
(C) Disinvestment in Public Sector Enterprises
(D) Tax Reforms
Ans : (D)
56. Molotov cocktail is a—
(A) Meeting
(B) Council
(C) Drink
(D) Grenade
Ans : (D)
57. Who was the first woman in the world to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachendri Pal
(B) Junko Tabei
(C) Yoko Ono
(D) Aung Sung
Ans : (B)
58. Who was the author of the Kadambari, a great romantic play ?
(A) Banabhatta
(B) Harshavardhana
(C) Bhaskaravardhan
(D) Bindusara
Ans : (A)
59. Who is the author of the book ‘What Went Wrong’ ?
(A) Sushma Swaraj
(B) Sonia Gandhi
(C) Shaila Nigar
(D) Kiran Bedi
Ans : (D)
60. Which sports person is nick named Dennis the Menace ?
(A) Andre Agassi
(B) Jim Courier
(C) Pete Samprass
(D) John McNroe
Ans : (A)
61. Bhilai Steel Plant was built with the collaboration of—
(A) Germany
(B) Soviet Union
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Japan
Ans : (B)
62. Ventilators are provided near the ceiling of the room because—
(A) The exhaled warmer air rises up and goes out
(B) These provide cross ventilation in the room
(C) These provide some sunlight in the room
(D) These do not look nice in the lower part
Ans : (A)
63. The hair of shaving brush clings together when removed from water due to—
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Elasticity
(D) Friction
Ans : (A)
64. In severe winter, in cold countries water pipes burst because—
(A) Water expands on freezing
(B) Contraction of water pipes
(C) High atmospheric pressure
(D) Combined effect of all the above three
Ans : (A)
65. The pair which is not a twin-city is—
(A) Hyderabad-Secunderabad
(B) Durgapur-Asansol
(C) Calcutta-Howrah
(D) Delhi-New Delhi
Ans : (B)
66. Who was the second man to land on the Moon ?
(A) Yuri Gagarin
(B) Neil Armstrong
(C) Buzz Aldrin
(D) Michael Collins
Ans : (C)
67. The fuel used in an atomic reactor is—
(A) Coal
(B) Petrol
(C) Combustable gases
(D) Uranium
Ans : (D)
68. The Gir Forest is noted for its—
(A) Lion sanctuary
(B) Deer-Park
(C) Tiger sanctuary
(D) Crocodile Park
Ans : (A)
69. White coal is—
(A) Uranium
(B) Hydro-electricity
(C) Diamond
(D) Ice
Ans : (B)
70. Who amongst the following cricketers has been chosen for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2007 ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Virender Sehwag
Ans : (B)
71. ICI is the name associated with—
(A) A MNC which manufactures chemicals
(B) Indian Cement Industry
(C) Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(D) A private sector bank
Ans : (A)
72. With the inclusion of Coal India Limited recently in the list of Nav Ratna PSEs, their number now stands at—
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 17
(D) 18
Ans : (D)
73. ‘Nextzone’, an information technology SEZ is being established at—
(A) Panki in Uttar Pradesh
(B) Panvel in Maharashtra
(C) Bangalore in Karnataka
(D) Secunderabad in Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (B)
74. The name of India’s research station at the North pole is—
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Maitri
(C) Himadri
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
75. The finalists of the AFC Challenge Cup 2008 were—
(A) India and Myanmar
(B) India and Tajakistan
(C) D.P.R.K. and Tajakistan
(D) Myanmar and D.P.R.K.
Ans : (B)

CPO EXAM MODEL TEST PAPER G.K

1. Which of the following is not considered as National Debt ?
(A) National Savings Certificates
(B) Long-term Government Bonds
(C) Insurance Policies
(D) Provident Fund
Ans : (C)
2. The main determinant of real wage is—
(A) Extra earning
(B) Nature of work
(C) Promotion prospect
(D) Purchasing power of money
Ans : (D)
3. The birthrate measures the number of births during a year per—
(A) 100 population
(B) 1000 population
(C) 10000 population
(D) 100000 population
Ans : (B)
4. Which of the following is not included in the National Income ?
(A) Imputed rent of owneroccupied houses
(B) Government expenditure on making new bridges
(C) Winning a lottery
(D) Commission paid to an agent for sale of house
Ans : (C)
5. Personal disposable income is—
(A) Always equal to personal income
(B) Always more than personal income
(C) Equal to personal income minus indirect taxes
(D) Equal to personal income minus direct taxes
Ans : (D)
6. Who prepared the first estimate of National Income for the country ?
(A) Central Statistical Organisation
(B) National Income Committee
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) National Sample Survey Organisation
Ans : (C)
7. A Bill referred to a ‘Joint Sitting’ of the two Houses of the Parliament is required to be passed by—
(A) A simple majority of the members present
(B) Absolute majority of the total membership
(C) 2/3rd majority of the members present
(D) 3/4th majority of the members present
Ans : (A)
8. Who is the constitutional head of the Government of India ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Attorney General
Ans : (A)
9. Who certifies a Bill to be a Money Bill in India ?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (C)
10. By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the Constitution ?
(A) 40th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
Ans : (B)
11. The Vice-President of India is elected by—
(A) The members of the Parliament
(B) The members of the Rajya Sabha
(C) The elected members of the Parliament
(D) The members of the Parliament and State Legislatures
Ans : (A)
12. When was the comprehensive reorganisation of Indian States completed in accordance with the recommendations of States Reorganisation Commission ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1960
(D) 1966
Ans : (B)
13. When Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated, who said, “None will believe that a man like this in body and soul ever walked on this earth” ?
(A) Bertrand Russell
(B) Leo Tolstoy
(C) Albert Einstein
(D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Ans : (C)
14. Who built the ‘Tower of Victory’ (Vijay Stambha) in the Chittor Fort ?
(A) Rana Sanga
(B) Rana Ratan Singh
(C) Rana Hamir Deva
(D) Rana Kumbha
Ans : (D)
15. In violation of the Salt Laws, Gandhiji started a movement called—
(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Swadeshi Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
16. In which of the following wars, were the French completely defeated by the English ?
(A) Battle of Wandiwash
(B) Battle of Buxar
(C) Battle of Plassey
(D) Battle of Adyar
Ans : (A)
17. The Cabinet Mission came to India in—
(A) 1943
(B) 1944
(C) 1945
(D) 1946
Ans : (D)
18. The first to come and the last to leave India were—
(A) The Portuguese
(B) The French
(C) The English
(D) The Dutch
Ans : (A)
19. IR 20 and Ratna are two important varieties of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Bajra
(C) Jowar
(D) Paddy
Ans : (D)
20. The Trans-Siberian Railway (9438 km) connects…………..… in the West to ………..… in the East.
(A) Moscow, Tashkent
(B) St. Petersburg, Omsk
(C) Moscow, Irkutsk
(D) St. Petersburg, Vladivostok
Ans : (D)
21. Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Udan Academy is located at—
(A) Secunderabad
(B) Rae Bareilly
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Delhi
Ans : (B)
22. Which one of the following rivers of Peninsular India does not join Arabian Sea ?
(A) Periyar
(B) Cauvery
(C) Narmada
(D) Tapti
Ans : (B)
23. Which one of the following correctly describes AGNI ?
(A) A fighter plane
(B) A versatile tank
(C) A long-range missile
(D) A long-range gun
Ans : (C)
24. Instrument used for measuring area on maps is called—
(A) Planimeter
(B) Eidograph
(C) Pantograph
(D) Opisometer
Ans : (A)
25. If the blood group of one parent is AB and that of the other O, the possible blood group of their child would be—
(A) A or B
(B) A or B or O
(C) A or AB or O
(D) A or B or AB or O
Ans : (A)
26. How many bones are there in the human body ?
(A) 187
(B) 287
(C) 206
(D) 306
Ans : (C)
27. Dinosaurs were—
(A) Mammals that became extinct
(B) Large herbivorous creatures which gave rise to hippopotamus species
(C) Egg-laying mammals
(D) Reptiles that became extinct
Ans : (D)
28. Sweat glands in mammals are primarily concerned with—
(A) Removal of excess salts
(B) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes
(C) Thermoregulation
(D) Sex-attraction
Ans : (C)
29. The vitamin that helps to prevent infections in the human body is—
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (A)
30. The normal RBC count in adult male is—
(A) 5•5 million
(B) 5•0 million
(C) 4•5 million
(D) 4•0 million
Ans : (B)
31. A storm is predicted if atmospheric pressure—
(A) Rises suddenly
(B) Rises gradually
(C) Falls suddenly
(D) Falls gradually
Ans : (C)
32. The gas which turns into liquid at the lowest temperature among the following is—
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Oxygen
(C) Helium
(D) Nitrogen
Ans : (A)
33. An egg sinks in soft water but floats in a concentrated solution of salt because—
(A) Egg absorbs salt from the solution and expands
(B) Albumin dissolves in salt solution and egg becomes lighter
(C) The density of salt solution exceeds the density of eggs
(D) Water has high surface tension
Ans : (C)
34. What should a person on a freely rotating turn table do to decrease his (angular) speed ?
(A) Bring his hands together
(B) Raise his hands up
(C) Spread his hands outwards
(D) Sit down with raised hands
Ans : (C)
35. Gunpowder consists of a mixture of—
(A) Sand and TNT
(B) TNT and charcoal
(C) Nitre, sulphur and charcoal
(D) Sulphur, sand and charcoal
Ans : (C)
36. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar ?
(A) Sucrose
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (C)
37. In nuclear reactors, graphite is used as a/an—
(A) Fuel
(B) Lubricant
(C) Moderator
(D) Insulator
Ans : (C)
38. Which of the following celestial bodies contains abundant quantities of helium-3, a potential source of energy ?
(A) Earth
(B) Moon
(C) Venus
(D) Saturn
Ans : (D)
39. Which of the following International Tennis Tournaments is held on grass court ?
(A) US Open
(B) French Open
(C) Wimbledon
(D) Australian Open
Ans : (C)
40. What is the name of the writer of Indian origin whose novel, The Inheritance of Loss has bagged Man Booker Prize ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Kiran Desai
(C) Salman Rushdie
(D) V. S. Naipaul
Ans : (B)
41. Which country from the following is a permanent member of the UN Security Council ?
(A) Switzerland
(B) People’s Republic of China
(C) Japan
(D) Ukraine
Ans : (B)
42. The Loktak Lake on which a hydroelectric project was constructed is situated in the State of—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Manipur
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (B)
43. What is the motto incorporated under our National Emblem ?
(A) Satyam Shivam
(B) Satyam Shivam Sundaram
(C) Satyameva Jayate
(D) Jai Hind
Ans : (C)
44. The H5N1 virus which causes bird flu was first discovered in—
(A) 1991
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 2001
Ans : (C)
45. The Southern tip of India is—
(A) Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari)
(B) Point Calimere
(C) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands
(D) Kovalam in Thiruvananthapuram
Ans : (A)
46. According to a resolution adopted by the United Nations General Assembly, ‘International Day of Peace’ is observed every year on—
(A) September 1
(B) September 14
(C) September 21
(D) September 30
Ans : (C)
47. Where was the last Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Summit held ?
(A) Sydney
(B) Auckland
(C) New York
(D) Beijing
Ans : (A)
48. According to the UN Convention on the rights of children, which of the following is not a right ?
(A) Safe drinking water
(B) Adequate standard of living
(C) Education
(D) Marriage
Ans : (D)
49. Who is the author of Ageless Body, Timeless Mind ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Deepak Chopra
(C) Dom Moraes
(D) Tony Kusher
Ans : (B)
50. Which cricketer holds the record for scoring highest number of runs in a test match innings ?
(A) Gary Sobers
(B) Vivian Richards
(C) Sunil Gavaskar
(D) Brian Lara
Ans : (D)

C.P.O MODEL SET PAPER I G.K REASONING AND MATH

Directions (Qs. 1 to 8) :    In these questions, select the
related letters/ words/ numbers/figures from the given
alternatives.
1.    Taste  :  Tongue   :  :   Walk   :   ?
    (a)    Pavement
    (b)    Crutch
    (c)    Legs
    (d)    Walking stick
    Ans:    ( c )    Legs
       
2.    CHIMNEY   :   SMOKE    :   :   ______   :   ______
    (a)    Gun  :  Bullet
    (b)    House   :   Roof
    (c)    Clay   :   Ceramic
    (d)    Tea   :   Kettle
    Ans:    ( a )    Gun  :  Bullet
       
3.    DCHG   :   LIKQP   :   :   FEJI   :   ?
    (a)    MLSR
    (b)    NMRQ
    (c)    ONTS
    (d)    QPUT
    Ans:    ( None )   
       
4.    CAD   :   FDG   :  :   XZW   :   ?
    (a)    IQJ
    (b)    CAD
    (c)    ZBY
    (d)    UWT
    Ans:    ( d )    UWT
       
5.    5  :   124     :  :     7   :   ?
    (a)    342
    (b)    343
    (c)    248
    (d)    125
    Ans:    ( a )    342
       
6.    3265   :   4376     :  :     4673   :   ?
    (a)    2154
    (b)    5487
    (c)    3562
    (d)    5784
    Ans:    ( d )    5784
       
Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) :    In these questions, select the
response which is different from the other three responses.
   
7.    (a)    Telephone
    (b)    Tape-Recorder
    (c)    Transistor
    (d)    Telescope
    Ans:    ( d )    Telescope
   
8.    (a)    Glue
    (b)    Oil
    (c)    Paste
    (d)    Cement
    Ans:    ( b )    Oil
   
9.    (a)    XZUS
    (b)    OQLJ
    (c)    HJFE
    (d)    FHCA
    Ans:    ( c )    HJFE
   
10.    (a)    KNPS
    (b)    RUWZ
    (c)    MPRU
    (d)    PRSU
    Ans:    ( d )    PRSU
       
11.    (a)    26 ? 62
    (b)    36 ? 63
    (c)    46 ? 64
    (d)    56 ? 18
    Ans:    ( d )    56 ? 18
       
12.    (a)    6958
    (b)    7948
    (c)    6895
    (d)    9783
    Ans:    ( d )    9783
       
Directions (Qs. 13) :    In this question, which one set of
letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given
letter series shall complete it ?
13.    m__nm__n__an__a__ma__
    (a)    amammn
    (b)    aammnn
    (c)    ammanm
    (d)    aamnan
    Ans:    ( b )    aammnn
       
Directions (Qs. 14 to 17) :    In these questions, a series is
given with one term missing.   Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
14.    A,  c,  f,  j,  ?,  ?
    (a)    ou
    (b)    mo
    (c)    lp
    (d)    rv
    Ans:    ( a )    ou
       
15.    QYK,   ?,   ISG,   EPE
    (a)    NWJ
    (b)    MVI
    (c)    NVI
    (d)    MVJ
    Ans:    ( b )    MVI
       
16.    10,   22,   46,   94   ?
    (a)    180
    (b)    184
    (c)    190
    (d)    140
    Ans:    ( c )    190
       
17.    110,   132,   156,   ?,   210
    (a)    162
    (b)    172
    (c)    182
    (d)    192
    Ans:    ( c )    182
       
Directions (Qs. 18 to 22) :    In these questions, which one of
the given responses would be a meaningful order of the
following words?
18.    (1)    Book    (2)    Words
(3)    Letters    (4)    Sentences
(5)    Chapters    (6)    Pages
    (a)    3  2  6  5  4  1
    (b)    3  2  5  4  6  1
    (c)    3  2  4  5  6  1
    (d)    3  2  4  6  5  1
    Ans:    ( d )    3  2  4  6  5  1
       
19.    (1)    Probation    (2)    Interview
(3)    Selection    (4)    Appointment
(5)    Advertisement    (6)    Application
    (a)    5  6  4  2  3  1
    (b)    5  6  3  2  4  1
    (c)    5  6  2  3  4  1
    (d)    6  5  4  2  3  1
    Ans:    ( c )    5  6  2  3  4  1
       
20.    If E = 5,  PEN = 35, then PAGE = ?
    (a)    28
    (b)    29
    (c)    36
    (d)    27
    Ans:    ( b )    29
       
21.    If he word ?PORTER? can be coded as ?MBNZQN?,  then how
can ?REPORT? be written?
    (a)    NQMBNZ
    (b)    NQBMNZ
    (c)    NBQMNZ
    (d)    NQMNBZ
    Ans:    ( a )    NQMBNZ
       
22.    In  a certain code, the words ?COME AT ONCE? were
written as XLNVZGLMXV.  In the same code which of the
following would be ?OK? ?
    (a)    LM
    (b)    LP
    (c)    KM
    (d)    KL
    Ans:    ( b )    LP

Directions (Qs. 23) :    In this question, you have to identify
the correct response from the given premises stated
according to following symbols.
23.    If ?+? means ?minus?, ?-? means ?multiplication?, ??
means ?plus? and ?x? means ?division, then
            15 ? 3 + 10 x 5  5 =
    (a)    52
    (b)    48
    (c)    22
    (d)    5
    Ans:    ( b )    48
       
Directions (Qs. 24 ) :    In this question, find the missing
number from the given response.
24.    8    7    10    12
13    12    15    17
10    9    ?    14
    (a)    12
    (b)    10
    (c)    21
    (d)    25
    Ans:    ( a )    12
       

Directions (Qs. 25) :    From the given alternative words
select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word.
25.    Given word :        ADMINISTRATION
    (a)    STATION
    (b)    TRADITION
    (c)    MINISTER
    (d)    RATION
    Ans:    ( c )    MINISTER
       
Directions (Qs. 26) :    A word given in Capital letters is
followed by four answer words.  Out of these only one can be
formed by using the letters of the given word.  Find out
that word.
26.    IMMEDIATELY
    (a)    DIAMETER
    (b)    DICTATE
    (c)    LIMITED
    (d)    DIALECT
    Ans:    ( c )    LIMITED
       
27.    Suresh starts from a point, walks 2 miles towards the
south, turns right and walks 1 ½ miles, turns left and walks
½ mile and then he turns back.  What is the direction he is
facing now?
    (a)    East
    (b)    West
    (c)    South
    (d)    North
    Ans:    ( d )    North
       
28.    Ashok wants to book a ticket to Madurai.  He starts and
covers 5 km to reach the Booking Office which is in the East
of his house.  From there he turns to the North towards the
market by traveling 3 km.  From there he turns left to his
friend Sandeep?s house which is 5 km away.  Now he has to
get back to his house.  How many km he has to cover to reach
his house?
    (a)    8 km
    (b)    3 km
    (c)    5 km
    (d)    6 km
    Ans:    ( b )    3 km
       
29.    The age of X is 2/3rd that of Y.  After 6 years, X will
be 46 years old.  The present age of Y is
    (a)    40 years
    (b)    56 years
    (c)    60 years
    (d)    100 years
    Ans:    ( c )    60 years
       
30.    A is B?s brother, C is A?s mother, D is C?s father, E is
B?s son.  How is D related to A ?
    (a)    Son
    (b)    Grandson
    (c)    Grandfather
    (d)    Great Grandfather
    Ans:    ( c )    Grandfather
       
31.    In a store, 5 articles A, B, C, D and E are priced
differently.  Value of ?C? is Rs. 100.  ?A? is cheaper than
?C? but costlier than ?B?.  ?E? is costlier than ?C? but
cheaper than ?D?.  Which of the articles is the costliest ?
    (a)    D
    (b)    E
    (c)    B
    (d)    A
    Ans:    ( a )    D
       
32.    Read The following information to answer this question :
(i)    A B C D E F are six family members
(ii)    There is one Doctor, one Lawyer, one Engineer, one
Pilot, one Student and one Housewife.
(iii)    There are two married couples in the family.
(iv)    F, who is a Lawyer, is the father of A.
(v)    B is a Pilot and is mother of C.
(vi)    D is grandmother of C and is a housewife.
(vii)    E is father of F and is a Doctor.
(viii)    C is brother of A.
        How many female members are there in the family?
    (a)    One
    (b)    Two
    (c)    Three
    (d)    Four
    Ans:    ( ? )   
       
GENERAL AWARENESS :
51    Capital output ratio of a commodity measures
    (a)    Its per unit cost of production
    (b)    The amount of capital invested per unit of output
    (c)    The ratio of capital depreciation to quantity of output
    (d)    The ratio of working capital employed to quantity of output
    Ans:    ( d )    The ratio of working capital employed to
quantity of output
       
52.    In estimating the budgetary deficit, the official
approach in India is to exclude
    (a)    Long term borrowings from the market
    (b)    Borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India
    (c)    Drawing down of the cash balance
    (d)    Borrowings from Reserve Bank in the form of ways and
means advance
    Ans:    ( d )    Borrowings from Reserve Bank in the form of ways
and means advance
       
53    In equilibrium, a perfectly competitive firm will equate
    (a)    Marginal social cost with marginal social benefit
    (b)    Market supply with market demand
    (c)    Marginal profit with marginal cost
    (d)    Marginal revenue with marginal cost
    Ans:    ( d )    Marginal revenue with marginal cost
       
54    The existence of a Parallel Economy or Black Money
    (a)    Makes the economy more competitive
    (b)    Makes the monetary policies less effective
    (c)    Ensures a better distribution of income and wealth
    (d)    Ensures increasing productive investment
    Ans:    ( b )    Makes the monetary policies less effective
       
55.    Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme ?
    (a)    Pepsin
    (b)    Rennin
    (c)    Insulin
    (d)    Amylopsin
    Ans:    ( c )    Insulin
       
56.    The ?Theory of Evolution? was put forward by
    (a)    Louis Pasteur
    (b)    Aristotle
    (c)    Gregor Mendel
    (d)    Charles Darwin
    Ans:    ( d )    Charles Darwin
       
57.    Which combination of colours is the most convenient
during day and night time?
    (a)    Orange and blue
    (b)    White and black
    (c)    Yellow and blue
    (d)    Red and green
    Ans:    ( d )    Red and green
       
58.    In a human body, the longest bone is in the
    (a)    Vertebral column
    (b)    Thigh
    (c)    Rib cage
    (d)    Arm
    Ans:    ( b )    Thigh
       
59.    Where did the miniature Bani Thani paintings of Indian
heritage develop?
    (a)    Guler
    (b)    Mewar
    (c)    Bundi
    (d)    Kishengarh
    Ans:    ( d )    Kishengarh
       
60.    Match the artists and their artforms :
        Artists                    Artforms
(A)    Ustad Allaud-din Khan    (1)    Bharat natyam
(B)    Hema Malini    (2)    Sarod
(C)    Birju Maharaj    (3)    Santoor
(D)    Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma    (4)    Kathak dance
        (A)    (B)    (C)    (D)
    (a)    (1)    (3)    (2)    (4)
    (b)    (2)    (4)    (3)    (1)
    (c)    (3)    (2)    (4)    (1)
    (d)    (2)    (1)    (4)    (3)
    Ans:    ( d )    (2)    (1)    (4)    (3)
       
61.    A training ship of the Indian Navy, controlled through
sails, left on a sixteen month goodwill mission around the
world in January 2003.  which is that ship?
    (a)    INS Tarangini
    (b)    INS Garuda
    (c)    INS Tir
    (d)    INS Godavari
    Ans:    ( a )    INS Tarangini
       
62.    The headquarters of UNESCO is in
    (a)    New York
    (b)    The Hague
    (c)    Paris
    (d)    Moscow
    Ans:    ( c )    Paris
       
63.    Bronze is an alloy of
    (a)    Copper and Zinc
    (b)    Tin and Zinc
    (c)    Copper and Tin
    (d)    Iron and Zinc
    Ans:    ( c )    Copper and Tin
       
64.    The natural source of hydrocarbon is
    (a)    Crude oil
    (b)    Biomass
    (c)    Coal
    (d)    Carbohydrates
    Ans:    ( a )    Crude oil
       
65.    Which of the following is chiefly present in LPG
(Liquefied Petroleum Gas)?
    (a)    Methane
    (b)    Ethane
    (c)    Propane
    (d)    Butane
    Ans:    ( a )    Methane
       
66.    Which British Governor-General introduced Postage Stamp
in India?
    (a)    Lord Dalhousie
    (b)    Lord Auckland
    (c)    Lord Canning
    (d)    Lord William Bentinck
    Ans:    ( a )    Lord Dalhousie
       
67.    The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was
opened in
    (a)    1852
    (b)    1853
    (c)    1854
    (d)    1855
    Ans:    ( b )    1853
       
68.    The famous rock-cut temple of kailasa is at
    (a)    Ajanta
    (b)    Badami
    (c)    Mahabalipuram
    (d)    Ellora
    Ans:    ( d )    Badami
       
69.    World Environment Day falls on
    (a)    June 5
    (b)    October 2
    (c)    November 10
    (d)    November 19
    Ans:    ( a )    June 5
       
70.    The original name of Swami Dayananda Saraswati was
    (a)    Abhi Shankar
    (b)    Gowri Shankar
    (c)    Daya Shankar
    (d)    Mula Shankar
    Ans:    ( d )    Mula Shankar
       
71.    An element which does not react with oxygen is
    (a)    Chlorine
    (b)    Iodine
    (c)    Helium
    (d)    Nitrogen
    Ans:    ( c )    Helium
       
72.    The instrument that measures and records the relative
humadity of air is
    (a)    Hydrometer
    (b)    Hygrometer
    (c)    Lactometer
    (d)    Barometer
    Ans:    ( b )    Hygrometer
       
73.    The shape of our milky way galaxy is
    (a)    Circular
    (b)    Elliptical
    (c)    Spiral
    (d)    None of the above
    Ans:    ( c )    Spiral
       
74.    The different colours of different stars are due to the
variation of
    (a)    Temperature
    (b)    Pressure
    (c)    Density
    (d)    Radiation from them
    Ans:    ( a )    Temperature
       
75.    Coastal Andhra Pradesh and Orissa often face natural
disasters due to
    (a)    Cyclones
    (b)    Earthquakes
    (c)    Landslides
    (d)    Tornadoes
    Ans:    ( a )    Cyclones
       
76.    Sex ratio refers to the number of women
    (a)    Per sq. km. In relation to the males
    (b)    Per 1,000 males
    (c)    Per state in relation to the males
    (d)    And the number of men in an area
    Ans:    ( b )    Per 1,000 males
       
77.    River Damodar is called ?Sorrow of Bengal? because it
    (a)    Gets flooded often causing havoc
    (b)    Causes maximum soil erosion
    (c)    Forms number of dangerous waterfalls
    (d)    Is not a perennial river
    Ans:    ( a )    Gets flooded often causing havoc
       
78.    ?Radcliff line? is a boundary line between
    (a)    India and Bangladesh
    (b)    India and Bhutan
    (c)    India and China
    (d)    India and Pakistan
    Ans:    ( d )    India and Pakistan
       
79.    From which constitution of the world, the Indian
Constitution has adopted the concept of ?Directive
Principles of State Policy? ?
    (a)    Ireland
    (b)    U.S.A.
    (c)    Canada
    (d)    Australia
    Ans:    ( a )    Ireland
       
80.    Which of the following is not an administrative function
of a Village Panchayat?
    (a)    Providing sanitation and drainage
    (b)    Providing burial and cremation grounds
    (c)    Providing college education
    (d)    Maintenance of roads, tanks and wells
    Ans:    ( c )    Providing college education
       
81.    The Swadeshi Movement was launched
    (a)    As a protest against the division of Bengal
    (b)    With a view to improve the economic condition of the
people by encouraging consumption of Indian goods
    (c)    As a protest against the massacre of Indian people at
Jallianwala Bagh
    (d)    Due to the failure of the British government to
introduce responsible Government in India
    Ans:    ( a )    As a protest against the division of Bengal
       
82.    The concept of political sovereignty was advocated by
    (a)    Plato
    (b)    John Locke
    (c)    Rousseau
    (d)    Austin
    Ans:    ( c )    Rousseau
       
83.    The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was
    (a)    Nargis Dutt
    (b)    Shabana Azmi
    (c)    Madhubala
    (d)    Meena Kumari
    Ans:    ( a )    Nargis Dutt
       
84.    Which of the following groups suffers the most from high
inflation ?
    (a)    Debtors
    (b)    Creditors
    (c)    Business class
    (d)    Holders of real assets
    Ans:    ( b )    Creditors
       
85.    An economy is in equilibrium when
    (a)    Planned consumption exceeds planned saving
    (b)    Planned consumption exceeds planned investment
    (c)    Intended investment equals intended saving
    (d)    Intended investment exceeds intended saving
    Ans:    ( c )    Intended investment equals intended saving
       
86.    The best way in which a bank can avoid loss is to
    (a)    Lend only to individuals known to the bank
    (b)    Accept sound collateral
    (c)    Give only short-term loans
    (d)    Lend only to bank?s old customers
    Ans:    ( b )    Accept sound collateral
       
87.    Which one of the following is left when an hydrogen atom
loses its electron?
    (a)    An alpha particle
    (b)    A neutron
    (c)    A proton
    (d)    A beta particle
    Ans:    ( c )    A proton
       
88.    The fundamental scientific principle in the operation of
a battery is
    (a)    Acid-base interaction
    (b)    Dialysis
    (c)    Dissociation of electrolytes
    (d)    Oxidation-reduction
    Ans:    ( d )    Oxidation-reduction
       
89.    ?Dykes? are especially constructed in
    (a)    Norway
    (b)    Holland
    (c)    France
    (d)    United Kingdom
    Ans:    ( b )    Holland
       
90.    Colorado in U.S.A. is famous for which of the following
landforms?
    (a)    Grand Canyon
    (b)    Grand Craors
    (c)    Great Valleys
    (d)    Great Basins
    Ans:    ( a )    Grand Canyon
       
91.    Daily weather changes in the atmosphere are associated with
    (a)    Troposphere
    (b)    Mesosphere
    (c)    Ionosphere
    (d)    Stratosphere
    Ans:    ( a )    Troposphere
       
92.    Epigraphy means
    (a)    The study of coins
    (b)    The study of inscriptions
    (c)    The study of epics
    (d)    The study of geography
    Ans:    ( b )    The study of inscriptions
       
93.    The 19th century reawakening in India was confined to the
    (a)    Priestly class
    (b)    Upper middle class
    (c)    Rich peasantry
    (d)    Urban landlords
    Ans:    ( b )    Upper middle class
       
94.    Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British
Parliament ?
    (a)    Dadabhai Naoroji
    (b)    Gopal Krishna Gokhale
    (c)    Bipin Chandra Pal
    (d)    Lala Lajpat Rai
    Ans:    ( a )    Dadabhai Naoroji
       
95.    Who introduced the permanent settlement in Bengal ?
    (a)    Lord Cornwallis
    (b)    Lord Dalhousie
    (c)    Lord William Bentinck
    (d)    Lord Curzon
    Ans:    ( a )    Lord Cornwallis
       
96.    Which one of the following metals is used to galvaniese iron
    (a)    Copper
    (b)    Lead
    (c)    Zinc
    (d)    Mercury
    Ans:    ( c )    Zinc
       
97.    The Instrument used to measure the force and velocity of
the wind is
    (a)    Ammeter
    (b)    Anemometer
    (c)    Altimeter
    (d)    Audiometer
    Ans:    ( b )    Anemometer
       
98.    To whom can a case of dispute in the election of the
President of India be referred to ?
    (a)    Election Commission
    (b)    Parliament
    (c)    Supreme Court of India
    (d)    Cabinet
    Ans:    ( c )    Supreme Court of India
       
99.    Which company invented the transistor radio?
    (a)    Sony
    (b)    Texas Instuments
    (c)    Panasonic
    (d)    Telstra
    Ans:    ( b )    Texas Instuments
       
100.    Which amidst the following rural banks has been named
after a river ?
    (a)    Prathama Bank
    (b)    Varada Grameen Bank
    (c)    Thar Anchalik Grameen Bank
    (d)    Aravali Kehetriya Grameen Bank
    Ans:    ( b )    Varada Grameen Bank
       
NUMERICAL ABILITY :
101. IF A - 1 B- 2 C - 3 ACDF+ EFC=

102. 12098+547890-9987=


103. 1/2+1/4+1/5=

104. 786543+99087/56=

105. z=1 a =26 c=?

       
106.    The value of 52 + 62 + ???.. + 102 + 202
    (a)    755
    (b)    760
    (c)    765
    (d)    770
    Ans:    ( a )    755
       
107.    The sum of the first 8 terms of a geometric progression
is 6560 and the common ratio is 3.  The first term is
    (a)    1
    (b)    2
    (c)    3
    (d)    4
    Ans:    ( b )    2
       
108.    How many even three-digit numbers can be formed from
the digits 1, 2, 5, 6 and 9 without repeating any of the
digits ?
    (a)    120
    (b)    48
    (c)    40
    (d)    24
    Ans:    ( d )    24
       
109.    A and B, working separately, can do a piece of work in
10 and 15 days respectively.  If they work on alternate days
beginning with A, then in how many days will the work be
completed?
    (a)    18 days
    (b)    13 days
    (c)    12 days
    (d)    6 days
    Ans:    ( c )    12 days
       
110.    Two pipes can fill a tank separately in 20 minutes and
30 minutes respectively.  If both the pipes are opened
simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in
    (a)    10 minutes
    (b)    12 minutes
    (c)    15 minutes
    (d)    25 minutes
    Ans:    ( b )    12 minutes
       
111.    A can complete a work in 6 days while B can complete
the same work in 12 days.  If they work together and
complete it, then the portion of the work done by A is
    (a)    1/3
    (b)    2/3
    (c)    1/4
    (d)    1/2
    Ans:    ( b )    2/3
       
112.    If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 50% and the
height is increased by 50% to form a new cylinder, then the
volume will be decreased by
    (a)    0%
    (b)    25%
    (c)    62.5%
    (d)    75%
    Ans:    ( c )    62.5%
       
113.    The circum-radius of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm.
The in-radius of the triangle is
    (a)    3.25 cm
    (b)    3.50 cm
    (c)    4 cm
    (d)    4.25 cm
    Ans:    ( c )    4 cm
       
114.    The missing term in the sequence 0,  3,  8,  15,  24,
?..,  48
    (a)    35
    (b)    30
    (c)    36
    (d)    39
    Ans:    ( a )    35
       
115.    If (1012 + 25)2 ? (1012 ? 25)2 = 10n, then the value of
n is
    (a)    20
    (b)    14
    (c)    10
    (d)    5
    Ans:    ( b )    14
       
116.    The sum of first sixty numbers from one to sixty is
divisible by
    (a)    13
    (b)    59
    (c)    60
    (d)    61
    Ans:    ( d )    61
       
117.    A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to a
single discount of
    (a)    50.0%
    (b)    56.8%
    (c)    60.2%
    (d)    70.28%
    Ans:    ( b )    56.8%
       
118.    A sells a scooter priced at Rs. 36,000.   He gives a
discount of 8% on the first Rs. 20,000 and 5% on the next
Rs. 10,000.  How much discount can he afford on the
remaining Rs. 6,000 if he is to get as much s 7% discount on
the total ?
    (a)    5%
    (b)    6%
    (c)    7%
    (d)    8%
    Ans:    ( c )    7%
       
119.    The marked price of an electric iron is Rs. 690.  The
shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% and gains 8%.  If no
discount is allowed, then his gain percent would be
    (a)    20%
    (b)    24%
    (c)    25%
    (d)    28%
    Ans:    ( a )    20%
       
120.    The ratio of the ages of two boys is 5 : 6.   After two
years the ratio will be 7 : 8.  The ratio of their ages
after 10 years will be
    (a)    15 : 16
    (b)    17 : 18
    (c)    11 : 12
    (d)    22 : 24
    Ans:    ( a )    15 : 16
       
121.    The sum of three numbers is 116.  The ratio of the
second to the third is 9 : 16 and of the first to the third
is 1 : 4.   The second number is
    (a)    30
    (b)    32
    (c)    34
    (d)    36
    Ans:    ( b )    32
       
122.    Rs. 180 are to be divided among 66 persons (men and
women).  The ratio of the total amount of money received by
men and women is 5 : 4.  But the ratio of the money received
by each man and woman is 3 : 2.  The number of men is
    (a)    20
    (b)    24
    (c)    30
    (d)    36
    Ans:    ( d )    36
       
123.    The average of a collection of 20 measurements was
calculated to be 56 cm.  But later it was found that a
mistake had occurred in one of the measurements which was
recorded as 64 cm, but should have been 61 cm.   The correct
average must be
    (a)    53 cm
    (b)    54.5 cm
    (c)    55.85 cm
    (d)    56.15 cm
    Ans:    ( c )    55.85 cm
       
124.    The average weight of 12 parcels is 1.8 kg.  Addition
of another new parcel reduces the average weight by 50 g.
What is the weight of the new parcel?
    (a)    1.50 kg
    (b)    1.10 kg
    (c)    1.15 kg
    (d)    1.01 kg
    Ans:    ( c )    1.15 kg
       
125.    The average age of 20 boys in a class is 12 years.  5
new boys are admitted to the class whose average age is 7
years.   The average age of the boys in the class becomes
    (a)    8.2 years
    (b)    9.5 years
    (c)    12.5 years
    (d)    11 years
    Ans:    ( d )    11 years
       
126.    If 3x+3 + 7 = 250, the x is equal to
    (a)    5
    (b)    3
    (c)    2
    (d)    1
    Ans:    ( c )    2
       
127.    A die with faces numbered from 1 to 6 is thrown twice.
 The probability, that the numbers shown up differ by 2,  is
    (a)    1/9
    (b)    2/9
    (c)    3/9
    (d)    4/9
    Ans:    ( b )    2/9
       
128.    In the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 15, 20, 29, 40, 53,
one number is wrong.  The wrong number is
    (a)    15
    (b)    20
    (c)    29
    (d)    40
    Ans:    ( a )    15
       
129.    1 + 2 + 3 + ??. + 49 + 50 + 49 + 48 + ??. + 3 + 2 + 1
is equal to
    (a)    1250
    (b)    2500
    (c)    2525
    (d)    5000
    Ans:    ( b )    2500
       
130.    The surface area of a sphere is 64 cm2 its diameter is
equal to
    (a)    16 cm
    (b)    8 cm
    (c)    4 cm
    (d)    2 cm
    Ans:    ( b )    8 cm
       
131.    Each of the height and base radius of a cone is
increased by 100%.  The percentage increase in the volume of
the cone is
    (a)    700%
    (b)    400%
    (c)    300%
    (d)    100%
    Ans:    ( a )    700%
       
132.    A television and a refrigerator were sold for Rs.
12,000 each.  If the television was sold at a loss of 20% of
the cost and the refrigerator at a gain of 20% of the cost,
then the entire transaction resulted in
    (a)    No loss or gain
    (b)    Loss of rs. 1,000
    (c)    Gain of rs. 1,000
    (d)    Loss of Rs. 1,200
    Ans:    ( b )    Loss of rs. 1,000
       
133.    A person sells a table at a profit of 10%.  If he had
bought the table at 5% less cost and sold for Rs. 80 more,
then he would have gained 20%.  The cost price of the table is
    (a)    Rs. 3,200
    (b)    Rs. 2,500
    (c)    Rs. 2,000
    (d)    Rs. 200
    Ans:    ( c )    Rs. 2,000
       
134.    By selling an article at 2/3 of the marked price, there
is a loss of 10%.  The profit percent, when the article is
sold at the marked price, is
    (a)    20%
    (b)    30%
    (c)    35%
    (d)    40%
    Ans:    ( c )    35%
       
135.    A moving train, 66 metres long, overtakes another train
88 metres long, moving in the same direction in 0.168
minutes.  If the second train is moving at 30 km/r, then at
what speed is the first train moving ?
    (a)    85 km/hr
    (b)    50 km/hr
    (c)    55 km/hr
    (d)    25 km/hr
    Ans:    ( a )    85 km/hr
       
136.    A man observed that a train 120 m long crossed him in 9
seconds.  The speed (in km/hr) of the train was
    (a)    42
    (b)    45
    (c)    48
    (d)    55
    Ans:    ( c )    48
       
137.    A constable is 114 metres behind a thief.  The
constable runs 21 metres and the thief 15 metres in a
minute.  In what time will the constable catch the thief ?
    (a)    19 minutes
    (b)    18 minutes
    (c)    17 minutes
    (d)    16 minutes
    Ans:    ( a )    19 minutes
       
138.    Joseph?s salary is reduced by 10%.  In order to have
his salary back to his original amount, it must be raised by
    (a)    12.5%
    (b)    11 1/9 %
    (c)    10%
    (d)    11%
    Ans:    ( b )    11 1/9 %
       
139.    How many positive integers less than 1000 are multiples
of 11 whose square roots are whole numbers ?
    (a)    2
    (b)    4
    (c)    8
    (d)    11
    Ans:    ( a )    2
       
140.    The digit in the unit?s place of the product (2137)754 is
    (a)    1
    (b)    3
    (c)    7
    (d)    9
    Ans:    ( d )    9
       
141.    The smallest square number divisible by 10, 16 and 24 is
    (a)    900
    (b)    1600
    (c)    2500
    (d)    3600
    Ans:    ( d )    3600
       
142.    If the compound interest on a sum of money for 3 years
at the rate of 5% per annum is Rs. 252.20, then the simple
interest on the same sum at the same rate and for the same
time is
    (a)    Rs. 220
    (b)    Rs. 240
    (c)    Rs. 245
    (d)    Rs. 250
    Ans:    ( b )    Rs. 240
       
143.    On a certain sum of money, the compound interest for 2
years is Rs. 282.15 and the simple interest for the same
period of time is Rs. 270.   The rate of interest per annum is
    (a)    6.07%
    (b)    10%
    (c)    9%
    (d)    12.15%
    Ans:    ( c )    9%
       
144.    What sum of money at compound interest will amount to
Rs. 650 at the end of the first year and Rs. 676 at the end
of the second year ?
    (a)    Rs. 600
    (b)    Rs. 600.25
    (c)    Rs. 625
    (d)    Rs. 625.25
    Ans:    ( c )    Rs. 625
       
145.    A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, B
and C together in 15 days and C and A together in 20 days.
In how many days, can A, B and C together do it ?
    (a)    5 days
    (b)    10 days
    (c)    24 days
    (d)    30 days
    Ans:    ( b )    10 days
       
146.    The measures of the angles of a triangle are in the
ratio 2 : 7 : 11.  Measures of the angles are
    (a)    160, 560, 880
    (b)    180, 630, 990
    (c)    200, 700, 900
    (d)    250, 1750, 1050
    Ans:    ( b )    180, 630, 990
       
147.    The ratio of the cost price and the selling price of an
article is 5 : 6.  What is the percentage of profit ?
    (a)    20%
    (b)    15%
    (c)    12.5%
    (d)    10%
    Ans:    ( a )    20%
       
148.    Which number is 40% less than 90 ?
    (a)    36
    (b)    54
    (c)    50
    (d)    60
    Ans:    ( b )    54
       
149.    (32)3 + (79)3 ? (111)3 + 3 x 32 x 79 x 111 is equal to
    (a)    10000
    (b)    0
    (c)    30007
    (d)    1
    Ans:    ( b )    0
       
150.    If the ratio of two numbers is 2 : 3 and their L.C.M.
is 54, then the sum of the two numbers is
    (a)    5
    (b)    15
    (c)    45
    (d)    270
    Ans:    ( c )    45


ENGLISH

PART-I ::  ENGLISH LANGUAGE
 Directions (Qs. 1?15) : Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.  Certain
words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them
while answering some of the questions.
  The wise old Wazir was Famous for his judgement and people
came to him for justice from all parts of the country. 
One-day two men came to his court and claimed ownership of
an extraordinarily good-looking horse.  It was a black
beauty indeed.  One of the men was tall, very well dressed
and soft-spoken.  The other one was just the opposite.  Each
of them said that the horse was his.  The Wazir heard them
patiently and asked them to leave the horse and come to him
next morning.  Both the men came the next morning.  The
Wazir asked his soldiers to give the horse to the tall man
and to arrest the other man.  The tall man wanted to know
how the Wazir had learnt the truth.  ?Very simple?, said he,
?Firstly, a man of your appearance and manners could not
have been the thief.  Still, I wanted to be sure, just after
you had left the court.  I asked one of my soldiers to leave
the horse free and to see whom it followed.  It went after
you.  This hint was enough for me.?
1. Which of the following best describes the other man?
 (A) Ill-dressed, short-statured, loud-voice
 (B) Tall, ill-dressed, courteous
 (C) Not well-dressed, short but good mannered
 (D) Thin, poorly-built, harsh in expression
 Ans: ( A ) Ill-dressed, short-statured, loud-voice
  
2. The Wazir discovered the real owner of the horse---
 (A) by arresting the other man
 (B) from the appearance and good manners of the tall man
 (C) by knowing whom the horse followed
 (D) by leaving the horse free
 Ans: ( C ) by knowing whom the horse followed
  
3. With the Wazir?s wisdom, the tall man was--
 (A) consoled
 (B) impressed
 (C) undecided
 (D) confused
 Ans: ( B ) impressed
  
4. People came to the Wazir from all places because he was ---
 (A) a wise judge
 (B) very famous
 (C) an old judge
 (D) an old Wazir
 Ans: ( A ) a wise judge
  
5. The story proves that ---
 (A) the court soldiers were very smart
 (B) the judge was quite old
 (C) the horse was very clever
 (D) the judge was indeed quite intelligent 
 Ans: ( D ) the judge was indeed quite intelligent
  
 Directions (Qs. 6?10) : Which of the following is most
nearly the same in meaning as the word/group of words as
printed in bold as used in the passage?
6. Claimed
 (A) Demanded as a right
 (B) Promised
 (C) Declared
 (D) Possessed
 Ans: ( A ) Demanded as a right
  
7. Followed
 (A) Pursued
 (B) Owned
 (C) Went after
 (D) Interrupted
 Ans: ( C ) Went after
  
8. Hint
 (A) Advice
 (B) Clue
 (C) Truth
 (D) Nod
 Ans: ( B ) Clue
  
9. Patiently
 (A) Politely
 (B) Willingly
 (C) Sufficiently
 (D) Calmly
 Ans: ( D ) Calmly
  
10. Still
 (A) However
 (B) Calm
 (C) Quiet
 (D) Though
 Ans: ( A ) However
  
 Directions (Qs. 11?15) : Which of the following is most
opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in
the passage ?
11. Extraordinarily
 (A) Exceptionally
 (B) Unusually
 (C) Exactly
 (D) Plainly
 Ans: ( D ) Plainly
  
12. Sure
 (A) Promising 
 (B) Definite 
 (C) Unfaithful
 (D) Uncertain
 Ans: ( B ) Definite
  
13. Famous
 (A) Gentle
 (B) Notorious
 (C) Easily known
 (D) Widely known
 Ans: ( B ) Notorious
  
14. Arrest
 (A) Trap
 (B) Imprison
 (C) Catch attention
 (D) Release
 Ans: ( D ) Release
  
15. Enough
 (A) Inadequate
 (B) Sufficient
 (C) Understandable
 (D) Scarce
 Ans: ( D ) Scarce
  
 Directions (Qs. 16?25) : There is a mistake in each of the
following sentences.  Find out the part in which the mistake
occurs.
16. (A) The travel / (B) across the sandy desert / (C) was
an exhausting one / (D) for the caravan.
 Ans: ( A ) 
  
17. (A) No sooner did / (B) he announce the / (C) tour the
children / (D) screamed with great joy.
 Ans: ( C ) 
  
18. (A) His only / (B) frame to claim is that / (C) he is
the son of / (D) a rich man.
 Ans: ( B ) 
  
19. (A) It did not / (B) take me very long / (C) to size up
my / (D) fellow interviewees.
 Ans: ( C ) 
  
20. (A) I am pleased to sanction / (B) one special increment
/ (C) to all the employees / (D) with this month.
 Ans: ( D ) 
  
21. (A) I will put on / (B) a note in this regard / (C) for
your consideration / (D) and necessary decision.
 Ans: ( A ) 
  
22. (A) If the teacher / (B) is good the students / (C) will
respond / (D) positively to them.
 Ans: ( D ) 
  
23. (A) Rajesh has collected / (B) all the necessary
documents / (C) and have written a good paper / (D) for his
conference.
 Ans: ( C ) 
  
24. (A) The old chap / (B) who lives in the little / (C) hut
on the beach / (D) seems to be a real odd bird.
 Ans: ( D ) 
  
25. (A) I have been racking / (B) my brain all the days to
remember / (C) the name of the agency / (D) that Sheila
recommended.
 Ans: ( B ) 
  
 Directions (Qs. 26?35) : Give one word for each of the
following utterances :
26. A person who does not believe in any religion--
 (A) Philatelist
 (B) Rationaslist
 (C) Atheist
 (D) Pagan
 Ans: ( D ) Pagan
  
27. A post without remuneration--
 (A) Voluntary
 (B) Sinecure
 (C) Honorary
 (D) Involuntary
 Ans: ( C ) Honorary
  
28. A person who rules without consulting the opinion of
others--
 (A) Democrat
 (B) Bureaucrat
 (C) Autocrat
 (D) Fanatic
 Ans: ( C ) Autocrat
  
29. Through which light cannot pass--
 (A) Dull
 (B) Dark
 (C) Obscure
 (D) Opaque
 Ans: ( D ) Opaque
  
30. A person who brings goods illegally into the country--
 (A) Exporter
 (B) Importer
 (C) Smuggler
 (D) Imposter 
 Ans: ( C ) Smuggler
  
31. A person who has just started learning--
 (A) Foreman
 (B) Accomplice
 (C) Novice
 (D) Apprentice
 Ans: ( C ) Novice
  
32. A person interested in reading books and nothing else--
 (A) Student
 (B) Book worm
 (C) Scholar
 (D) Book keeper
 Ans: ( B ) Book worm
  
33. One who resides in a country of which he is not citizen--
 (A) Alien
 (B) Native
 (C) Foreigner
 (D) Prodigal
 Ans: ( A ) Alien
  
34. Anything which destroys the effect of poison--
 (A) Serum
 (B) Antiseptic
 (C) Seramycin
 (D) Antidote
 Ans: ( D ) Antidote
  
35. A cure for all diseases--
 (A) Excorcism
 (B) Incantation
 (C) Panacca
 (D) Antibiotic
 Ans: ( C ) Panacca
  
 Directions (Qs. 36?40) : In the following items there is a
word odd in one respect or another from the rest.   Identify
such words.
36. (A) Goal
 (B) Guile
 (C) Gall
 (D) Whole
 Ans: ( D ) Whole
  
37. (A) Whole
 (B) Full
 (C) Fool
 (D) Complete
 Ans: ( C ) Fool
 
38. (A) On
 (B) Upon
 (C) Than
 (D) Over
 Ans: ( C ) Than
  
39. (A) Bring
 (B) Going
 (C) Coming
 (D) Rinning
 Ans: ( A ) Bring
  
40. (A) A
 (B) An
 (C) The
 (D) That
 Ans: ( D ) That
  
 Directions (Qs. 41?45) : In each question below four words
are given.  One of which is correctly spelt.  Choose the
word with correct spelling.
41. (A) Disguise
 (B) Desguise
 (C) Disguese
 (D) Disgiuse
 Ans: ( A ) Disguise
  
42. (A) Buccaner
 (B) Buccanner
 (C) Bucaneer
 (D) Buccaneer
 Ans: ( D ) Buccaneer
  
43. (A) Experence
 (B) Experince
 (C) Experience
 (D) Exparience
 Ans: ( C ) Experience
  
44. (A) Pionear
 (B) Pioneer
 (C) Pyoneer
 (D) Pienear
 Ans: ( B ) Pioneer
  
45. (A) Achievement
 (B) Achievment
 (C) Acheivement
 (D) Achivement
 Ans: ( A ) Achievement
  
 Directions (Qs. 46?55) : In each of the following passages,
there are blanks each of which has been numbered.  These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each. 
Some words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately.  Find out the appropriate words.
 PASSAGE :
We will be crushed if civil ?(46)? is started.  It will be
?(47)? to the clock.  The technique of ?(48)? against it has
been ?(49)?   We may have to wait ?(50)? a year or more for
a suitable ?(51)? to be created.   Any hasty ?(52)? may
result in complete ?(53)? Labour troubles will ?(54)? to
violence and there will be ?(55)? discord. 
46. (A) riot
 (B) disturbance
 (C) war
 (D) disobedience
 Ans: ( D ) disobedience
  
47. (A) damage
 (B) reversal
 (C) setback
 (D) rewinding
 Ans: ( C ) setback
  
48. (A) defence
 (B) protection
 (C) fighting
 (D) guarding
 Ans: ( C ) fighting
  
49. (A) learnt
 (B) practised
 (C) rehearsed
 (D) perfected
 Ans: ( D ) perfected
  
50. (A) at least
 (B) minimum
 (C) for
 (D) approximately
 Ans: ( A ) at least