CLERK JOB IN ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE OBC CLERK

Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC)
(A Government of Indian Undertaking)
Head Office, Harsha Bhawan, E-Block, Connaught Place, New Delhi – 110001

Oriental Bank of India (OBC), a leading public sector bank invites Online Applications from Indian citizens for 1105 posts in Clerical Cadre.

Clerks : 1105 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.4410-13210/- (Revising soon), Age : Min - 18-28 years, Qualification : Degree in any discipline or its equivalent with any class/division  OR 10+2 examination or its equivalent with minimum 50%.
Selection Procedure: The selection will be on the basis of written test and interview. Written test will be conducted on 09/01/2011.

Application Fee : Rs. 300/- (Rs. 50/- for SC/ST/PH/Ex-SM) to be deposited at any of the branch of the Oriental Bank of Commerce only in Current A/c No. 00071011002147 from 25/10/2010 to 24/11/2010.

How To Apply: Apply online. Online application will be open from 25/10/2010 to 24/11/2010 at OBC  website.

Details are available at https://www.obcindia.co.in/obcnew/upload/recruitmentResult/Advertisement_clerk-2010-11.doc

SBI BANK EXAM MODEL SET PAPER

1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as
$4#6. How is PORT written in that code?
(1) %4$#
(2) $3%#
(3) $64%
(4) %3$#
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT,
each of which has as many letters between them in the word as
they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said 'She is the only grad
daughter of my grandmother's daughter'. How is the girl in
photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear
5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the
previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter
which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR
written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM
8. If ' P Q' means 'P is wife of Q', 'P+Q' means 'P is father of Q'
and 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q' then in G H +R D, how is G
related to D?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending
order, how many digits will remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27
11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters
AEHT, using each letter only once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
12. If '' means 'x', $ means '+', # means ' ' and '©' means '-' then
what is the value of
360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these
13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow,
yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of
turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second,
the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word
PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that
word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your
answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your
answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y
15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of
Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right
of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how
many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @
are used with different meanings as follows:
'A © B' means 'A is smaller than B'
'A # B' means 'A is either smaller than or equal to B'
'A « B' means 'A is greater than B'
'A $ B' means 'A is either greater than or equal to B'
'A @ B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements
to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given
below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J
Conclusions: I. V © L
II. S © J
17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H
Conclusions: I. M #H
II. R © H
18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M
Conclusions: I. H «M
II. H «G
19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T
II. J @ l
20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F
Conclusions: I. W $ K
II. W @ K
Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to take the three given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
three given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the
correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.
22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.
23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.
24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.
25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a
question and two statements numbered I and II are given below
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements
and
Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.
27. What is the code for 'Play' in the code language?
I. In the code language 'play and dance' is written as 'ka to pe'
II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as 'pe jo ra'.
28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is
twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top.
29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than
Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.
30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.
Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following
letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and
answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis
of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) $9F
(2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ
32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement
which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these
33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following series based on the above arrangement?
EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these
34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right
end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P
(4) #
(5) None of these
35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement
each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not
immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of
following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a
circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is
third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits
between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.
36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these
37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these
39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first
person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these
Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one
of the five answer figures on the right should come after the
problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
ANSWERS
1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5)
11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4),
20. (1)
21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5),
30. (5)
31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1),
40. (2)
41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49.
(2), 50. (3)

Andhra Bank PO Exam.,2008 Solved Paper

Andhra Bank PO Exam.,2008 Solved Paper

Solved Paper
Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008

(Held on 14-09-2008)

General Awareness

1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front?
(A) Prakash Karat
(B) A.B.Bardhan
(C) D.Raju
(D) T.J.Chandrachoodan
(E) M.Veerappa Moily
Ans (E) M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader.
2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.5%
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ?
(1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere
(2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen
(3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (A)
5. The Govt. of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incured by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Keral
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ___
(A) Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) Canada
(E) China
Ans (B)
7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Inflation , which was on a rise consistently for some time
(2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs
(3) Nuclear deal with USA
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (C)
8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in "Youngbyon" was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation . Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI ?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Bank Rate
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reserve Repo Rate
(E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Ans (E)
10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea "a sea of peace, co-operation and friendship" ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) All of these
Ans (C)
11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Russia
(C) Uganda
(D) Tanzania
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World's seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Bajaj Capitals
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of ____
(A) Lebanon
(B) Cuba
(C) Yemen
(D) Zambia
(E) Turkey
Ans (A)
14. Which of the following is/are true about the "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana" to be launched in the near future ?
(1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence
(2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same
(3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ?
(A) Iran
(B) Indonesia
(C) Kuwait
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None Of these
Ans (B)
16. Many Banks have adopted / launched "Core Banking Solution (CBS)" .Core Banking Solution is _______
(A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks
(B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population
(C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery
(D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately ______
(A) 2.5 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 4.5 %
(D) 5 %
(E) 6.33 %
Ans (C)
18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 % ?
(A) Oil
(B) Gas
(C) Sugar
(D) Foodgrain
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
19. The National e- Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives ?
(1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India
(2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs
(3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About ____
(A) Rs. 20,000/-
(B) Rs. 25,000/-
(C) Rs. 23,000/-
(D) Rs. 33,000/-
(E) Rs. 48,000/-
Ans (D)
21. Ana Ivanovic won the "French Open Women's Singles" of Lawn Tennis after defeating _______
(A) Katrina Srebtnik
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Virginia Ruano Pascual
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days?
(A) 5TH October
(B) 5TH August
(C) 5TH July
(D) 5TH June
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of "Biggest Brains in Business"?
(A) L. N. Mittal
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(E) Ratan Tata
Ans (A)
24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank?
(A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society
(B) Accident insurance cover
(C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques
(D) Free cheque book
(E) All are value Added services
Ans (D)
25. Which of the following is the total amount Government of India has earmarked for Agriculture Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme 2008 ?
(A) Rs.10,000 Crore
(B) Rs.25,000 Crore
(C) Rs.45,000 Crore
(D) Rs.72,000 Crore
(E) Rs.83,000 Crore
Ans (D)
26. Which of the following States of India was recognized as the Best e- Governed State in 2007 ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Goa
(E) Delhi
Ans (E)
27. Daiichi Sanyo which has taken a major stake in India's Pharma company Ranbaxy is a firm based in ____
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) North Korea
(D) Japan
(E) USA
Ans (D)
28. Which of the following airlines became the first Indian Based Airlines to operate flight to China?
(A) Indian
(B) Air India
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Jet Airways
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
29. Which of the following meets / summit was organized in Damascus in March 2008 ?
(A) Arab League Summit
(B) G-8 Summit
(C) G-15 Summit
(D) Meeting of trade Minister of WTO members
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
30. India recently signed a Bilateral Investment Promotion Agreement (BIPA) with which of the following countries ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
(E) Myanmar
Ans (E)
31. Opening the Saving Bank Account of a minor girl will be called as which of the following in Banking terminology ?
(A) Retail Banking
(B) Merchant Banking
(C) Institutional Banking
(D) Social Banking
(E) Corporate Banking
Ans (A)
32. Which of the following terms NOT used in Banking Sector?
(A) SLR
(B) NPA
(C) Credit Rating
(D) Fixed
(E) PURA
Ans (E)
33. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following sectors?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Service Sector
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Industrial Sector
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
34. An account in which trading of shares in their electronic form is done is known as _____
(A) Demat Account
(B) NRI Account
(C) NRIO Account
(D) Current Account
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
35. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Risk Management in Banks ?
(A) CRR
(B) RTGS
(C) SLR
(D) Deposit Insurance
(E) All are the measures of risk management
Ans (B)
36. The foreign Direct Investment this year in India reached to the level of about US $ 3.74 billion. In comparison to last years investment the increase is About _______
(A) 50 %
(B) 100%
(C) 125 %
(D) 200 %
(E) 250 %
Ans (C)
37. The duration of which of the following Policies / Schemes is from 2004-2009 ?
(A) Foreign Trade Policy
(B) 11th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) National Rural Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
38. Which of the following test is conducted to know if a sportsman has taken any performance enhancing drugs ?
(A) EEG
(B) Narco Test
(C) ELISA Test
(D) Mind mapping
(E) DOPE tEST
Ans (E)
39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the IIFA Awards 2008 as Best Actress?
(A) Shamita Shetty
(B) Rani Mukherjee
(C) Priyanka Chopra
(D) Konkana Sen
(E) Kareena Kapoor
Ans (E)
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Toward a Hunger Free World" ?
(A) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(B) Ashok Lahiri
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) M.S.Swaminathan
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
41. Which of the following awards is given in the field of cinema?
(A) Kalidas Samman
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Kalinga Award
(E) Dada Sahab Phalke Award
Ans (E)
42. Sudan recently cut its ralations with which of the following countries following an attack on Khartoum by a Darfur Rebel Group ?
(A) Chad
(B) Uganda
(C) Libya
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
43. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society?
(A) Kareena Kapoor
(B) Jaya Bachchan
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Sridevi
(E) None of these
Ans (E) Nafisa Ali
44. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an autonomous organization under Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) NIMI
(B) IGNOU
(C) CAPART
(D) NPCIL
(E) ICRP
Ans (C)
45. World's largest oil reserves (about 2/3rd) are located in ____
(A) Russia
(B) Middle East
(C) Africa
(D) Europe
(E) Canada
Ans (B)
46. Who amongst the following is the author of "Animal People" which was adjudged as the Best Book of the Year?
(A) V.S.Naipaul
(B) Indra Sinha
(C) William Darlymple
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) John Banville
Ans (B)
47. What is India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank ?
(A) 55th
(B) 80th
(C) 100th
(D) 120th
(E) None of these
Ans (D) According to 2008 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank was 120th but to 2009 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank is 122nd position.
48. Which of the following term related with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Grand Slam
(B) Half Nelson
(C) Ashes
(D) Screen
(E) Love
Ans (C)
49. The Russian President visited China in May 2008 and signed a deal for the security of which of the following?
(A) Global Energy
(B) China Sea
(C) Intellectual Property Rights of the Chinese Scientists
(D) Nuclear installation in China
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
50. Which of the following Programmes / Schemes of the Govt. of India is NOT directly related with agriculture activities ?
(A) Drought Prone Areas Programmes (DPAP)
(B) Promotion of Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
(C) Integrated Westlands Development Programme (IWDP)
(D) ANNAPURNA
(E) Desert Development Programme (DDP)
Ans (D)

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2010 English Language : Solved Paper (Held on 4-4-2010)

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
English Language : Solved Paper(Held on 4-4-2010)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived an old lion. The lion, the king of the forest had grown old. He became frail and due to this, he could not hunt for food. With each passing day he became more and more weak. He realized that he would not live for long if it continued like that. He thought how could he arrange for his food ? After pondering over it for quite some time, he decided that he should have an assistant.

The lion thought that a fox would be the best person to handle this position as he was intelligent and clever. He summoned the fox and said, “Dear friend, I have always liked you because you are smart. I want to appoint you as my minister and advise me on all the affairs of the forest”. The old lion also asked the fox, that since he was the king of the forest, he should not have to hunt for his food. With respect to this, the fox’s first duty as minister was to bring him an animal to eat every day. The fox could not refuse the king and accepted the offer.

After the conversation, the fox went out to find an animal for the lion. On the way, he met a fat donkey. He said “My friend, I have got good news for you. You are very lucky. Our king, the lion has chosen you to be his chief minister. He asked me to meet you and inform you about his decision.” The donkey was scared of the lion and said, “I am afraid of the lion. He might kill me and eat me up. Why has he chosen me as his chief minsiter ? I am not even fit enough to be a minster as I am not as intelligent as other animals.” The clever fox laughed and, said, “Dear, you don’t know your great qualities. Our king is dying to meet you. He has chosen you because you are wise, gentle, and hard working. By serving the king, you will be the second most powerful animal of our forest. Imagine, all the other animals will respect you and seek favours from you.” “You must not lose your greatest chance in life.” So, the poor donkey was convinced and got ready to go along with the fox.

In this way, the fox managed to attract the donkey to the lion’s den. When the fox and the donkey approached, the lion was hungrier than ever. But he kept a smiling face and said, “Welcome, my dear friend. Come near me. You are my chief minister.” As the donkey came closer, the lion pounced on him and killed him instantly. The lion thanked the clever fox and was happy to get the food. As the lion sat down to take his meal, the fox said, “Your Majesty, I know you are very hungry but a king must take a bath before his meal”. The lion thought it was a good idea and told the fox to keep a watch on the carcass of the donkey”. The fox silently sat down to keep a watch of the donkey and thought to himslef, “I took all the trouble of getting the donkey here. It is I who deserve the best portion of the meal”. Thus, the fox cut open the head of the donkey and ate up the whole brain. When the lion returned he shouted, “What happened to the donkey’s brain ? I wanted to eat the brain first.” The fox smilingly replied, “Your majesty,
donkeys have no brains. If he had any, he would not have come near a lion at all”.

1. Why did the lion decide to have an assistant for him ?
(A) He was too lazy to hunt for himself
(B) He was old and weak and could not hunt any more
(C) He wanted someone to help him kill the fat donkey
(D) He could not handle the affairs of the forest alone
(E) None of these

2. Why did the lion select the fox as his assistant ?
(A) He had heard that the fox had good hunting skills
(B) He wanted the fox to take over as the king of the forest
(C) The fox had offered to let the lion have his leftovers
(D) He had planned to eat the fox after luring him to become his assistant
(E) None of these

3. Why did the fox say ‘our king is dying to meet you’ to the donkey ?
(A) The king would have died of hunger if the donkey did not meet him
(B) The king desperately wanted the donkey to be his chief minister as he was gentle and hard working
(C) The fox wanted to convince the donkey to come with him to the lion so that the lion could eat him
(D) The king wanted to meet the doneky since all other animals respected the donkey more than the king
(E) None of these


4. Which of the following best describes the donkey ?
(A) Honest
(B) Wicked
(C) Clever
(D) Opportunist
(E) Foolish

5. Which one of the phrases given below the following statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningfully correct sentence in the context of the passage ?
When the lion did not see any brain in the donkey’s head ……….
(A) he spared his life and let him go
(B) he got upset with the fox for having selected such a donkey
(C) he took his decision to make him the chief minister back
(D) the fox explained to him that donekys do not have any brains
(E) None of these

6. What, according to the lion, was the fox’s primary duty as a minister ?
(A) To force all animals to respect their king and seek favours from him
(B) To convince the donkey to become his chief minister
(C) To take over as the king of the forest since the lion had grown too old
(D) To bring him an animal to eat every day
(E) None of these

7. What did the fox do when the lion went to take a bath before having his meal ?
(A) He secretly told the donkey to run away as the lion had planned to kill him
(B) He ate up the donkey’s brain as he had done all the hard work of bringing him to the lion’s den
(C) He held himself responsible for the death of the poor donkey and did not let the lion eat the donkey
(D) He killed the lion with the help of the donkey and became the king of the forest
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE in context of the passage ?
(A) Finally, the fox got the best part of the meal
(B) The donkey was appointed as chief minister to the king
(C) The donkey which the fox had brought for the king did not have any brain in his head
(D) The donkey was very intelligent and clever
(E) None is true

9. What did the lion do when he saw the donkey in his den ?
(A) He was impressed by the donkey and made him his chief minister
(B) He ordered the fox to kill him and eat his brain
(C) He went to take a bath before meeting the donkey
(D) He immediately noticed that the donkey did not have any brain
(E) None of these

10. Which of the following is the moral of the story ?
(A) An idle brain is the devil’s workshop
(B) Fools are deaf to wise words
(C) Never believe an enemy’s sweet talks
(D) Morality can be best tested while one has power
(E) One can only lead a horse to water, but not make him drink it

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. POUNCED
(A) Climbed
(B) Grew
(C) Attacked
(D) Plunged
(E) Roared

12. FIT
(A) Healthy
(B) Deserving
(C) Strong
(D) Valuable
(E) Important

13. LOSE
(A) Misplace
(B) Suffer
(C) Dispose
(D) Defeat
(E) Miss

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. HANDLE
(A) Mismanage
(B) Drop
(C) Confront
(D) Decline
(E) Uncover

15. FRAIL
(A) Unhealthy
(B) Massive
(C) Rich
(D) Robust
(E) Civilised

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. When I called him yesterday, (A) / he offered to donate (B) / a handsome sum to (C) / the flood relief fund. (D) No error (E)

17. The student which (A) / you had thought (B) / so highly of has (C) / failed to pass the examination. (D) No error (E)

18. Government took strict action (A) / against the doctors on strike (B) / but they refused to (C) / resume to work. (D) No error (E)

19. If a person has been given (A) / diplomatic immunity then he (B) / cannot be arrested on a (C) / foreign land under any circumstance. (D) No error (E)

20. A group of birds (A) / migrate from southern part (B) / of the country to the (C) / Northern part during summer. (D) No error (E)

21. The constable said that (A) / the prisoner seize a (B) / fully loaded gun from a policeman (C) / and shot the prosecutor. (D) No error (E)

22. It will not be possible for you (A) / to catch the train on time (B) / because the nearest railway station (C) / is at ten kilometres away. (D) No error (E)

23. Each of the survivors of the Tsunami (A) (B) / have been offered free (C) / psychological consultation to ease their trauma, / by some of the top consultants. (D) No error (E)

24. Considering about her good credentials, (A) / the manager offered her a job (B) / in his organization (C) / despite the lack of experience. (D) No error (E)

25. Although he has been (A) / winning the elections (B) / all years, this year his popularity (C) / has substantially reduced. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) To their surprise, however, the reward went to a beggar who had contributed only a Rupee instead of a wealthy donor.
(b) He received funds from many people as rich and poor donated generously to his trust.
(c) The man explained that the one Rupee given by the beggar was worth millions of Rupees as that was all the money he possessed and that he had made a much greater sacrifice than others.
(d) During the function everyone waited with bated breath to hear who had made the maximum contribution.
(e) A man went from town to town to collect money for his charitable trust.
(f) On returning he decided to hold a function and reward the person whose contribution had been maximum.

26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

27. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
(E) f

30. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following questions six words are given which are denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on the answer-sheet.

31. (a) OTHERS
(b) HER
(c) SHE
(d) MISTAKES
(e) FOR
(f) BLAMES
(A) cfaebd
(B) acfebd
(C) bdacfe
(D) cfdabe
(E) bdafce

32. (a) FINALISE
(b) WE
(c) DETAILS
(d) LATER
(e) THE
(f) WILL
(A) BFEACD
(B) BDCFEA
(C) BDCAEF
(D) ECFDBA
(E) BFAECD

33. (a) UV-RAYS
(b) ABSORBS
(c) THE
(d) LAYER
(e) HARMFUL
(f) OZONE
(A) ACBEFD
(B) CFDBEA
(C) ACBFED
(D) CFBDAE
(E) CBEAFD

34. (a) PRACTISING
(b) SPEECH
(c) SPENT
(d) HIS
(e) HE
(f) HOURS
(A) DBCFEA
(B) DBFCAE
(C) EBCDAF
(D) FACBED
(E) ECFADB

35. (a) TO
(b) AROUND
(c) SEE
(d) THEY
(e) HIM
(f) HATED
(A) DFAECB
(B) DBFAEC
(C) DFCAEB
(D) DFACEB
(E) CEBFAD

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, if any, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E), i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. A large number of celebrities (A) have joined an NGO involved (B) in the movement for protection (C) of animal writes. (D) All correct (E)

37. The teacher liked the poem (A) so much that she requested (B) Saba to read it allowed (C) to the whole (D) class. All correct (E)

38. Breathe (A) deeply and inhale the sents (B) of Roses and Daisies in the landscaped gardens (C) surrounding (D) my house. All correct (E)

39. As the wind blue (A) harder every minute, (B) people got a fairly (C) good idea that a storm was approaching (D) the town. All correct (E)

40. The family had to bear (A) a leaky sealing (B) throughout the rainy season (C) as they could not afford (D) to get it repaired. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time, there lived a sparrow on a banyan tree. She laid her eggs in the nest. One afternoon, a wild elephant came under the tree and in a fit of rage, broke a branch of the tree on which the nest was …(41)…. Unfortunately, all the eggs of the sparrow …(42)… after falling down though the sparrow was saved. The sparrow was full of grief and began weeping for her eggs.

A woodpecker, a close friend of the sparrow, heard her crying and asked her, “Why are you crying, my friend ?” The sparrow said, “The …(43)… elephant has killed my offspring. If you are a true friend of mine, suggest a way-to kill him”. The woodpecker …(44)… her and told her that he knew a fly and she would definitely help them kill the elephant.

Both of them went to seek the help of the fly. The woodpecker said, “A wild elephant has crushed my friend’s eggs. We need your help in killing him.” the fly replied, “One of my friends is a frog. Let us go to him and take his help too”. They went to the frog and …(45)… the whole incident. The frog said, “What can an elephant do before a united crowd like us ? Do what I tell you. Dear Fly, you go to the elephant and hum a sweet tune into his ears. When he closes his eyes in delight, the woodpecker will poke his eyes. This way, he will become …(46)…. When he gets thirsty, he will …(47)… for water. I will go to a marshy land and begin croaking there. …(48)… that there is water, the elephant will come there. He will sink into the marshy area and …(49)….

The next day in the noon, all of them played out the plan and the elephant was killed, as he drowned into a marshy area after being blinded by the woodpecker, when he closed his eyes in response to the music. Thus, the smartness of all the animals enabled the sparrow in taking her …(50)… on the elephant.

41. (A) Born
(B) Built
(C) Grown
(D) Broken
(E) Found

42. (A) Fell
(B) Escaped
(C) Damaged
(D) Survived
(E) Broke

43. (A) Defective
(B) Attacking
(C) Wicked
(D) Poor
(E) Harmless

44. (A) Ignored
(B) Protected
(C) Scolded
(D) Consoled
(E) Defended

45. (A) Said
(B) Informed
(C) Revived
(D) Mention
(E) Narrated

46. (A) Blind
(B) Unseen
(C) Regretful
(D) Sorry
(E) Dead

47. (A) Need
(B) Want
(C) Search
(D) Drink
(E) Demands

48. (A) Recalling
(B) Informed
(C) Sure
(D) Assuming
(E) Accepting

49. (A) Hurt
(B) Die
(C) Fall
(D) Kill
(E) Realise

50. (A) Help
(B) Revenge
(C) Anger
(D) Insult
(E) Fight

Answers :1. (B) 2. (E) 3. (A) 4. (E) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (E) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (E) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (E) 33. (B) 34. (E) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)

Gurgaon Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2009 (Held on 12-7-2009) English Language : Solved Paper

Gurgaon Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2009
(Held on 12-7-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

According to the United States Environmental Protection Agency (USEPA), plastic bags are a better option than paper bags from the environment’s point of view. Many studies comparing plastic versus paper show that plastic bags have less net environmental effect than paper bags, requiring less energy for transport, production and recycling and because of all these, plastic generates less greenhouse gases. They cause less air and water pollution and can get compressed to a small size in landfills. Plastic bags are sterile and thus are a better option for the transportation of eatables and medicines.

However there is another side of using plastic. Plastics are manufactured from petroleum. This brings a host of other issues e.g. destruction of habitat. Their manufacturing involves chemicals, many of which have not been sufficiently tested for their toxicological impact on humans and animals. Exacerbating the problem is that science has only advanced to detect plastic components in human bodies and then link it to human ailments and diseases. Where science has been unable to help is that it has largely failed to invent a solution to the hazards caused by it. Making the situation dismal is the fact that the hazard is closer than it appears. Teflon, PVC, Polyethylene, polystyrene in utensils and various silicones in hair and body care products accumulate in the body and lead to serious diseases. Plasticproducing companies are often chemical companies or subsidiaries of chemical companies, both with poor track records when it comes to their adherence to regulatory compliance and their willingness to perform toxicological analysis on the products that they make.

Plastics often drain component chemicals, including hazardous chemicals when temperature changes beyond a certain point. It is for this reason that toxicologists do not recommend storing very cold food in plastics or heating food (microwaving especially) in plastics. Also, plastics are durable materials. Thus, they are hard to eliminate once used and create tremendous waste. While some common plastics can be recycled the vast majority cannot be recycled.

Scientists suggest the use of Biodegradable plastics as an alternative to this persisting problem. These are the plastics that can decompose in the natural environment. Biodegradation of plastics can be achieved by enabling microorganisms in the environment to metabolize the molecular structure of plastic films to produce an inert humus-like material that is less harmful to the environment. They may be composed of either bio-plastics, which are plastics whose components are derived from renewable raw materials, or petroleum-based plastics. The use of bio-active compounds compounded with swelling agents ensures that, when combined with heat and moisture, they expand the plastic’s molecular structure and allow the bio-active compounds to metabolise and neutralize the plastic.

Various countries have been adopting different methods to discourage the use of plastic. Growing awareness in the UK of the problems caused by indiscriminate use of plastic bags is encouraging retailers to reward customers who bring their own bags or who reuse or recycle existing bags. This is called the ‘Green Bag Scheme’. In other countries retailers have stopped providing free plastic bags with purchases and have been selling cloth bags for very minimalistic prices.

1. What alternative do the scientists suggest for the problem associated with the use of plastics ?
(A) Use of biodegradable plastics
(B) Treatment of hazards caused by the use of plastics
(C) Strict compliance of the chemical companies to toxicological tests of their products
(D) Banning the use of plastic throughout the world
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. Why don’t toxicologists recommend the heating of food and storing of cold food in plastic ?
(A) Food stuff spoils faster in plastic containers
(B) The Teflon coating in such utensils is harmful
(C) Plastic containers do not undergo recommended toxicology tests
(D) Plastic releases harmful chemicals at very high and low temperature
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. According to the author, what is the problem with manufacturing plastic products ?
(A) These products are not energy efficient
(B) These products produce greenhouse gases which are harmful to environment
(C) The chemicals involved in their production are not tested for impact on living beings
(D) It swells as soon as it comes in contact with heat and moisture
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


4. What are the author’s views about the companies producing plastic products ?
(1) These companies are mainly responsible for the hazards caused to the environment due to plastics.
(2) Such companies are chemical companies themselves or a subsidiary of such companies.
(3) Such companies do not perofrm toxicological tests on their products.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (2) and (3)
(C) Both (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. What does the author mean by ‘another side of using plastic’ ?
(A) These are disadvantages of using plastic
(B) Using biodegradable plastic instead of non-biodegradable plastic
(C) Paper bags are better option than plastic bags
(D) Many retail stores sell cloth bags at lower price
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Why does USEPA suggest that plastic bags are a better option than paper bags ?
(A) The plastic bags are inexpensive
(B) Plastic bags can be tested for toxic chemicals
(C) Paper bags do not generate greenhouse gases
(D) Plastic bags require less energy as compared to paper for transportation, production and recycling
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. According to the passage, in which of the following fields has science failed ?
(A) To produce biodegradable plastic
(B) To popularize the use of cloth and paper bags instead of plastic
(C) To strictly implement the compliance of the chemical companies to toxicological tests of their products
(D) To make plastic – free hair and body care products
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Which steps have been taken in UK to encourage the use of alternatives to plastic bags ?
(A) The UK government has banned the use of plastic throughout the country
(B) The retailers in UK have been selling cloth bags at very low prices
(C) The retailers reward the customers who bring their own bags or use the recycled bags
(D) The government imposes heavy fine on those using plastic bags
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage ?
(A) Some countries have stopped providing free plastic bags to customers to discourage the use of plastic
(B) The bio-active compound alongwith swelling agents ensure that plastic is neutralized in the presence of heat and moisture
(C) Many plastic products do not undergo toxicological test
(D) Being durable, plastic creates a lot of waste
(E) All are true
Ans : (E)

10. Although harmful at extreme temperature, why does USEPA recommend transport of eatables and medicines in plastic bags ?
(A) Plastic bag generate less greenhouse gases which would react chemically with medicines, thus producing adverse effect in body
(B) Plastic bags are more sterile than other available options
(C) Plastic products pass through a number of toxicological testings
(D) Plastic bags are easily degraded and thus cause less harm to environment
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word / group of words which is / are most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. persisting
(A) troubling
(B) enduring
(C) resisting
(D) damaging
(E) harassing
Ans : (B)

12. exacerbating
(A) executing
(B) influencing
(C) worsening
(D) addressing
(E) declining
Ans : (C)

13. drain
(A) sewer
(B) waste
(C) deplete
(D) give out
(E) outlet
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. dismal
(A) Encouraging
(B) Prosperous
(C) Glad
(D) Generous
(E) Respectful
Ans : (A)

15. compressed(A) Extended
(B) Amplified
(C) Diffused
(D) Intensified
(E) Expanded
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. He had already prepare (A) / the acceptance speech (B) / but the student of the year award (C) / was given to Ravi. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

17. He placed the trophy (A) / which he had won (B) / at the most prominent (C) / place on the house. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. Fashion is very important (A) / to her and thus (B) / she selects the (C) / most popular clothes. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

19. After finding traces of poison (A) / in his dinner yesterday, (B) / Mohit accused his wife (C) / of trying to cause harm. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

20. Sheetal bought a (A) / new car and (B) / bragged about them (C) / for weeks to come. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Being more dangerous (A) / than all the criminal, (B) / he was imprisoned (C) / in a special jail. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

22. The mayor says that (A) / “I will consider running (B) / for commissioner’s post (C) / but I am not sure yet.” (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

23. In an effort (A) / to make peace (B) / Priya spoke separately (C) / to both the person. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

24. They had a narrow escape (A) / when skating as (B) / roaring avalanche (C) / just missed them. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

25. The movie star should not have (A) / allowed the press (B) / at the scene had he (C) / known about the fuss. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

26. Ayesha spent the entire morning polishing hers new audio system.
(A) Polishing her new
(B) Polishing she’s new
(C) Polishing her’s new
(D) Polishing Ayesha’s new
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

27. As she grows up, she became doubtful of the existence of fairies.
(A) She grown up
(B) She grews up
(C) She grew up
(D) She growned up
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

28. Sneha and Shraddha need to buy watches because they are always late.
(A) Those are always
(B) These are always
(C) They keep always
(D) There are always
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

29. Neither the local administration nor the police authorities was aware of the tournament being held.
(A) Were aware for
(B) Was aware for of
(C) Was aware for
(D) Were aware of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

30. Everyone have invested a substantial amount in the on going project but no one expects a profit.
(A) did invested a
(B) has invested a
(C) did investing in a
(D) had invested an
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences (1), (2), (3) (4), (5) and (6) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
(1) Today these have become an indispensable part of the lives of children and adults alike.
(2) One of such effects is the radiations that are emitted as signals.
(3) Ever since the advent of technology, undoubtedly, mobile phones are the greatest of all inventions.
(4) In order to prevent such ailments, Govt. should strictly regulate the service providers.
(5) But, no matter how indispensable, its negative effects cannot be overlooked.
(6) These signals cause a variety of ailments starting from hearing loss to cancer.

31. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

32. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

34. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 3
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which best fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Many farmers who traditionally (…36…) pulses, millets and paddy have been lured by seed companies to buy hybrid cotton seeds and other GM crops, which were (…37…) to make their lives easier and wealthier. Instead they (…38…) bankruptcy and ruin. Their native seeds have been (…39…) with new hybrids which cannot be saved and need to be purchased every year at a high cost. Hybrids are also very (…40…) to pest attacks. All pesticides have to be (…41…) from the company that sold them the seeds; there have been reports of blatant profiteering from these companies.

We are (…42…) told that without genetic engineering and globalization of agriculture the world will starve, it is constantly promoted as the only (…43…) available for feeding the hungry.

Everywhere, food production is becoming a negative economy, with farmers (…44…) more on buying costly inputs for industrial production than the price they receive for their produce. The consequence is rising debts in both rich and poor countries. In some African countries it is cheaper to buy foreign sugar and coffee than it is to buy locally produced goods. This is because of over production and subsidies in the West which means that they then dump these goods on Africa (…45…) local markets.

36. (A) developed
(B) cultivated
(C) germinated
(D) made
(E) yielded
Ans : (B)

37. (A) probably
(B) specified
(C) designated
(D) supposed
(E) thought
Ans : (D)

38. (A) undergo
(B) disclosed
(C) approached
(D) tackling
(E) faced
Ans : (E)

39. (A) supplied
(B) converted
(C) replaced
(D) reduced
(E) damaged
Ans : (C)

40. (A) vulnerable
(B) tender
(C) dangerous
(D) tempted
(E) likely
Ans : (A)

41. (A) purchased
(B) bribed
(C) adopted
(D) buy
(E) sprinkled
Ans : (A)

42. (A) reiterated
(B) repeatedly
(C) continuous
(D) numerously
(E) much
Ans : (B)

43. (A) thing
(B) food
(C) progression
(D) tendency
(E) alternative
Ans : (E)

44. (A) generating
(B) expanding
(C) spending
(D) consuming
(E) earning
Ans : (C)

45. (A) ruining
(B) eradicating
(C) helping
(D) facilitating
(E) washing
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

46. The statement said that the conference would be ……… a considerable time ……… the global economic crisis.
(A) having, thinking
(B) passing, debating
(C) spending, discussing
(D) expending, arguing
(E) exhausting, analyzing
Ans : (C)

47. After being taken away from his parents at a ……… age, the boy had a very ……… life.
(A) young, difficult
(B) early, leisurely
(C) small, distinction
(D) tender, deterrent
(E) advanced, restrict
Ans : (A)

48. Even …………… the period of recession, he got a good job ……………… not having much experience.
(A) on, even though
(B) in, instead
(C) while, inspite
(D) during, despite
(E) although, almost
Ans : (D)

49. After having ……… the news of their son’s excellent result in exams, they came over as …… as possible.
(A) enjoyed, earlier
(B) heard, quickly
(C) surprised, running
(D) shocked, fast
(E) realized hurriedly
Ans : (B)

50. Although unrecognised …… his life, his talent was much ……… after his death.
(A) entire, adored
(B) all, realized
(C) whole, worth
(D) almost, valued
(E) throughout, appreciated
Ans : (E)

BANK PO MATH MODEL SET

Quantitative Aptitude test For bank Exams
Online bank practice test

Directi0ns—(Q. 1-5) What will
come in place of question-mark (?) in
the following questions ?
1, (343 x 49) / (216 x 16 x 81) =

(A) 75 / 67
(B) 75 / 68
(C) 76 / 67
(D) 74 / 68
(E) None of these

Answer.A

2. 23×15-60+?+31=292

(A) 218
(B) 186
(C) 217
(D) 201
(E) None of these

Answer.C

3, 15% of 578 + 225% of 644 =?

(A) 231.4
(B) 233.6
(C) 231.8
(D) 231.6
(E) None of these

Answer.D

4. ?(5² x 14 – 6 x 7+(4)?) =18

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) None of these

Answer.E

5. 15/4 + 22/5 – 25/8 =

(A) 161/40
(B) 201/40
(C) 241/40
(D) 203/40
(E) None of these

Answer.B

6. What would be the compound
interest accrued on an amount of
Rs. 7,400 @ 13-5 p.c.p.a. at the
end of two years ? (rounded off
to two digits after decimal)

(A) Rs, 2,136.87
(B) Rs. 2,306.81
(C) Rs. 2,032.18
(D) Rs. 2,132.87
(E) None of these

Answer.D

7. Sonu invested 10% more than
Mona. Mona invested 10% less
than Raghu. lf the total sum of
their investment is Rs. 5,780, how
much amount did Raghu invest

(A) Rs. 2,010
(B) Rs. 2,000
(C) Rs. 2,100
(D) Rs, 2,210
(E) None of these

Answer.B

8. The ratio of the ages of Tina and
Rakesh is 9 : 10 respectively. Ten
years ago the ratio of their ages
was 4 : 5 respectively. What is
the present age of Rakesh ?

(A) 25 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 24 years
(E) None of these

Answer.B

9. The circumference of two circles
is 132 metre and 176 metre
respectively. What is the diffe-
rence between the area of the
larger circle and the smaller
circle ?

(A) 1048 sq.me1;re
(B) 1076 sq. metre
(C) 1078 sq. metre
(D) 1090 sq. metre
(E) None of these

Answer.C

10. In how many different ways can
the letters of the word ’OFFICES’
be arranged ?

(A) 2520
(B) 5040
(C) 1850
(D) 1680
(E) None of these

Answer.A

Directions—(Q. 11-15) ln the
following number series 0nly one
number is wrong. Find out the wrong
number.

11. 850, 600, 550, 500, 475, 462-5, 45625

(A) 600
(B) 550
(C) 500
(D) 462-5
(E) None of these

Answer.A

12. 2, 10, 18, 54, 162, 486, 1458

(A) 18
(B) 54
(C) 162
(D) 10
(E) None of these

Answer.D

13, 13, 25, 40, 57, 79, 103, 130

(A) 25
(B) 40
(C) 57
(D) 79
(E) None of these

Answer.C

14. 8, 12, 24, 46, 72, 108, 152

(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 46
(D) 72
(E) None of these

Answer.C

15. 142, 11.9, 100, 83, 65, 59, 52

(A) 65
(B) 100
(C) 59
(D) 119
(E) None of these

Answer.A

Directions—(Q. 16-20) In the
following questions two equations
numbered l and H are given. You
have to solve both the equations and
give answer. If–
(A) x > y
(B) x ? y
(C) x < y
(D) x ? y
(E) x = y
or the relationship cannot be
established

16.1. X²—7X+l2= 0
II. y² + y — 12 = 0

Answer.B

17. I. 2x²+11x+14 = 0
II. 4y²+12y+9 = 0

Answer.C

18. 1. x4 -227 = 398
11. y² + 321 = 346

Answer.E

19, 1. x² – 4 = 0
11. y²+6y+9 = 0

Answer.A

20. 1. x² = 729
11. y = ?729

Answer.E

Directi0ns—(Q. 21-25) Study the table carefully to answer the questions
that follow-
Percentage of Marks Obtained by Six Students in Six Different Subjects
in Subject
Student Hindi English Science Math Social Studies Sanskrit
Max No.(175) (out of 80)(out of 125)(out of 100) (out of 120) (out of 35)
A 87 84 91 66 39 84
B 58 68 87 74 57 79
C 63 71 81 94 44 86
D 48 57 70 79 68 44
E 83 83 49 77 55 50
F 74 68 42 63 61 58

21. What are the average marks
obtained by all the students in
Science ?

(A) 87
(B) 86•5
(C) 90
(D) 87.5

(E) None of these.

Answer.D

22. What are the average marks
obtained by student F in Hindi,
English and Science subjects
together

(A) 78
(B) 82•4
(C) 788
(D) 84
(E) None of these

Answer.C

23. lf a minimum of 101 marks in
Science subject are required for
opting science stream in the
next academic year, how many
students will not able to opt
science stream due to insufficient
marks in Science subject?

(A) None
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) Five
(E) Three

Answer.E

24. What are the total marks obtained
by D in Hindi, E in Social Studies
and C in Mathematics together ?

(A) 258
(B) 244
(C) 235
(D) 210
(E) None of these

Answer.B

25. What is the respective ratio of the
marks scored by E in Science and
Hindi?

(A) 35:83
(B) 61 :75
(C) 83:35
(D) 75:61
(E) None of these

Answer.A

Directions——(Q. 26—30) What
approximate value should come in
place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions ? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value.)

26. 3942+64+3=?
(A) 29
(B) 32
(C) 21
(D) 17
(E) 11

Answer.C

27, 16.978 + 27.007 + 36.984 – 12.969 – 9.003 = ?

(A) 72
(B) 42
(C) 60
(D) 51
(E) 65

Answer.C

28. 18% of 609 + 275% of 450 = ?

(A) 220
(B) 233
(C) 267
(D) 248
(E) 274

Answer.B

29. 23/10 x 34/7 x 15/7 = ?

(A) 68
(B) 72
(C) 93
(D) 84
(E) 101

Answer.D

30. 12.564 x 22.009 x17.932 =?

(A) 4901
(B) 4895
(C) 4800
(D) 4959
(E) 4350

Answer.D

Directions Study the
information carefully to answer the
questions that follow—
On the occasion of an opening
ceremony of a Sports events, in a
stadium there are total of 600 players
who are participating in four different
events viz. Athletics, Table tennis,
Kho-Kho and Lawn Tennis. The ratio
between male to female players is
11 : 4 respectively. 30% of the female
players out of total female players
are participating in athletics. 10% of
female players out of total female
players are participating in table
tennis. The remaining female players
are participating in l
tennis in the ratio of 1 : 3 respectively.
The ratio of male players who are
participating in athletics and other
events together is 3 : 5 respectively.
4% of those male players who are not
participating in athletics are partici-
pating in lawn tennis. Remaining
male players are participating in table
tennis and Kho-Kho in the ratio of
5 : 3 respectively.

31. What is the ratio between the
female players participating in
lawn tennis to table tennis res-
pectively ?

(A) 9 1 5
(B) 4: 7
(C) 7:4
(D) 9:2
(E) None of these

Answer.D

32. What is the difference between
male players participating in kho-
kho and female players participating in lawn tennis

(A) 27
(B) 31
(C) 83
(D) 76
(E) None of these

Answer.A

33. What is the ratio between the
male players participating in
Lawn tennis and female players
participating in table tennis respectively

(A) 11 :72
(B) 11:38
(C) 11:16
(D) 16: 13
(E) None of these

Answer.C

34. What is the total number of
female players who are partici-
pating in athletics and Kho•Kho
together ?

(A) 68
(B) 72
(C) 58 I
(D) 67
(E) None of these

Answer.B

35. What is the total number of
players (both males and females
together) participating in table
tennis and athletics together

(A) 360
(B) 358
(C) 374
(D) 396
(E) None of these

Answer.E

Directions—(Q. 36-40) Study the
following table carefully to answer
the questions that follow-
Production of Sugar (in tonne)
of Three Different States over
the years
Year
State/year 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
P 4.3 4.9 5.6 5.8 6.7 7.4
Q 3.1 3.7 4.4 5.1 6.0 6.2
R 3•9 4.7 5•8 6•6 7.3 8.3
Total 11.3 13.3 15•8 17•5 20 21.9

36. What is the average production
of sugar of all the three states in
2003 and 2004 together 7

(A) 4.1 tonne
(B) 4•7 tonne
(C) 5•1ton.ne
(D) 4•8 tonne
(E) None of these

Answer.A

37, What is the ratio between total
production of sugar of all the
three states in year 2006 and 2007
respectively ?

(A) 7 : 9
(B) 6 : 7
(C) 8 : 7
(D) 7:8
(E) 11:12

Answer.D

38. What is the average production
Of sugar of State R for all the
years together ?

(A) 6.24 tonne
(B) 6•3 tonne
(C) 7.1 tonne
(D) 6.1 tonne
(E) None of these

Answer.D

39. What is the difference between
the total production of sugar of
all the three states together in
2008 and 2005 respectively

(A) 6•9 tonne
(B) 4-3 tonne
(C) 6•1 tonne
(D) 5~1 tonne
(E) None of these

Answer.C

40. What is the approximate per-
centage increase in production of
sugar in state Q from 2006 to
2007 ?

(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) 10
(E) 21

Answer.B

Directi0ns—(Q. 41-45) Study the
following carefully to
answer these questions.
Total Expenditure 2 Rs. 60 Lac

Expenditure of funds by university
for various purposes

Medical facility for students: 7%
Research work: 8%
Psychology library: 10%
Computer laboratory : 18%
Sports: 12%
Purchase of books : 6%
Publications of journals : 6%
Purchase of projectors for Ph.D: 24%

41. What is the total sum of expenditure 0n Research work, Pur-
chase of overhead projectors for
Ph.D. Classes and Purchase of
books for Library together ?

(A) Rs. 22-6 lac . `
(B) Rs. 22~8 lac
(C) Rs. 23~4 lac
(D) Rs. 2U•8 lac
(E) None of these

Answer.B

42. What is the difference between
the expenditure made by university for Publication of journals
and Psychology Laboratory ?

(A) Rs, 4 lac
(B) Rs. 3 lac
(C) Rs. 4•2 lac
(D) Rs. 3•8 lac
(E) None of these

Answer.B

43, What is the respective ratio bet-
ween the expenditure made by
university on research work and
purchase of books for library ?

(A) 4 1 5
(B) 5 :4
(C) S 1 3
(D) 8:5
(E) None of these

Answer.E

44. It the expenditure on purchase of
overhead projectors for Ph.D.
Students is decreased by 7%,
what will be the expenditure on
the same after the decrease ?

(A) Rs. 1,33,920
(B) Rs. 13,39,200
(C) Rs, 1,02,000
(D) Rs. 1,08,000
(E) None of these

Answer.C

45. Which of the following is definitely true ?

(A) Ratio between expenditure
of university for the purchase of
library books and expenditure
on computer laboratory is 3 : 1
respectively
(B) Expenditure on medical faci—
lities for students is Rs, 4•6 lac
(C) Difference between the
expenditure on research work
and medical facilities for student
is Rs. 60,000
(D) All are true
(E) None of these

Answer.C

Directi0ns—(Q. 46-50) Study the
following graph carefully to answer
these questions.
N0. of students in College A and College B over the years
Number of students
Year College A College B
2003 20 30
2004 40 60
2005 45 65
2006 50 70
2007 70 80
2008 75 85

46. Number of students of College B
in year 2008 is what per cent of
total students of College B in all
the years together ? (Round off to
two digits after deci.mal)

(A) 20•61
(B) 2379
(C) 2179
(D) 17•29
(E) None of these

Answer.C

47. What is the average number of
students in College A for all the
years together ?

(A) 45,000
(B) 50,000
(C) 52,000
(D) 48,000
(E) None of these

Answer.B

48. What is the approximate per—
centage rise in number of students
of college B from 2005 to 2006 ?

(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 4
(D) 15
(E) 20

Answer.A

49. For which college(s) and in
which year was the percent rise
in nurn-ber of students from the
previous year the highest ?

(A) College A in year 2004 and
College B in year 2005
(B) Only College B in year 2004
(C) College A in year 2004 and
College B in year 2004
(D) College A in year 2007 and
College B in year 2004
(E) None of these

Answer.C

50. What is the ratio between the
total number of students of
College A in year 2004, 2006
and 2007 together and the total
number of students of College B
in year 2003, 2004 and 2008
respectively ?

(A) 35 :32
(B) 33 :37
(C) 34 :31
(D) 32 :35
(E) None of these

Answer.D

UPCOMING BANK EXAMS PRACTICE SET PAPER ARITHMETIC

1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34
(E) None of these

2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these

3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(A)20.2
(B) 24.2
(C)23.1
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these

4.576÷ ? x114=8208
(A)8
(B)7
(C)6
(D)9
(E) None of these

5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?
(A)9
(B)6
(C)7
(D)8
(E) None of these

6. ?125÷5x ?=6265
(A)1253
(B) 1250
(C)1245
(D) 1550
(E) None of these

7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(A)7182
(B) 7269
(C)7260
(D) 7240
(E) None of these

8.384×12x2=?
(A)9024
(B) 9216
(C)6676
(D) 6814
(E) None of these

9.6534÷40÷33=?
(A)3.06
(B) 5.25
(C)4.82
(D) 6.12
(E) None of these

10. ?2704 x ?2209=?
(A)1996
(B)2444
(C)2452
(D)1983
(E)None of these

11.2536+4851—?=3450+313
(A)3961
(B)4532
(C)3624
(D)4058
(E) None of these

12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?
(A)7512
(B) 9746
(C)6523
(D) 8024
(E) None of these

13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750
(A)73
(B)89
(C)82
(D)75
(E) None of these

14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?
(A)1824
(B) 1902
(C)1829
(D) 1964
(E) None of these

15. 486+32×25—59=?
(A) 514
(B) 528
(C) 599
(D) 507
(E) None of these

16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4
(A)4.4
(B)3.2
(C)2.1
(D) 3.7
(E) None of these

17. 1008÷36=?
(A)28
(B) 32.5
(C)36
(D) 22.2
(E) None of these

18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 —21.4+1.5=?
(A)40.04
(B) 46.18
(C)44.08
(D) 43.12
(E) None of these

19. 65%of 320+?=686
(A) 480
(B) 452
(C)461
(D) 475
(E) None of these

20. 83250÷?=74×25
(A)50
(B) 45
(C)40
(D) 55
(E) None of these

21. ?7744=?
(A)88
(B)62
(C)58
(D)78
(E)None of these

22.35%of ?=242
(A)729
(B)652
(C)693
(D)759
(E) None of these

23. 1256+4813+765=?
(A)5642
(B) 5876
(C)6788
(D) 6878
(E) None of these

24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2

(A) 81
(C) 27
(B) 9
(D) 64
(E) None of these

25. 432+2170+35=?
(A)494
(B) 475
(C)481
(D) 469
(E) None of these

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is
more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?

(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these

27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these

28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A)45 cms.
(B)40 cems.
(C)50 cms.
(D)55 cms.
(E)None of these

29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?
(A)28
(B) 48
(C)39
(D) 93
(E) None of these

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A)5/18
(B)6/13
(C)13/6
(D)7/12
(E) None of these

31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these

32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be the percentage profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these

33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below?
25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(A)160
(B) 140
(C)153
(D) 190
(E)None of these

34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the following question ?
?/144= 49 /?
(A)95
(B) 76
(C)82
(D) 84
(E)None of these

35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest numbers?
(A)158
(B) 148
(C)168
(D) 198
(E) None of these

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved. What is Ajay’s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these

37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these

38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these

39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)47m
(B) 39m
(C)52m
(D)40m
(E) None of these

40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be fourth?
(A)4/5
(B)5/4
(C)9/5
(D)8/5
(E) 7/2

41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7 respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14 respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A)9 years
(B) 4 years
(C)5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A)16 days
(B) 20 days
(C)26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these

43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
(A)29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C)30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these

44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these

45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are 42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A)60 years
(B) 49 years
(C)45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these

46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank (leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D)15 minutes
(E) None of these

47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these

48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much would each person get?
(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 2,34,68
(C) Rs. 3,74,20
(D) Rs. 1,95,62
(E) None of these

49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, then what is the
probability that only one ball is white?
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these

50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what
will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:
1 D
2 C
3 B
4 A
5 D
6 A
7 E
8 B
9 E
10 B
11 C
12 D
13 D
14 A
15 B
16 B
17 A
18 C
19 E
20 B
21 A
22 C
23 E
24 B
25 A
26 A
27 B
28 C
29 C
30 D
31 B
32 D
33 A
34 D
35 C
36 A
37 E
38 A
39 D
40 B
41 E
42 C
43 C
44 A
45 B
46 A
47 A
48 B
49 E
50 D