Thursday, October 7, 2010

INDIAN BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS VACANCIES

IndianBank Indian Bank
Head Office, 66 Rajaji Salai, Chennai – 600001 (Tamil Nadu)
Published by Manisha for sarkari-naukri.blogspot.com 

Indian Bank invites Online applications from Indian Citizens for the posts of Probationary Officer :
  • Probationary Officers (PO)  : 850 posts (UR-428, SC-128,ST-64,OBC-230) (PH-27) in JMG Scale-I, Age : 21-30 years as on 01/07/2010, Pay Scale : 14500-25700, Qualification :  Graduation in any discipline with 55% aggregate marks / equivalent CGPA (50% for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PH candidates)

Application Fee : Rs.400/-(Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates) to be paid in any branch of Indian Bank only by cash by challans only which can be downloaded from the website.

How to Apply : Application should be submitted only Online at the Indian Bank website between 12/10/2010 and 11/11/2010 .

Important Dates :
  1. Opening date for Online Registration - 12th October 2010
  2. Opening date for Payment of fees at branches- 12th October 2010
  3. Closing date for Online Registration - 11th November 2010
  4. Date of Written-Test - 2nd January 2010
Please visit http://www.indianbank.in/career.php for all the details and a link to the online submission of the application.

Tuesday, October 5, 2010

SBI BANK EXAM MODEL SET PAPER

1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as
$4#6. How is PORT written in that code?
(1) %4$#
(2) $3%#
(3) $64%
(4) %3$#
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT,
each of which has as many letters between them in the word as
they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said 'She is the only grad
daughter of my grandmother's daughter'. How is the girl in
photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear
5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the
previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter
which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR
written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM
8. If ' P Q' means 'P is wife of Q', 'P+Q' means 'P is father of Q'
and 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q' then in G H +R D, how is G
related to D?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending
order, how many digits will remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27
11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters
AEHT, using each letter only once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
12. If '' means 'x', $ means '+', # means ' ' and '©' means '-' then
what is the value of
360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these
13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow,
yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of
turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second,
the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word
PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that
word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your
answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your
answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y
15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of
Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right
of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how
many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @
are used with different meanings as follows:
'A © B' means 'A is smaller than B'
'A # B' means 'A is either smaller than or equal to B'
'A « B' means 'A is greater than B'
'A $ B' means 'A is either greater than or equal to B'
'A @ B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements
to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given
below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J
Conclusions: I. V © L
II. S © J
17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H
Conclusions: I. M #H
II. R © H
18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M
Conclusions: I. H «M
II. H «G
19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T
II. J @ l
20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F
Conclusions: I. W $ K
II. W @ K
Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to take the three given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
three given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the
correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.
22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.
23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.
24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.
25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a
question and two statements numbered I and II are given below
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements
and
Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.
27. What is the code for 'Play' in the code language?
I. In the code language 'play and dance' is written as 'ka to pe'
II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as 'pe jo ra'.
28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is
twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top.
29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than
Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.
30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.
Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following
letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and
answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis
of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) $9F
(2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ
32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement
which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these
33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following series based on the above arrangement?
EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these
34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right
end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P
(4) #
(5) None of these
35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement
each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not
immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of
following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a
circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is
third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits
between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.
36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these
37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these
39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first
person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these
Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one
of the five answer figures on the right should come after the
problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
ANSWERS
1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5)
11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4),
20. (1)
21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5),
30. (5)
31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1),
40. (2)
41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49.
(2), 50. (3)

INTERVIEW SCHEDULE FOR CPO SI UNDER GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2010


Interview Schedule for Sub-Inspector in CPOs under
Combined Graduate Level Exam, 2010
No. of candidates: 1324
Region No. of
Candidates
No. of
Sittings
No. of
Boards
No. of
days
Date(s) of
Interview
CR 366 22 04/02
Allahabad/
Lucknow
06 01.12.10 to
08.12.10
ER 73 05 02/01 03 01.12.10 to
02.12.10
KKR 18 01 01 01 01.12.10
MPR 28 02 02 01 01.12.10
NER 61 04 02 02 01.12.10 to
02.12.10
NR 647 40 05 08 01.12.10 to
10.12.10
NWR 41 03 02/01 02 01.12.10 to
02.12.10
SR 53 03 02/01 02 01.12.10 to
02.12.10
WR 37 02 02 01 01.12.10

Monday, October 4, 2010

Uttar Pradesh police unsure of fiddling with the handlebar moustache

The Uttar Pradesh (UP) Police are facing a ticklish hirsute problem these days.

The top brass finds itself virtually on the handlebar of a dilemma on whether the men in uniform should necessarily sport a moustache.

Since there is no rule or government order categorically dealing with the issue, the hairy problem continues to bristle.

The question came up after UP Police recently recruited about 35,000 new candidates. Their training is to begin soon, and “dress regulation” forms an essential part of that regimen. The UP Police Uniform Rules, 1986, has clear instructions about haircuts and the obligation of shaving everyday. But there are no similar guidelines on moustaches.

However, director general (Police Training) BL Yadav feels the moustache is a symbol of authority. “It adds a sense of pride and prestige to a policeman’s look,” he says, also pointing out that there has been a tradition of giving a special “moustache maintenance allowance” to those exceptionally endowed at the philtrum. The officer says a decision would be taken after consultation with army officers and retired police officers, and only then would a proposal be put up before the government on this subject.

Others in the police fraternity feel that whiskers as part of a cop’s turnout is an obsolete concept.

“Those were times when a policeman was supposed to look scary to strike fear among outlaws, but not anymore,” says Sriram Arun, retired director general of police, UP. “Now, the police force is expected to be friendly to the people, and big moustaches could convey just the opposite impression,” he adds.

He is of the view that “to grow or not to grow” should be a matter of personal choice, as it has always been, rather than being one forced through rules and regulations.

Most officials this correspondent spoke to supported this lenient view. “The army prohibits keeping a beard. But, neither the army nor the paramilitary forces have stringent rules on moustaches,” says a senior police official.

Another points out that the army only has a “grooming standard” providing guidelines for moustache maintenance.

For the time being, the Police Training Directorate is learnt to be weighing the pros and cons before taking a call on the bushy issue.

Till then, the matter remains, well, fuzzy.

User Manual Staff Selection Commission Skill Test in Typing/Data Entry/Word Processing/Transcription of Stenography

User Manual
Staff Selection Commission
Skill Test in Typing/Data Entry/Word Processing/Transcription of
Stenography
2
STEP BY STEP GUIDE
Step-1: Candidate needs to enter his/her roll number in the text box appearing in the
following figure:
Note: There may be variation in the screen depending on the skill test and examination.
Step-2: After entering the roll number Press Enter.
3
Step-2: Candidate’s profile appears on the screen, press confirm button if Candidate’s
profile is correct or call Invigilator.
4
Step-3: Read the instructions for the type test. Now press the Start Trial Test button on the
right side to begin entry/typing of Test passage. Once the Start Trial Test button is
pressed trial test will be started immediately. Time remaining for the test will start showing
on upper right corner of the screen.
When the duration of the test is over candidate would not be able to type further.
Note: Duration of the trial passage will be 5 minutes for typing/Data Entry/ Word processing.
Note: Duration of the Actual Test will be 10 minutes for typing and 15 minutes for data entry/word
processing. For transcription of stenography, the duration for transcription will vary depending on
speed of dictation and language.
5
Step-4: The following white space area will be visible to you for typing after pressing the
‘Trial Test Button’.
At the bottom of the page, ‘Start actual Test’ button will also appear. When trial test is over then,
White space area will be disabled so that you cannot typed further, and ‘start Actual Test’ button
will be enabled so that you can start your actual test.
6
Step-5: When you press ‘Start Actual Test’ then actual test will commence. The actual test
screen is shown bellow.
Note 1: If you finish typing/entering data/ transcribing before expiry of allocated time, do not
repeat the passage and use the spare time for correction of errors in the script/data.
Note 2: You should press the ‘SAVE’ button only after the duration of the test or completion of the
typing/entering/correction which ever is earlier. Once ‘SAVE’ button is pressed, no further
changes can be made in the script/data/transcript
Note-3: Unless ‘SAVE’ button is pressed, the text/data entered by you will not be saved.
Therefore, ensure that ‘SAVE’ button is pressed at the end of the test.
Note 4: The Commission will not be responsible for loss of data due to failure to press the ‘SAVE’
button.
7
Step-6: Initially the Print button is set to disable. Once the save button is pressed or the test is
finished Print button will get enable. Print button should be used to get the print-outs of desired
file.
Note : The Commission may dispense with print-outs of text generated or transcripts.
8
Step-7: There may be a situation when printer will not be able to print the desired
document due to some reasons. In such situation, candidates may seek help from the
Invigilator. He will click the Browse button to open the desired typed file. Whenever the
Invigilator click the Browse button a dialog box will appear and ask for the Invigilator’s
username and password. If the password and username of invigilator are verified then
only Invigilator can browse the typed file. Now the print-out of typed file can be taken
easily.
Note: The Commission may dispense with print-outs of text/data/transcript.