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(TO BE PUBLISHED IN THE EMPLOYMENT NEWS/ROZGAR SAMACHAR DATED 9-10-2010) STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION Date of Exam: 12.12.2010 Closing Date : 02.11.2010 NOTICE Special Examination for Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors in CPOs, 2010 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. Commission will hold an All India Examination for recruitment to the post of Sub-Inspector in Central Police Organizations. Graduation from a recognized University or equivalent is the minimum educational qualification. The Examination will comprise of Written Objective Type followed by Physical Endurance Test, Medical Examination and Interview/personality test. The candidates selected from this Examination will be en bloc junior to those recruited through the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2010. The CPOs propose to create posts of Assistant Sub Inspectors (ASIs) for direct recruitment. In the event of such creation and intimation of direct recruitment vacancies, such posts of ASIs are also proposed to be filled from this Examination. 2 In view of the anticipated large number of applicants, scrutiny of the eligibility and other aspects will not be undertaken before the Written Examination and, therefore, the candidature will be accepted only provisionally. Candidates are advised to go through the requirements of educational qualification, age, physical standards, etc. and satisfy themselves that they are eligible for the posts, before applying. Copies of supporting documents will be sought only from those candidates who qualify in the Written Examination. When scrutiny is undertaken after the Written Examination, if any claim made in the application is not found substantiated the candidature will be cancelled and the Commission‟s decision in this regard shall be final. 3. BEFORE APPLYING, CANDIDATES IN THEIR OWN INTEREST ARE ADVISED TO GO THROUGH THE DETAILED INSTRUCTIONS CONTAINED IN THIS NOTICE CAREFULLY. THIS NOTICE IS ALSO AVAILABLE ON THE WEBSITE OF THE COMMISSION (http://ssc.nic.in) 4. Candidates seeking reservation benefits for SC/ST/OBC/ EXS must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation as per eligibility prescribed in the Notice. They should also be in possession of the certificates in the format prescribed by Government of India in support of their claim at the time of application, though the copies of the certificates will be sought only after the Written Examination. 5. Candidates belonging to the Physically Handicapped category are not eligible to apply for this examination. 6. Central Government civilian employees/servants claiming age relaxation should be in possession of a certificate in the prescribed format from their office, in respect of the length of continuous service which should be for not less than three years in the immediate period preceding the closing date for receipt of application.
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They should also continue to have the status of Central Government civilian servants/employees till the time of appointment, in the event of their selection. 7. FEE: RUPEES ONE HUNDRED ONLY(Rs.100/-) payable through CRF Stamp or SBI Challan or on-line payment through account with the State Bank of India. Fee is exempted for all Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation. 8. CLOSING DATE: 02.11.2010. For candidates residing in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Jammu and Kashmir, Lahaul and Spiti District and Pangi Sub Division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep and for candidates residing abroad 09.11.2010. APPLICATIONS RECEIVED LATE WILL NOT BE ENTERTAINED. 9. Only a single application will be entertained. Candidature in respect of multiple applications will be rejected outright without any notice to such candidates. 10 MOBILES AND OTHER ELECTRONIC GADGETS ARE BANNED WITHIN THE PREMISES OF THE EXAMINATION CENTRES. 11 CANDIDATES DESIROUS OF SUBMITTING ON LINE APPLICATIONS MAY DO SO SUCH CANDIDATES SHOULD RETAIN THEIR REGISTRATION NUMBER ASSIGNED TO THEM ON LINE FOR CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION. THEY ARE NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT PRINT OUTS OF THEIR APPLICATION TO THE COMMISSION. F. No. 3/8/2010–P&P. The Staff Selection Commission will hold Special Examination for Recruitment of Sub-Inspector in CPOs, 2010 on Sunday the 12th December 2010. Posts of Assistant Sub-Inspector in CPOs to be filled through direct recruitment, if any, are also proposed to be filled through this examination. Sub-Inspector in CPOs The post carries pay scale of Rs.9300-34800 in Pay Band 2 with Grade Pay of Rs.4200/. Post of Sub Inspector in SSB and BSF are classified as Group `B‟ Non-Gazetted. Post Sub Inspectors in CISF, ITBP and CRPF are classified as Group “C”. However, action for amending the respective Recruitment Rules to classify these posts also as Group “B” (Non-Gazetted) has been / may be initiated by the respective CPOs. Age relaxation and reservation, will therefore be regulated by the relevant rules, accordingly. Candidates are, therefore, advised to indicate the preference of the CPOs carefully. Candidates will not be allowed to change/Revise the preference subsequently. However, Commission will have discretion to obtain revised preference at appropriate stage if necessary. Assistant Sub-Inspector in CPOs The post carries pay scale of Rs.5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs.2800/- and classified as Group `C‟. Code and Name of CPOs are indicated below:- Code Organization A Border Security Force (BSF)
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B Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) C Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) D Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) E Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) 2. Vacancies & Reservation as follows -: The tentative number of vacancies to be filled from the examination are as below, which may change without Notice. Sub-Inspector in CPOs Name of the Force UR OBC SC ST Total Ex- Servicemen CRPF Male 317 172 155 48 692 Yet to be Female Nil Nil Nil Nil Nil Received. BSF Male 281 127 111 38 557 Female Nil Nil Nil Nil Nil CISF Male 229 121 67 33 450 Female 27 13 07 03 50 ITBP Male 32 16 31 03 82 Female Nil Nil Nil Nil Nil SSB Male 214 118 60 31 423 Female 12 05 03 01 21 Assistant Sub-Inspector in CPOs Vacancies for the post of ASI will be taken into account if reported by the CPOs before the Written Examination. Note I: Candidates selected for appointment are liable to serve anywhere in India. Note II : Firm number of vacancies in each category of posts will be determined in due course. 3. NATIONALITY/CITIZENSHIP : A candidate must be either : (a) a citizen of India, or (b) a subject of Nepal, or (c) a subject of Bhutan, or (d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India, before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or (e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania ( Formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar ), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
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Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary will be admitted to the Examination provisionally but the offer of appointment will be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India. 4. (A) AGE LIMITS 20-25 years as on 02.11.2010, the normal closing date for receipt of application. Candidates should not have been born earlier than 03.11.1985 and not later than 01.11.1990. Note I: The upper age limit is relaxable for Central Government Civilian Employees as per extant Government order. Note II: As per the Recruitment Rules for the post, the crucial date for age-limit is reckoned with reference to the Closing Date for receipt of applications, i.e. 02.11.2010. Note III: Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate available on the date of submission of application will be accepted by the Commission for determining the age eligibility and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted. 4. (B) Category-Codes and age relaxation available to different category of eligible candidates, for claiming Age Relaxation as on the date of reckoning : Code No. Category Age-Relaxation permissible beyond the Upper age limit 01 SC/ST 5 years 02 OBC 3 years 06 For Group „B‟ Post Ex-Servicemen ( Unreserved) 5 years 07 Ex-Servicemen (OBC) 8 years 08 Ex-Servicemen (SC/ST) 10 years 09 For Group „C‟ post Ex-Servicemen( Unreserved / General) 03 years after deduction of the military service rendered from the actual age as on the Closing date. 10 Ex-Servicemen ( OBC ) 06 years (3 years + 3 years) after deduction of the military service rendered from the actual age as on the Closing date. 11 Ex-Servicemen ( SC/ST ) 08 years (3 years + 5 years) after deduction of the military service rendered from the actual age as on the Closing date.
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16 Central Govt. Civilian Employees ( General) who have rendered not less than 3 years regular and continuous service as on Closing date 5 years 18 Central Govt. Civilian Employees ( OBC ) who have rendered not less than 3 years regular and continuous service as on Closing date 8 (5+3) years 20 Central Govt. Civilian Employees ( SC/ST ) who have rendered not less than 3 years regular and continuous service as on Closing date 10(5+5) years 21 Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir ( Unreserved ) 5 years 22 Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir( OBC ) 8 years 23 Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir( SC/ST) 10 years 24 Widows / Divorced Women / Women judicially separated and who are not remarried ( Unreserved ) Up to 35 years of age 25 Widows / Divorced Women / Women judicially separated and who are not remarried( OBC ) Up to 38 years of age 26 Widows / Divorced Women / Women judicially separated and who are not remarried( SC/ST ) Up to 40 years of age 30 Departmental Candidates (Unreserved) who have rendered not less than 3 years of regular and continuous service as on closing date. 5 years 31 Departmental Candidates (OBC) who have rendered not less than 3 years of regular and continuous service as on closing date. 8 (3+5) years 32 Departmental Candidates (SC/ST)) who have rendered not less than 3 years of regular and continuous service as on closing date. 10 (5+5) years NOTE-I : Ex-servicemen who have already secured employment in civil side under Central Government in Group „C‟ & „D‟ posts on regular basis after availing of the benefits of reservation given to ex-servicemen for their re-employment are NOT eligible for fee concession or for claiming benefits of reservation under EXS category. However, they are eligible for age relaxation. NOTE-II : The period of "Call up Service" of an Ex-Serviceman in the Armed Forces shall also be treated as service rendered in the Armed Forces for purpose of age relaxation. NOTE-III : For any serviceman of the three Armed Forces of the Union to be treated as Ex-Serviceman for the purpose of securing the benefits of reservation, he must have already acquired, at the relevant time of submitting his application for the Post / Service, the status of ex-serviceman and /or is in a position to establish his acquired entitlement by documentary evidence from the competent authority that he would complete specified term of engagement
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from the Armed Forces within the stipulated period of one year from the CLOSING DATE (i.e 02.11.2010) NOTE- IV:: AGE CONCESSION IS NOT ADMISSIBLE TO SONS, DAUGHTERS AND DEPENDENTS OF EX-SERVICEMEN. NOTE – V : A Matriculate Ex-Serviceman (which term includes an Ex-Serviceman, who has obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate of education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or the Air Force), who has put in not less than 15 years of service as on closing date with Armed Forces of the Union shall be considered eligible for appointment to the posts being advertised through this examination. Thus, those Non-Graduate Ex-Servicemen who have not completed 15 years of service as on the last date for receipt of applications as stated in Note-III under Para 4 (B ) are not eligible. EXPLANATION 1: An Ex-Serviceman means a person who has served in any rank whether as a combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy, Air Force of the Indian Union, and (i) who retired from such service after earning his/her pension. This would also include persons who are retired/retire at their own request but after having earned their pension; or (ii) who has been released from such service on medical grounds attributable to military service/circumstances beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension; or (iii) who has been released, otherwise than on his own request from such service as a result of reduction in establishment; or (iv) who has been released from such service after completing the specific period of engagements, otherwise than at his own request or by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, and has been given a gratuity; and includes personnel of the Territorial Army of the following categories, namely:- (a) Pension holders for continuous embodied service, (b) Persons with disability attributable to military service; and (c) Gallantry award winners. EXPLANATION 2: The persons serving in the Armed Forces of the Union, who on retirement from service, would come under the category of “ex-serviceman” may be permitted to apply for re-employment one year before the completion of the specified terms of engagement and avail themselves of all concessions available to ex-servicemen but shall not be permitted to leave the uniform until they complete the specified term of engagement in the Armed Forces of the Union. 4(C) : PROCESS OF CERTIFICATION AND FORMAT OF CERTIFICATES: Candidates who wish to be considered against vacancies reserved/or seek age-relaxation must submit requisite certificate from the competent authority, in the prescribed format when such certificates are sought by concerned Regional/Sub Regional Offices after declaration of result of candidates selected for PET/Medical Examination. Otherwise, their claim for SC/ST/OBC/ExS status will not be entertained and their
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candidature/applications will be considered under General (UR) category. The formats of the certificates are annexed. Certificates obtained in any other format will not be accepted. Candidates claiming OBC status may note that certificate on creamy layer status should have been obtained within three years before the closing date i.e. 02.11.2010. NOTE I: The closing date i.e. 02.11.2010 for receipt of application will be treated as the date of reckoning for OBC status of the candidate. NOTE II : Candidates are warned that they will be permanently debarred from the examination conducted by the Commission in case they fraudulently claim SC/ST/OBC/ExS status. 5. ESSENTIAL QUALIFICATIONS as on Closing Date i.e. 02.11.2010 BACHELOR‟S DEGREE FROM A RECOGNISED UNIVERSITY OR EQUIVALENT. NOTE-I: As per Ministry of Human Resource Development Notification No. 44 dated 01.03.1995 published in Gazette of India edition dated 08.04.1995, the Degree obtained through open Universities/Distance Education Mode needs to be recognized by Distance Education Council, IGNOU. Accordingly, unless such Degrees had been recognized for the period when the candidates acquired the relevant qualification, they will not be accepted for the purpose of Educational Qualification. Note – II : Candidates who have not acquired/will not acquire the educational qualification as on the closing date of receipt of application (02.11.2010) will not be eligible and need not apply. Note- III : All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for appearing at the Interview/Personality Test will be required to produce all relevant Certificates such as Mark sheets for all the three years of Graduation/ Provisional Certificate/ Certificate of Graduation as proof of having acquired the minimum educational qualification on the closing date failing which the candidature of such candidate will be cancelled by the Commission. 6. MODE OF PAYMENT: (i) Off-line applications: The candidates should pay the fee by means of "Central Recruitment Fee Stamps(CRFS)"only .CRFS stamps are available at the counter of all Departmental Post Offices of the country. Recruitment Fee Stamps should be pasted on the application form in the space earmarked for the purpose and got cancelled from the Counter of Post Office of issue with the date stamp of the Issuing Post Office in such a manner that the impression or the cancellation stamps partially overflows on the Application Form itself, taking care at the same time that the impression is clear and distinct to facilitate the identification of date and Post Office of issue at any subsequent stage. After getting the Recruitment Fee Stamps cancelled from the Post Office, the candidate must submit their application to the concerned Regional Office/Sub Regional Offices of the Commission in the usual manner after completing other formalities.
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(ii) On-line applications: The candidates submitting their applications on-line should pay the requisite fee only through State Bank of India either in the form of challan or net-banking. (iii) Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation are exempted from paying fee. NOTE I: Fee once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances. NOTE II: Fee paid by modes other than CRFS/ SBI challan, as stated above, will not be accepted and the applications of such candidates will be rejected forthright and the payment made shall stand forfeited. NOTE III: Candidates may please note that non-cancellation of CRFS from the concerned Post Office in the manner indicated above, will lead to rejection of his/her application form. Therefore, it is in the interest of candidates that they get the CRFS cancelled from the concerned Post Office. 7. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION A candidate must indicate the centres in the Application Form. A candidate must submit his/her application only to the concerned Regional/Sub Regional Office of the Commission under whose jurisdiction the Centre selected by him / her falls. Application received in any other Regional/Sub Regional Office of the Commission will be rejected summarily. The applications should be addressed to the Regional / Sub-Regional Offices of the Commission as indicated in the table below:- Sl.No. Examination Centres & Centre Code Address to which the applications should be sent 1 2 3 1. Bhagalpur(3201), Darbhanga(3202), Muzaffarpur(3205), Agra(3001), Bareilly(3005), Gorakhpur(3007) , Kanpur(3009), Meerut(3011), Varanasi(3013), Allahabad(3003), Patna(3206), Lucknow(3010) Regional Director(CR), Staff Selection Commission, 8-AB, Beli Road, Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh-211002 2. Kolkata(4410), Midnapur(4413), Port Blair(4802), Sambalpur(4609), Gangtok(4001), Jalpaiguri(4408), Bhubaneshwar(4604), Cuttack(4605), Ranchi(4205), Regional Director (ER), Staff Selection Commission,1st MSO Building,(8th Floor) 234/4 . Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose Road), Kolkata, West Bengal-700020
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3. Bangalore(9001), Thiruvananthapuram(9211), Kochi(9204), Thrissur(9212), Gulbarga(9005), Mangalore(9008), Dharwar(9004), Kozhikode (Calicut) (9206) Regional Director(KKR), Staff Selection Commission, 1st Floor, “E” Wing, Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bangalore, Karnataka-560034 4. Delhi(2201), Jaipur(2405), Jodhpur(2406),Kota(2407), Bikaner(2404), Udaipur(2409), Ajmer(2401), Alwar(2402), Sriganganagar(2408), Dehradun(2002), Haldwani(2003),Almora(2001), Srinagar(2004) (Uttarakhand) Regional Director (NR), Staff Selection Commission, Block No. 12, CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110504 5. Guwahati (Dispur)(5105), Itanagar(5001),Dibrugarh(5102), Jorhat(5107),Silchar(5111), Imphal(5501), Shillong(5401), Aizwal(5701), Kohima(5302), Agartala(5601) Regional Director(NER), Staff Selection Commission, Rukmini Nagar, PO: Assam Sachivalaya, Guwahati, Assam-781006 6. Hyderabad(8002), Guntur(8001), Kurnool(8003), Rajahmundry(8004), Tirupati(8006), Coimbatore(8202), Chennai(8201), Madurai(8204), Puducherry(8401), Tirunelveli(8207), Tiruchirapalli(8206), Vishakhapatnam (8007) Regional Director (SR), Staff Selection Commission, EVK Sampath Building, 2nd Floor, College Road, Chennai, Tamil Nadu-600006 7. Aurangabad(7202), Mumbai(7204), Kolhapur(7203), Nagpur(7205), Panaji(7801), Pune(7208), Ahmedabad(7001), Vadodara(7002), Rajkot(7006),Nashik (7207), Amravati (7201),Surat(7007) Regional Director (WR), Staff Selection Commission, 1st Floor, South Wing, Pratishta Bhawan, 101 M.K. Road, Mumbai, Maharashtra-400020 8. Ambikapur(6201), Indore(6006), Jabalpur(6007), Jagdalpur(6203), Chindwara(6003), Chattarpur(6002), Guna(6004), Mandsaur(6010), Jhabua(6008), Khandwa(6009), Rewa(6012), Raipur(6204), Bhopal(6001), Gwalior(6005), Bilaspur(6202) Dy. Director (MPR), Staff Selection Commission, “Nishant Vila” F. Jalvihar Colony, Raipur, Chhatisgarh-492001 9. Ambala(1801), Jalandhar(1402), Leh(1005) Chandigarh(1601), Jammu(1004), Srinagar(1007), Shimla(1203),Bhathinda (1401) Hamirpur (1202) Dy. Director (NWR), Staff Selection Commission, Block No. 3, Gr. Floor, Kendriya Sadan, Sector-9, Chandigarh-160017 NOTE I: No change of Centre of Examination will be allowed under any circumstances. Hence, the candidates should select the centres, carefully and indicate the same correctly in their applications. NOTE II: The Commission reserves the right to cancel any Centre and ask the candidates of that centre to appear from another centre. Commission also reserves the right
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to divert candidates of any centre to some other Centre to take the examination. 8. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION : Written Examination. Paper-I Subject Number of Questions Maximum Marks Duration/ Time Allowed Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning 50 50 Two Hours (10.00 A.M. to 12.00 Noon) Part B General Knowledge and General Awareness 50 50 Part C Numerical Aptitude 50 50 Part D English Comprehension 50 50 Paper-II Subject Maximum marks /Questions. Duration and timing English language & Comprehension 200marks/200 questions 2.00 PM to 4.00PM Questions in both papers will be of Objective Multiple Choice Type. Questions will be set in Hindi and English in Parts A, B and C of Paper I. Deduction of 0.25 mark will be made for each incorrect answer marked on OMR Answer Sheet. NOTE-I: Candidates are not permitted to use Mobile Phone, Calculators or any other electronic/electrical device for answering any paper (Test Booklets). Candidates must not, therefore, bring Mobile Phone, Calculators or any other electronic / electrical device inside the Examination premises. Possession of these items, whether in use or not, will be considered as “use of unfair means” in the Examination and appropriate action will be taken by the Commission against such candidates, as per extant policy of the Commission. NOTE-II: The Commission will not take cognizance of representations, regarding the content of the Examination received later than fifteen days of the Examination.
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9. SYLLABUS Paper :I A. General Intelligence & Reasoning : It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, spatial visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. B. General Awareness : Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity, Indian Constitution, scientific Research etc. These Questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline. The question in the components A&B will be of a level commensurate with the Essential Qualification prescribed for the post viz. graduation. C. Numerical Aptitude : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals and fractions and relationships between numbers. It will test sense of order among numbers, ability to translate from one name to another, sense or order of magnitude, estimation or prediction of the outcome of computation, selection of an appropriate operation for the solution of real life problems and knowledge of alternative computation procedures to find answers. The questions would also be based on arithmetical concepts and relationship between numbers and not on complicated arithmetical computation. D. English Comprehension : Candidates‟ ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing ability, etc. would be tested. (The question in components C&D will be of Higher Secondary (10+2) level). Paper-II : English Language & Comprehension :Questions in this components will be designed to test the candidate‟s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on error recognition, fill in the blanks (using verbs, preposition, articles etc), Vocabulary, Spellings, Grammar, Sentence Structure, Synonyms, Antonyms, Sentence Completion, Phrases and Idiomatic use of Words, etc. There will be a question on passages and comprehension of passages also. (The standard of the questions will be Higher Secondary 10+2 level).
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NOTE - 1: The Commission shall have the discretion to fix different minimum qualifying standards in each part of Paper I taking into consideration among others, category-wise vacancies and category-wise number of candidates. Only those candidates, who have scored above the cut off marks fixed by the Commission in Paper I would be required to appear in the Physical Endurance Test/Medical examination. Further, Commission may evaluate Paper-II of only those candidates who clear the PET & Medical Examination. NOTE- 2: Marks in Paper-I will be used to screen the candidates for appearing for PET and Medical Examination. However, marks of such screened candidates in Paper I if they are successful in PET and Medical Examination, will be taken into account along with marks in Paper II for final ranking of candidates for selecting them for the interview and also final selection. NOTE-3: The Commission will be using a software to detect attempted irregularities in an examination Hall / Sub-Centre / Centre / State. The Candidates are advised to desist from use of any unfair method in the examination hall which will render them ineligible for further consideration for the examination and also lead to their debarment from Commission‟s examinations in future. 10 PHYSICAL ENDURENCE TEST(PET) is MANDATORY FOR THE POST . NOTE -I: Candidates opting for the post will have to undergo PET and MEDICAL Examination. NOTE-II: Only those candidates who secure qualifying marks in Paper I of the written examination, as may be fixed by the Commission at their discretion, and also clear Eligibility and Physical Endurance Test (PET) and medical test, will be called for the Personality Test / Interview based on their combined performance in Paper I and II of the written examination. 10(A) PHYSICAL STANDARDS ELIGIBILITY TESTS: Category of candidates Height in cms Chest in cms Unexpanded Expanded (i) For male candidates only GENERAL 170 80 85 THE POST THE
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For candidates belonging to Hill areas of Garhwal, Kumaon, Himachal Pradesh, Gorkhas, Dogras, Marathas, Kashmir Valley, Leh & Ladakh regions of J&K, North-Eastern States and Sikkim 165 80 85 For all candidates belonging to Scheduled Tribes 162.5 77 82 (ii) For Female candidates only GENERAL 157 - - For candidates belonging to Hill areas of Garhwal, Kumaon, Himachal Pradesh, Gorkhas, Dogras, Marathas, Kashmir Valley, Leh & Ladakh regions of J&K, North-Eastern States and Sikkim 155 - - For all candidates belonging to Scheduled Tribes 154 - - Physical Efficiency(Endurance) Test(PET) For male candidates only a) 100 meters race in 16 seconds b) 1.6 Kms race in 6.5 minutes c) Long Jump : 3.65 metres in 3 chances d) High Jump : 1.2 metres in 3 chances e) Shot put (16 Lbs): 4.5 metres in 3 chances
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For female candidates only a) 100 metres race in 18 seconds b) 800 metres race in 4 minutes c) Long Jump: 2.7 metres (9 feet) in 3 chances. d) High Jump : 0.9 metres (3 feet) in 3 chances. NOTE: 1. There shall be no minimum requirement of chest measurement for Female candidates. 2. Relaxation in height and chest (as the case may be) as mentioned above will be permissible only on production of certificate in the pro forma as prescribed in Annexure VIII from the competent authorities of the District where he/she ordinarily resides. 3. Those candidates who are declared not qualified in Physical Standards, i.e., height and chest, may prefer an appeal, if they so desire, to the appellate authority present on the PET ground. The decision of the appellate authority will be final and no further appeal or representation in this regard will be entertained. 10(b) Weight : Corresponding to height. 10(c) Medical Standard : 1) Eye sight: The minimum distant vision should be 6/6 and 6/9 of two eyes without correction i.e. without wearing of glasses. 2) The candidate must not have knock knee, flat foot, varicose vein or squint in eyes and they should possess high colour vision. 3) They must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to interfere with the efficient performance of the duties. 10(d) Physical Endurance Test Will NOT CARRY ANY MARKS BUT WILL BE OF QUALIFYING/ELIMINATION NATURE. NOTE:I Ex-Servicemen applying for the posts are not required to undergo PET. However, all the Ex-Servicemen are required to pass the written test and fulfill the physical standards prescribed for direct recruits for recruitment of Assistant Sub Inspectors/Assistant Sub Inspectors, as the case may be. They should also pass the medical standards prescribed for direct recruits. NOTE:II The candidature of female candidates who are pregnant at the time of Physical Endurance Test will be rejected as they cannot undergo PET. No appeal/representation will be entertained against such rejection. Note: III Medical Examination All the candidates who qualify in the PET will be medically examined by the Medical Officer of the CISF or any other Medical Officer or Assistant Surgeon belonging to Grade I of any Govt. Hospital or Dispensary. Those who are found fit in the medical examination and qualify in the written
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examination also will be required to appear in the Interview(Personality Test) of 100 marks. Candidates who are found to be unfit, will be informed of the position and they can make an appeal before Review Medical Board within the prescribed time limit of one month. Decision of Review Medical Board will be final and no appeal / representation against the decision of the Review Medical Board will be entertained. Candidates, finally selected would have to pass seven obstacle events a mentioned below, as part of training curriculum, failing which they may not be retained in the Force: i) Jumping over the Vertical Board; ii) Holding the rope on jumping from the Board. iii) Tarzan Swing; iv) Jumping on the Horizontal Board; v) Parallel Rope; vi) Monkey Crawl; vii) Vertical Rope. 11. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS TO BE COMPLIED BY THE CANDIDATES IN THE WRITTEN EXAMINATIONS (i) Candidates must write the papers/indicate the answers in their own hand. (ii) In the question papers, wherever necessary, the Metric systems of weights and measures only will be used. (iii) Candidates are not permitted to use calculators and other electronic gadgets except as specified in the Notice. They should not, therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Premises/Venue. (iv) Wherever applicable, the candidates must indicate /write the answer either in Hindi or in English or vice versa. If answers are indicated/written partly in Hindi and partly in English and vice versa, the Answer script will not be evaluated and the candidate will be awarded zero marks. (v) If any candidate is found to possess mobile phones or any other means of wireless communication position in the working or switched off mode in the examination hall, his/her candidature shall be cancelled forthwith. (vi) OMR Type of Answer Sheets will be supplied by the Commission to candidates for recording their answers of Multiple Choice Objective Type Questions. Candidates are advised to read very carefully, the following instructions, in their own interest. i) Part A of OMR Answer Sheet to be filled in Ball Point Pen only. ii) Part B of OMR Answer Sheet should be filled in HB pencil only, as per instructions given in OMR Answer Sheet. iii) Candidate should write his/her name, Roll Number, Ticket Number, Name of the Examination as mentioned in Admission Certificate, Date of birth, Test Form Number correctly, in the relevant places in OMR Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet not bearing candidates Name, Roll Number, Ticket Number, Test Form Number and signature and which do not have such details fully and correctly coded ,will not be evaluated and „Zero‟ marks will be awarded to them.
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12. MODE OF SELECTION : After the written Examination and the Interview /personality test, the Commission will draw up the All India Merit List and, in that order, as many candidates as are found by the Commission to have qualified in the Examination shall be recommended for appointment upto the number of unreserved vacancies available taking into consideration their options for the posts of SI and ASI and CPOs. The Commission will recommend the candidates in the Merit List on the basis of the aggregate marks obtained by the candidates in the written examination and interview/personality test. Provided that SC, ST, and OBC, who are selected on their own merit without relaxed standards, along with candidates belonging to other communities, will not be adjusted against the reserved share of vacancies. Such SC, ST, and OBC will be accommodated against the general/unreserved vacancies as per their position in the overall Merit List. The reserved vacancies will be filled up separately from amongst the eligible SCs, STs, and OBCs, candidates which will, thus, comprise of SC, ST, and OBC candidates who are lower in merit than the last general candidate on merit list of unreserved category but otherwise found suitable for appointment by relaxed standard. An Ex-Serviceman candidate who qualifies on the basis of relaxed standards viz. age limit, experience or qualifications, permitted number of chances in written examination, extended zone of consideration, etc. will be counted against reserved vacancies and not against general vacancies subject to fitness of such candidate for selection. Such candidates will also be recommended at the relaxed standards to the extent the number of vacancies reserved for them, to make up for the deficiency in the reserved quota, irrespective of their rank in the order of merit. Deduction from the age of Ex-Servicemen is permissible against the reserved or unreserved posts and such exemption cannot be termed as relaxed standards in regard to age. NOTE-I: Success in the examination confers no right of appointment unless government are satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that the candidate is suitable in all respects of appointment to the service/post. NOTE-II ; The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If, on verification, at any time before or after the written examination and interview, it is found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission. 13. RESOLUTION OF TIE CASES (a) The tie is resolved by the Commission by referring to the total marks in the written examination i.e. a candidate having more marks in the written examination gets preference over the candidate(s) with less marks. (b) If the tie still persists then the marks in Paper I are referred to i.e. a candidate having more marks in this paper is given preference.
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(c) If the tie still persists, the candidate older in age gets preference. (d) If the tie still persists, it is finally resolved by referring to the alphabetical order of names i.e. a candidate whose names begins with the alphabet which comes first in the alphabetical order gets preference. 14. HOW TO APPLY : The application must be submitted only in the prescribed format on – line or on paper. (Annexed). Instructions on filling up the application are also annexed. 15. ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION: All candidates who apply in response to this advertisement by the CLOSING DATE will be assigned Roll numbers, which will be communicated to them within two weeks from the CLOSING DATE. A candidate must write his/her Roll number along with his/her name, date of birth and name of the examination while addressing any communication to the Commission. Communication from the candidate not furnishing these particulars shall not be entertained. Admission Certificates (ACs) for the Examination indicating the time table and also venues of examination for each candidate will be issued to all applicants about two weeks before the date of examination. The facility of downloading of ACs from the Website of the concerned regional office will also be available simultaneously. IF ANY CANDIDATE DOES NOT RECEIVE ADMISSION CERTIFICATE FOR THE EXAMINATION OR IS UNABLE TO DOWNLOAD THE AC FROM THE WEBSITE OF THE RESPECTIVE REGIONAL OFFICE OF THE COMMISSION WHERE THE CANDIDATED HAS APPLIED AT LEAST ONE WEEK BEFORE THE DATE OF EXAMINATION, HE/SHE MUST IMMEDIATELY CONTACT THE CONCERNED REGIONAL/SUB REGIONAL OFFICE (S) OF THE COMMISSION WITH PROOF OF HAVING SUBMITTED HIS/HER APPLICATION. (In case of Applications submitted under Certificate of Posting, the Date-Stamp of the Post-Office concerned should be clearly legible). IN THE CAE OF ONLINE APPLICATION, REGISTRATION ID SHOULD BE AVAILABLE WITH THE CANDIDATE. FAILURE TO DO SO WILL DEPRIVE HIM/HER OF ANY CLAIM FOR CONSIDERATION. 16. COMMISSION‟S DECISION FINAL The decision of the Commission in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or rejection of the applications, penalty for false information, mode of selection, conduct of examination(s) and interviews, allotment of examination centres , selection and allotment will be final and binding on the candidates and no enquiry/correspondence will be entertained in this regard. 17. COURTS JURISDICTION Any dispute in regard to this recruitment will be subject to courts/tribunals having jurisdiction over the City/Town in which the concerned Regional/Sub-Regional Office of the SSC is situated and where the candidate has submitted his/her application. 18. For Application form, instructions for filling up the application form and for on-line payment/submission of application, candidates are advised to refer Annexure- II A and II B respectively
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Annexure –I Application Form is available saperatly
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Annexure – II A BROCHURE INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP THE APPLICATION 1.0 Please read the instructions given in the Notice of Examination carefully before filling up the application form, in your own interest. 2.0 Use only blue/black ball pen to write in the boxes. i.e. 3.0 Instructions have been given for most items in the application itself which should be gone through carefully before filling up the boxes. For items for which instructions are not available, further instructions given below may be gone through carefully. 4.0 Please go through the instructions given below for filling up each item numbered in the application form:- Column 4.1. Name of the Examination Centre and Column 4.2. Centre Codes Refer to para-7 of the Notice of the Examination. Column 11, 16 and 16 .1 – Not applicable in this examination (NA) Column 12.1. Code for seeking age relaxation. Refer to para 4 B of the Notice of the Examination. Column 13. Preference for Posts Candidates should carefully indicate preference of post /CPOs . For posts, use X for SI and Y for ASI indicating your preference. For CPOs Code see Para 1 of the Notice which is reproduced below:- A Border Security Force (BSF) B Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) C Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) D Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) E Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) Column 15. Candidates to indicate whether they belong to one of the minority communities notified by Govt. namely, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists or Zoroastrians (Parsees). Column 17. Educational Qualification from Degree or Equivalent onwards: See Annexure -X Column 18. Subject Code : See Annexure - XI
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Column 19. Address for communication Write your complete communication address including your Name in English in capital letters or in Hindi with blue/black ball pen. Do not forget to write 6 digits PIN Code in the boxes. Column 20. (i) Photograph Paste your recent photograph of size 4cmx5cm. Do not staple and do not get the photo attested. Please note that your application shall be rejected summarily without photograph. (ii) Box in the Application form for Roll Number to be left unfilled (blank) by the candidate. (iii) Signature of Candidate (Wherever required) Please do sign in running hand. Signature in capital letters of English shall not be accepted and your application shall be summarily rejected. Unsigned application shall also be rejected. (iv) Candidates to indicate whether they belong to one of the minority communities notified by Govt. namely Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, or Zoroastrians (Parsees).
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Annexure-II B Procedure for Online Submission of Application The online submission of application may be made on website www.ssconline.nic.in. Detailed instructions are available at the site. Candidate should read the instructions carefully before making any entry or selecting options. Candidate should supply all the required details while filling up the online form. Mandatory fields are marked with * (asterisk) sign. The filling of online application contains two parts : Part I Registration Part II Registration 1. In Part I registration, candidate will have to fill basic information. On submission of details, candidate will be prompted to check the details and make correction, if any. 2. Candidate should press “I agree” button after declaration once he/she finds that information supplied by him/her is in order and no correction is required. Thereafter no correction/modification etc. shall be allowed. 3. A page with Registration No. will appear on the screen. Note down the registration number or take out a print out of the page. 4. The application procedure will be incomplete without part II registration. Part II registration contains filing of payment details, uploading of photograph, and scanned signature. 5. Candidates who have to pay application fee can pay fee online through net banking, or cash through SBI bank challan. 6. To pay fee in cash, candidate should take printout of challan generated online after completion of part I registration. The requisite fee can be deposited in any branch of State Bank of India and Part II registration can be continued. 7. Those who want to pay online through net banking can go directly to part II registration after completion of part I. Candidate will have to supply registration number and date of birth to continue to Part II registration. 8. Those who are exempted from payment of fee can skip steps 4 to 7. 9. Candidates should then upload a recently taken scanned photograph in 8 – bit grayscale JPG format. The digital size of the file must be of resolution 100 pixel width by 120 pixels height. 10. Then upload your scanned signature in 8 – bit grayscale JPG format. The digital size of the file must be of resolution 140 pixel width by 60 pixels height. 11. Request for change/correction in any particular field shall not be entertained under any circumstances. The Staff Selection Commission will not be responsible for any consequences arising out of non acceptance of any correction/addition/deletion in any particular field in application form whatever the reasons may be.
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ANNEXURE-III FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE SUBMITTED BY CENTRAL GOVERNMENT CIVILIAN EMPLOYEES SEEKING AGE-RELAXATION (To be filled by the Head of the Office or Department in which the candidate is working). (Please see Para 4(B) of the Notice) It is certified that *Shri/Smt./Km. ______________________ is a Central Government Civilian employee holding the post of ---------------------------------- in the pay scale of Rs.___________________ with 3 years regular service in the grade as on ___________.2010. Signature ___________________ Name ___________________ Office seal Place: Date : (*Please delete the words which are not applicable.)
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ANNEXURE- IV Form of Certificate for serving Defence Personnel (Please see Note III Para-4 (B) of Notice for the Examination) I hereby certify that, according to the information available with me (No.) __________________________________ (Rank) ___________________ (Name) ___________________________ is due to complete the specified term of his engagement with the Armed Forces on the (Date) ____________________. Place: (Signature of Commanding Officer) Date: Office Seal:
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ANNEXURE-V UNDERTAKING TO BE GIVEN BY THE CANDIDATE COVERED UNDER NOTE III PARA 4(B) OF NOTICE. I understand that, if selected on the basis of the recruitment/examination to which the application relates, my appointment will be subject to my producing documentary evidence to the satisfaction of the Appointing Authority that I have been duly released/retired/discharged from the Armed Forces and that I am entitled to the benefits admissible to Ex-Servicemen in terms of the Ex-Servicemen (Re-employment in Central Civil Services and Posts rules, 1979, as amended from time to time). I also understand that I shall not be eligible to be appointed to a vacancy reserved for Ex-S in regard to the recruitment covered by this examination, if I have at any time prior to such appointment, secured any employment on the civil side (including Public Sector Undertakings, Autonomous Bodies/Statutory Bodies, Nationalized Banks, etc.) by availing of the concession of reservation of vacancies admissible to Ex-S. I further submit the following information: a) Date of appointment in Armed Forces __________________ b) Date of discharge ____________________ c) Length of service in Armed Forces __________________ d) My last Unit / Corps ____________________ (Signature of the Candidate) Place: Date:
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ANNEXURE-VI FORMAT FOR SC/ST CERTIFICATE A candidate who claims to belong to one of the Scheduled Caste or the Scheduled Tribes should submit in support of his claim an attested/certified copy of a certificate in the form given below, from the District Officer or the sub-Divisional Officer or any other officer as indicated below of the District in which his parents(or surviving parent) ordinarily reside who has been designated by the State Government concerned as competent to issue such a certificate. If both his parents are dead, the officer signing the certificate should be of the district in which the candidate himself ordinarily resides otherwise than for the purpose of his own education. Wherever photograph is an integral part of the certificate, the Commission would accept only attested photocopies of such certificates and not any other attested or true copy. (The format of the certificate to be produced by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes candidates applying for appointment to posts under Government of India) This is to certify that Shri/Shrimati/Kumari* __________________________ son/daughter of ___________________________________ of village/town/* in District/Division *_______________________ of the State/Union Territory* ________ belongs to the Caste/Tribes_______________ which is recognized as a Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes* under:- The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) order, 1950 ___________________ The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) order, 1950 ________________ The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Union Territories order, 1951 * _______________ The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Union Territories Order, 1951*______________ As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists(Modification) order, 1956, the Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960 & the Punjab Reorganization Act, 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act 1970, the North-Eastern Area(Reorganization) Act, 1971 and the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Order(Amendment) Act, 1976. The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956___________ The Constitution (Andaman and Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959 as amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes order (Amendment Act), 1976*. The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes order 1962. The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order 1962@. The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order 1964@ The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Uttar Pradesh) Order, 1967 @ The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968@ The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Tribes Order 1968 @ The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970 @ The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order 1978@ The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order 1978@
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The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order 1989@ The Constitution (SC) orders (Amendment) Act, 1990@ The Constitution (ST) orders (Amendment) Ordinance 1991@ The Constitution (ST) orders (Second Amendment) Act, 991@ The Constitution (ST) orders (Amendment) Ordinance 1996 %2. Applicable in the case of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes persons who have migrated from one State/Union Territory Administration. This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled tribes certificate issued to Shri/Shrimati __________________________Father/mother _____________________________ of Shri/Srimati/Kumari*___________________________ of village/town*____________ ___________________ in District/Division* ______________________of the State/Union Territory*_________ _____________________ who belong to the _________________________________ Caste/Tribe which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe in the State/Union Territory* issued by the_______________________________ ____dated____________________________. %3. Shri/Shrimati/Kumari and /or * his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in village/town*________________________________________ of ________________ District/Division* _________________of the State/Union Territory of ____________________________ Signature__________________________ ** Designation________________________ (with seal of office) Place______________ Date_______________ * Please delete the words which are not applicable @ Please quote specific presidential order % Delete the paragraph which is not applicable. NOTE: The term ordinarily reside(s) used here will have the same meaning as in section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. ** List of authorities empowered to issue Caste/Tribe Certificates: (i) District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/Additional Deputy Commissioner/Dy.Collector/Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate/Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Extra-Assistant Commissioner/Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate. (ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate. (iii) Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar. (iv) Sub-Divisional Officers of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally resides. NOTE: ST candidates belonging to Tamil Nadu state should submit caste certificate ONLY FROM THE REVENUE DIVISIONAL OFFICER.
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ANNEXURE-VII (FORMAT OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES APPLYING FOR APPOINTMENT TO POSTS UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA) This is to certify that _______________________________ son/ daughter of ___________________________________________ of village _____ ______________________________ District/Division _____________________ in the ______________________________ State __________________________ ________ belongs to the ______________________ Community which is recognized as a backward class under: i) Resolution No. 12011/68/93-BCC dated the 10th September, 1993, published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary – Part I, Section I, No. 186 dated 13th September, 1993. ii) Resolution No. 12011/9/94-BCC, dated 19.10.1994 published in Gazette of India extraordinary Part I Section I No. 163, dated 20th October, 1994. iii) Resolution No. 12011/7/95-BCC dated the 24th May 1995 Published in the Gazette of India extraordinary Part-I Section I No. 88 dated 25th May, 1995. iv) Resolution No.12011/96/94-BCC dated 9th March, 1996. v) Resolution No. 12011/44/96-BCC, dated the 6th December, 1996, published in the Gazette of India – Extraordinary-part I, Section-I, No. 210, dated the 11th December, 1996. vi) Resolution No.12011/13/97-BCC dated 3rd December, 1997. vii) Resolution No.12011/99/94-BCC dated 11th December, 1997. viii) Resolution No.12011/68/98-BCC dated 27th October, 1999. ix) Resolution No.12011/88/98-BCC dated 6th December, 1999, published in the Gazette of India, Extra Ordinary Part-I, Section-I No.270, 6th December, 1999. x) Resolution No.12011/36/99-BCC dated 4th April, 2000, published in the Gazette of India, Extra Ordinary Part-I, Section-I, No.71 dated 4th April, 2000. xi) Resolution No.12011/44/99-BCC dated 21.9.2000, published in the Gazette of India, Extra Ordinary Part-I, Section-I, No.210 dated 21.9.2000. Shri ____________________________ and/or his family ordinarily reside(s) in the ______________________________ District/Division of the ____ ___________________________________ State. This is also to certify that he/she does not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training OM No. 36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT,) dated 08.09.1993 and modified vide Govt. of India Deptt. of Personnel and Training OM No. 36033/3/2004-Estt(Res) dated
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09.03.2004 & 14.10.2008 Dated: District Magistrate or Seal: Deputy Commissioner etc. Note-I (a) The term „Ordinarily‟ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. (b) The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificate are indicated below:- (i) District Magistrate/Additional Magistrate/Collector/Dy. Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/Deputy Collector/Ist Class Stipendary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate). (ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate /Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate. (iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar (iv) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family resides. NOTE-II: The closing date for receipt of application will be treated as the date of reckoning for OBC status of the candidate and also, for assuming that the candidate does not fall in the creamy layer. The candidate should furnish the relevant OBC Certificate in the format prescribed for Central Government jobs as per Annexure-VII issued by the competent authority on or before the Closing Date as stipulated in the Notice.
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ANNEXURE-VIII FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE SUBMITTED BY THOSE CANDIDATES WHO INTEND TO AVAIL RELAXATION IN HEIGHT OR CHEST MEASUREMENT ( Please see Note below Para 10(A) of the Notice for the Examination ) Certified that Shri ________________________ S/o Shri _______________________ is permanent resident of village ____________________, Tehsil/Taluka _________________ District___________________ of _____________________ State. 2. It is further certified that : * Residents of entire area mentioned above are considered as____________________ ( Garhwali, Kumaoni, Dogras, Marathas, Sikkimies ) for relaxation in height measurement for recruitment in the para military forces of the Union of India. * he / she belongs to Himachal Pradesh / Leh and Ladakh / Kashmir Valley / North-Eastern States which is considered for relaxation in height measurement for recruitment in the para military forces of Union of India. * he / she belongs to Scheduled Tribe. Signature District Magistrate / Sub-Division Magistrate / Tehsildar Date: Place: * Delete whichever is not applicable.
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ANNEXURE-IX FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE SUBMITTED BY ASI(Exe) in CISF ( DEPARTMENTAL CANDIDATES ) ( TO BE FILLED BY THE HEAD OF THE OFFICE ) ( Please see Para 4(B) of the Notice for the Examination ) Certified that as per entries made in the Service Book, No._______________Rank_______________Name________________________ who was appointed in the ________________ on_________________in the rank of________________ is continuously serving in the _________________ and has completed three years regular service. It is also certified that he has completed the period of probation satisfactorily on _________________. He is presently posted in this unit _____________________( name of the unit ). During his service he has been awarded________________ major punishments and __________________ minor punishments. Signature of Head of Office Name__________________ Office Seal Place: Date:
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ANNEXURE-X Essential Educational Qualification Code Educational Qualification Code BA 05 BA (Hons.) 06 B. Com. 07 B.Com. (Hons.) 08 B.Sc. 09 B.Sc. (Hons.) 10 B. Ed. 11 LLB 12 BE 13 B. Tech 14 AMIE (Part A & Part B) 15 B.Sc. (Engg.) 16 BCA 17 BBA 18 Graduation issued by Defence (Indian Army, Air Force, Navy) 19 B. Lib. 20 B. Pharm. 21 ICWA 22 CA 23 PG Diploma 24 MA 25 M.Com. 26 M. Sc. 27 M.Ed. 28 LLM 29 ME 30 M. Tech. 31 M. Sc. (Engg.) 32 MCA 33 MBA 34 Others 35
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Annexure-XI Subject Code for Educational Qualification Subject of Educational Qualification Code History 01 Political Science 02 Economics 03 English Literature 04 Hindi Literature 05 Geography 06 Commerce 07 Law 08 Physics 09 Chemistry 10 Mathematics 11 Statistics 12 Botany 13 Zoology 14 Agriculture Science 15 Civil Engineering 16 Electrical Engineering 17 Mechanical Engineering 18 Electronics Engineering 19 Electronics & Power Engineering 20 Electronics & Communication Engineering 21 Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering 22 Agriculture Engineering 23 Computer Science 24 Computer Application 25 Information Technology 26 Library Science 27 Accountancy 28 Work Accountancy 29 Business Administration 30 Mass Communication 31 Journalism 32 Mass Communication & Journalism 33 Pharmacy 34
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Photography 35 Printing Technology 36 Nursing 37 Assamese 38 Bengali 39 Malyalam 40 Telgu 41 Kannada 42 Tamil 43 Marathi 44 Gujrati 45 Urdu 46 Sanskrit 47 Others 48 Detailed notice is also available in Employment News 09-10-2010 - 16-10-2010 edition.
Saturday, October 9, 2010
Thursday, October 7, 2010
C.P.O MODEL SET PAPER I G.K REASONING AND MATH
Directions (Qs. 1 to 8) : In these questions, select the
related letters/ words/ numbers/figures from the given
alternatives.
1. Taste : Tongue : : Walk : ?
(a) Pavement
(b) Crutch
(c) Legs
(d) Walking stick
Ans: ( c ) Legs
2. CHIMNEY : SMOKE : : ______ : ______
(a) Gun : Bullet
(b) House : Roof
(c) Clay : Ceramic
(d) Tea : Kettle
Ans: ( a ) Gun : Bullet
3. DCHG : LIKQP : : FEJI : ?
(a) MLSR
(b) NMRQ
(c) ONTS
(d) QPUT
Ans: ( None )
4. CAD : FDG : : XZW : ?
(a) IQJ
(b) CAD
(c) ZBY
(d) UWT
Ans: ( d ) UWT
5. 5 : 124 : : 7 : ?
(a) 342
(b) 343
(c) 248
(d) 125
Ans: ( a ) 342
6. 3265 : 4376 : : 4673 : ?
(a) 2154
(b) 5487
(c) 3562
(d) 5784
Ans: ( d ) 5784
Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) : In these questions, select the
response which is different from the other three responses.
7. (a) Telephone
(b) Tape-Recorder
(c) Transistor
(d) Telescope
Ans: ( d ) Telescope
8. (a) Glue
(b) Oil
(c) Paste
(d) Cement
Ans: ( b ) Oil
9. (a) XZUS
(b) OQLJ
(c) HJFE
(d) FHCA
Ans: ( c ) HJFE
10. (a) KNPS
(b) RUWZ
(c) MPRU
(d) PRSU
Ans: ( d ) PRSU
11. (a) 26 ? 62
(b) 36 ? 63
(c) 46 ? 64
(d) 56 ? 18
Ans: ( d ) 56 ? 18
12. (a) 6958
(b) 7948
(c) 6895
(d) 9783
Ans: ( d ) 9783
Directions (Qs. 13) : In this question, which one set of
letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given
letter series shall complete it ?
13. m__nm__n__an__a__ma__
(a) amammn
(b) aammnn
(c) ammanm
(d) aamnan
Ans: ( b ) aammnn
Directions (Qs. 14 to 17) : In these questions, a series is
given with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
14. A, c, f, j, ?, ?
(a) ou
(b) mo
(c) lp
(d) rv
Ans: ( a ) ou
15. QYK, ?, ISG, EPE
(a) NWJ
(b) MVI
(c) NVI
(d) MVJ
Ans: ( b ) MVI
16. 10, 22, 46, 94 ?
(a) 180
(b) 184
(c) 190
(d) 140
Ans: ( c ) 190
17. 110, 132, 156, ?, 210
(a) 162
(b) 172
(c) 182
(d) 192
Ans: ( c ) 182
Directions (Qs. 18 to 22) : In these questions, which one of
the given responses would be a meaningful order of the
following words?
18. (1) Book (2) Words
(3) Letters (4) Sentences
(5) Chapters (6) Pages
(a) 3 2 6 5 4 1
(b) 3 2 5 4 6 1
(c) 3 2 4 5 6 1
(d) 3 2 4 6 5 1
Ans: ( d ) 3 2 4 6 5 1
19. (1) Probation (2) Interview
(3) Selection (4) Appointment
(5) Advertisement (6) Application
(a) 5 6 4 2 3 1
(b) 5 6 3 2 4 1
(c) 5 6 2 3 4 1
(d) 6 5 4 2 3 1
Ans: ( c ) 5 6 2 3 4 1
20. If E = 5, PEN = 35, then PAGE = ?
(a) 28
(b) 29
(c) 36
(d) 27
Ans: ( b ) 29
21. If he word ?PORTER? can be coded as ?MBNZQN?, then how
can ?REPORT? be written?
(a) NQMBNZ
(b) NQBMNZ
(c) NBQMNZ
(d) NQMNBZ
Ans: ( a ) NQMBNZ
22. In a certain code, the words ?COME AT ONCE? were
written as XLNVZGLMXV. In the same code which of the
following would be ?OK? ?
(a) LM
(b) LP
(c) KM
(d) KL
Ans: ( b ) LP
Directions (Qs. 23) : In this question, you have to identify
the correct response from the given premises stated
according to following symbols.
23. If ?+? means ?minus?, ?-? means ?multiplication?, ??
means ?plus? and ?x? means ?division, then
15 ? 3 + 10 x 5 5 =
(a) 52
(b) 48
(c) 22
(d) 5
Ans: ( b ) 48
Directions (Qs. 24 ) : In this question, find the missing
number from the given response.
24. 8 7 10 12
13 12 15 17
10 9 ? 14
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 21
(d) 25
Ans: ( a ) 12
Directions (Qs. 25) : From the given alternative words
select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word.
25. Given word : ADMINISTRATION
(a) STATION
(b) TRADITION
(c) MINISTER
(d) RATION
Ans: ( c ) MINISTER
Directions (Qs. 26) : A word given in Capital letters is
followed by four answer words. Out of these only one can be
formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out
that word.
26. IMMEDIATELY
(a) DIAMETER
(b) DICTATE
(c) LIMITED
(d) DIALECT
Ans: ( c ) LIMITED
27. Suresh starts from a point, walks 2 miles towards the
south, turns right and walks 1 ½ miles, turns left and walks
½ mile and then he turns back. What is the direction he is
facing now?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) South
(d) North
Ans: ( d ) North
28. Ashok wants to book a ticket to Madurai. He starts and
covers 5 km to reach the Booking Office which is in the East
of his house. From there he turns to the North towards the
market by traveling 3 km. From there he turns left to his
friend Sandeep?s house which is 5 km away. Now he has to
get back to his house. How many km he has to cover to reach
his house?
(a) 8 km
(b) 3 km
(c) 5 km
(d) 6 km
Ans: ( b ) 3 km
29. The age of X is 2/3rd that of Y. After 6 years, X will
be 46 years old. The present age of Y is
(a) 40 years
(b) 56 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 100 years
Ans: ( c ) 60 years
30. A is B?s brother, C is A?s mother, D is C?s father, E is
B?s son. How is D related to A ?
(a) Son
(b) Grandson
(c) Grandfather
(d) Great Grandfather
Ans: ( c ) Grandfather
31. In a store, 5 articles A, B, C, D and E are priced
differently. Value of ?C? is Rs. 100. ?A? is cheaper than
?C? but costlier than ?B?. ?E? is costlier than ?C? but
cheaper than ?D?. Which of the articles is the costliest ?
(a) D
(b) E
(c) B
(d) A
Ans: ( a ) D
32. Read The following information to answer this question :
(i) A B C D E F are six family members
(ii) There is one Doctor, one Lawyer, one Engineer, one
Pilot, one Student and one Housewife.
(iii) There are two married couples in the family.
(iv) F, who is a Lawyer, is the father of A.
(v) B is a Pilot and is mother of C.
(vi) D is grandmother of C and is a housewife.
(vii) E is father of F and is a Doctor.
(viii) C is brother of A.
How many female members are there in the family?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans: ( ? )
GENERAL AWARENESS :
51 Capital output ratio of a commodity measures
(a) Its per unit cost of production
(b) The amount of capital invested per unit of output
(c) The ratio of capital depreciation to quantity of output
(d) The ratio of working capital employed to quantity of output
Ans: ( d ) The ratio of working capital employed to
quantity of output
52. In estimating the budgetary deficit, the official
approach in India is to exclude
(a) Long term borrowings from the market
(b) Borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India
(c) Drawing down of the cash balance
(d) Borrowings from Reserve Bank in the form of ways and
means advance
Ans: ( d ) Borrowings from Reserve Bank in the form of ways
and means advance
53 In equilibrium, a perfectly competitive firm will equate
(a) Marginal social cost with marginal social benefit
(b) Market supply with market demand
(c) Marginal profit with marginal cost
(d) Marginal revenue with marginal cost
Ans: ( d ) Marginal revenue with marginal cost
54 The existence of a Parallel Economy or Black Money
(a) Makes the economy more competitive
(b) Makes the monetary policies less effective
(c) Ensures a better distribution of income and wealth
(d) Ensures increasing productive investment
Ans: ( b ) Makes the monetary policies less effective
55. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme ?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Rennin
(c) Insulin
(d) Amylopsin
Ans: ( c ) Insulin
56. The ?Theory of Evolution? was put forward by
(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Aristotle
(c) Gregor Mendel
(d) Charles Darwin
Ans: ( d ) Charles Darwin
57. Which combination of colours is the most convenient
during day and night time?
(a) Orange and blue
(b) White and black
(c) Yellow and blue
(d) Red and green
Ans: ( d ) Red and green
58. In a human body, the longest bone is in the
(a) Vertebral column
(b) Thigh
(c) Rib cage
(d) Arm
Ans: ( b ) Thigh
59. Where did the miniature Bani Thani paintings of Indian
heritage develop?
(a) Guler
(b) Mewar
(c) Bundi
(d) Kishengarh
Ans: ( d ) Kishengarh
60. Match the artists and their artforms :
Artists Artforms
(A) Ustad Allaud-din Khan (1) Bharat natyam
(B) Hema Malini (2) Sarod
(C) Birju Maharaj (3) Santoor
(D) Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma (4) Kathak dance
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (1) (3) (2) (4)
(b) (2) (4) (3) (1)
(c) (3) (2) (4) (1)
(d) (2) (1) (4) (3)
Ans: ( d ) (2) (1) (4) (3)
61. A training ship of the Indian Navy, controlled through
sails, left on a sixteen month goodwill mission around the
world in January 2003. which is that ship?
(a) INS Tarangini
(b) INS Garuda
(c) INS Tir
(d) INS Godavari
Ans: ( a ) INS Tarangini
62. The headquarters of UNESCO is in
(a) New York
(b) The Hague
(c) Paris
(d) Moscow
Ans: ( c ) Paris
63. Bronze is an alloy of
(a) Copper and Zinc
(b) Tin and Zinc
(c) Copper and Tin
(d) Iron and Zinc
Ans: ( c ) Copper and Tin
64. The natural source of hydrocarbon is
(a) Crude oil
(b) Biomass
(c) Coal
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans: ( a ) Crude oil
65. Which of the following is chiefly present in LPG
(Liquefied Petroleum Gas)?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane
Ans: ( a ) Methane
66. Which British Governor-General introduced Postage Stamp
in India?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Auckland
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Ans: ( a ) Lord Dalhousie
67. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was
opened in
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d) 1855
Ans: ( b ) 1853
68. The famous rock-cut temple of kailasa is at
(a) Ajanta
(b) Badami
(c) Mahabalipuram
(d) Ellora
Ans: ( d ) Badami
69. World Environment Day falls on
(a) June 5
(b) October 2
(c) November 10
(d) November 19
Ans: ( a ) June 5
70. The original name of Swami Dayananda Saraswati was
(a) Abhi Shankar
(b) Gowri Shankar
(c) Daya Shankar
(d) Mula Shankar
Ans: ( d ) Mula Shankar
71. An element which does not react with oxygen is
(a) Chlorine
(b) Iodine
(c) Helium
(d) Nitrogen
Ans: ( c ) Helium
72. The instrument that measures and records the relative
humadity of air is
(a) Hydrometer
(b) Hygrometer
(c) Lactometer
(d) Barometer
Ans: ( b ) Hygrometer
73. The shape of our milky way galaxy is
(a) Circular
(b) Elliptical
(c) Spiral
(d) None of the above
Ans: ( c ) Spiral
74. The different colours of different stars are due to the
variation of
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Density
(d) Radiation from them
Ans: ( a ) Temperature
75. Coastal Andhra Pradesh and Orissa often face natural
disasters due to
(a) Cyclones
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Landslides
(d) Tornadoes
Ans: ( a ) Cyclones
76. Sex ratio refers to the number of women
(a) Per sq. km. In relation to the males
(b) Per 1,000 males
(c) Per state in relation to the males
(d) And the number of men in an area
Ans: ( b ) Per 1,000 males
77. River Damodar is called ?Sorrow of Bengal? because it
(a) Gets flooded often causing havoc
(b) Causes maximum soil erosion
(c) Forms number of dangerous waterfalls
(d) Is not a perennial river
Ans: ( a ) Gets flooded often causing havoc
78. ?Radcliff line? is a boundary line between
(a) India and Bangladesh
(b) India and Bhutan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Pakistan
Ans: ( d ) India and Pakistan
79. From which constitution of the world, the Indian
Constitution has adopted the concept of ?Directive
Principles of State Policy? ?
(a) Ireland
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: ( a ) Ireland
80. Which of the following is not an administrative function
of a Village Panchayat?
(a) Providing sanitation and drainage
(b) Providing burial and cremation grounds
(c) Providing college education
(d) Maintenance of roads, tanks and wells
Ans: ( c ) Providing college education
81. The Swadeshi Movement was launched
(a) As a protest against the division of Bengal
(b) With a view to improve the economic condition of the
people by encouraging consumption of Indian goods
(c) As a protest against the massacre of Indian people at
Jallianwala Bagh
(d) Due to the failure of the British government to
introduce responsible Government in India
Ans: ( a ) As a protest against the division of Bengal
82. The concept of political sovereignty was advocated by
(a) Plato
(b) John Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Austin
Ans: ( c ) Rousseau
83. The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was
(a) Nargis Dutt
(b) Shabana Azmi
(c) Madhubala
(d) Meena Kumari
Ans: ( a ) Nargis Dutt
84. Which of the following groups suffers the most from high
inflation ?
(a) Debtors
(b) Creditors
(c) Business class
(d) Holders of real assets
Ans: ( b ) Creditors
85. An economy is in equilibrium when
(a) Planned consumption exceeds planned saving
(b) Planned consumption exceeds planned investment
(c) Intended investment equals intended saving
(d) Intended investment exceeds intended saving
Ans: ( c ) Intended investment equals intended saving
86. The best way in which a bank can avoid loss is to
(a) Lend only to individuals known to the bank
(b) Accept sound collateral
(c) Give only short-term loans
(d) Lend only to bank?s old customers
Ans: ( b ) Accept sound collateral
87. Which one of the following is left when an hydrogen atom
loses its electron?
(a) An alpha particle
(b) A neutron
(c) A proton
(d) A beta particle
Ans: ( c ) A proton
88. The fundamental scientific principle in the operation of
a battery is
(a) Acid-base interaction
(b) Dialysis
(c) Dissociation of electrolytes
(d) Oxidation-reduction
Ans: ( d ) Oxidation-reduction
89. ?Dykes? are especially constructed in
(a) Norway
(b) Holland
(c) France
(d) United Kingdom
Ans: ( b ) Holland
90. Colorado in U.S.A. is famous for which of the following
landforms?
(a) Grand Canyon
(b) Grand Craors
(c) Great Valleys
(d) Great Basins
Ans: ( a ) Grand Canyon
91. Daily weather changes in the atmosphere are associated with
(a) Troposphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Ionosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Ans: ( a ) Troposphere
92. Epigraphy means
(a) The study of coins
(b) The study of inscriptions
(c) The study of epics
(d) The study of geography
Ans: ( b ) The study of inscriptions
93. The 19th century reawakening in India was confined to the
(a) Priestly class
(b) Upper middle class
(c) Rich peasantry
(d) Urban landlords
Ans: ( b ) Upper middle class
94. Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British
Parliament ?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans: ( a ) Dadabhai Naoroji
95. Who introduced the permanent settlement in Bengal ?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Curzon
Ans: ( a ) Lord Cornwallis
96. Which one of the following metals is used to galvaniese iron
(a) Copper
(b) Lead
(c) Zinc
(d) Mercury
Ans: ( c ) Zinc
97. The Instrument used to measure the force and velocity of
the wind is
(a) Ammeter
(b) Anemometer
(c) Altimeter
(d) Audiometer
Ans: ( b ) Anemometer
98. To whom can a case of dispute in the election of the
President of India be referred to ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) Cabinet
Ans: ( c ) Supreme Court of India
99. Which company invented the transistor radio?
(a) Sony
(b) Texas Instuments
(c) Panasonic
(d) Telstra
Ans: ( b ) Texas Instuments
100. Which amidst the following rural banks has been named
after a river ?
(a) Prathama Bank
(b) Varada Grameen Bank
(c) Thar Anchalik Grameen Bank
(d) Aravali Kehetriya Grameen Bank
Ans: ( b ) Varada Grameen Bank
NUMERICAL ABILITY :
101. IF A - 1 B- 2 C - 3 ACDF+ EFC=
102. 12098+547890-9987=
103. 1/2+1/4+1/5=
104. 786543+99087/56=
105. z=1 a =26 c=?
106. The value of 52 + 62 + ???.. + 102 + 202
(a) 755
(b) 760
(c) 765
(d) 770
Ans: ( a ) 755
107. The sum of the first 8 terms of a geometric progression
is 6560 and the common ratio is 3. The first term is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: ( b ) 2
108. How many even three-digit numbers can be formed from
the digits 1, 2, 5, 6 and 9 without repeating any of the
digits ?
(a) 120
(b) 48
(c) 40
(d) 24
Ans: ( d ) 24
109. A and B, working separately, can do a piece of work in
10 and 15 days respectively. If they work on alternate days
beginning with A, then in how many days will the work be
completed?
(a) 18 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 12 days
(d) 6 days
Ans: ( c ) 12 days
110. Two pipes can fill a tank separately in 20 minutes and
30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened
simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in
(a) 10 minutes
(b) 12 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 25 minutes
Ans: ( b ) 12 minutes
111. A can complete a work in 6 days while B can complete
the same work in 12 days. If they work together and
complete it, then the portion of the work done by A is
(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
Ans: ( b ) 2/3
112. If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 50% and the
height is increased by 50% to form a new cylinder, then the
volume will be decreased by
(a) 0%
(b) 25%
(c) 62.5%
(d) 75%
Ans: ( c ) 62.5%
113. The circum-radius of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm.
The in-radius of the triangle is
(a) 3.25 cm
(b) 3.50 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 4.25 cm
Ans: ( c ) 4 cm
114. The missing term in the sequence 0, 3, 8, 15, 24,
?.., 48
(a) 35
(b) 30
(c) 36
(d) 39
Ans: ( a ) 35
115. If (1012 + 25)2 ? (1012 ? 25)2 = 10n, then the value of
n is
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) 5
Ans: ( b ) 14
116. The sum of first sixty numbers from one to sixty is
divisible by
(a) 13
(b) 59
(c) 60
(d) 61
Ans: ( d ) 61
117. A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to a
single discount of
(a) 50.0%
(b) 56.8%
(c) 60.2%
(d) 70.28%
Ans: ( b ) 56.8%
118. A sells a scooter priced at Rs. 36,000. He gives a
discount of 8% on the first Rs. 20,000 and 5% on the next
Rs. 10,000. How much discount can he afford on the
remaining Rs. 6,000 if he is to get as much s 7% discount on
the total ?
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 7%
(d) 8%
Ans: ( c ) 7%
119. The marked price of an electric iron is Rs. 690. The
shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% and gains 8%. If no
discount is allowed, then his gain percent would be
(a) 20%
(b) 24%
(c) 25%
(d) 28%
Ans: ( a ) 20%
120. The ratio of the ages of two boys is 5 : 6. After two
years the ratio will be 7 : 8. The ratio of their ages
after 10 years will be
(a) 15 : 16
(b) 17 : 18
(c) 11 : 12
(d) 22 : 24
Ans: ( a ) 15 : 16
121. The sum of three numbers is 116. The ratio of the
second to the third is 9 : 16 and of the first to the third
is 1 : 4. The second number is
(a) 30
(b) 32
(c) 34
(d) 36
Ans: ( b ) 32
122. Rs. 180 are to be divided among 66 persons (men and
women). The ratio of the total amount of money received by
men and women is 5 : 4. But the ratio of the money received
by each man and woman is 3 : 2. The number of men is
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 30
(d) 36
Ans: ( d ) 36
123. The average of a collection of 20 measurements was
calculated to be 56 cm. But later it was found that a
mistake had occurred in one of the measurements which was
recorded as 64 cm, but should have been 61 cm. The correct
average must be
(a) 53 cm
(b) 54.5 cm
(c) 55.85 cm
(d) 56.15 cm
Ans: ( c ) 55.85 cm
124. The average weight of 12 parcels is 1.8 kg. Addition
of another new parcel reduces the average weight by 50 g.
What is the weight of the new parcel?
(a) 1.50 kg
(b) 1.10 kg
(c) 1.15 kg
(d) 1.01 kg
Ans: ( c ) 1.15 kg
125. The average age of 20 boys in a class is 12 years. 5
new boys are admitted to the class whose average age is 7
years. The average age of the boys in the class becomes
(a) 8.2 years
(b) 9.5 years
(c) 12.5 years
(d) 11 years
Ans: ( d ) 11 years
126. If 3x+3 + 7 = 250, the x is equal to
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans: ( c ) 2
127. A die with faces numbered from 1 to 6 is thrown twice.
The probability, that the numbers shown up differ by 2, is
(a) 1/9
(b) 2/9
(c) 3/9
(d) 4/9
Ans: ( b ) 2/9
128. In the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 15, 20, 29, 40, 53,
one number is wrong. The wrong number is
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 29
(d) 40
Ans: ( a ) 15
129. 1 + 2 + 3 + ??. + 49 + 50 + 49 + 48 + ??. + 3 + 2 + 1
is equal to
(a) 1250
(b) 2500
(c) 2525
(d) 5000
Ans: ( b ) 2500
130. The surface area of a sphere is 64 cm2 its diameter is
equal to
(a) 16 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 2 cm
Ans: ( b ) 8 cm
131. Each of the height and base radius of a cone is
increased by 100%. The percentage increase in the volume of
the cone is
(a) 700%
(b) 400%
(c) 300%
(d) 100%
Ans: ( a ) 700%
132. A television and a refrigerator were sold for Rs.
12,000 each. If the television was sold at a loss of 20% of
the cost and the refrigerator at a gain of 20% of the cost,
then the entire transaction resulted in
(a) No loss or gain
(b) Loss of rs. 1,000
(c) Gain of rs. 1,000
(d) Loss of Rs. 1,200
Ans: ( b ) Loss of rs. 1,000
133. A person sells a table at a profit of 10%. If he had
bought the table at 5% less cost and sold for Rs. 80 more,
then he would have gained 20%. The cost price of the table is
(a) Rs. 3,200
(b) Rs. 2,500
(c) Rs. 2,000
(d) Rs. 200
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 2,000
134. By selling an article at 2/3 of the marked price, there
is a loss of 10%. The profit percent, when the article is
sold at the marked price, is
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 35%
(d) 40%
Ans: ( c ) 35%
135. A moving train, 66 metres long, overtakes another train
88 metres long, moving in the same direction in 0.168
minutes. If the second train is moving at 30 km/r, then at
what speed is the first train moving ?
(a) 85 km/hr
(b) 50 km/hr
(c) 55 km/hr
(d) 25 km/hr
Ans: ( a ) 85 km/hr
136. A man observed that a train 120 m long crossed him in 9
seconds. The speed (in km/hr) of the train was
(a) 42
(b) 45
(c) 48
(d) 55
Ans: ( c ) 48
137. A constable is 114 metres behind a thief. The
constable runs 21 metres and the thief 15 metres in a
minute. In what time will the constable catch the thief ?
(a) 19 minutes
(b) 18 minutes
(c) 17 minutes
(d) 16 minutes
Ans: ( a ) 19 minutes
138. Joseph?s salary is reduced by 10%. In order to have
his salary back to his original amount, it must be raised by
(a) 12.5%
(b) 11 1/9 %
(c) 10%
(d) 11%
Ans: ( b ) 11 1/9 %
139. How many positive integers less than 1000 are multiples
of 11 whose square roots are whole numbers ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 11
Ans: ( a ) 2
140. The digit in the unit?s place of the product (2137)754 is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 9
Ans: ( d ) 9
141. The smallest square number divisible by 10, 16 and 24 is
(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600
Ans: ( d ) 3600
142. If the compound interest on a sum of money for 3 years
at the rate of 5% per annum is Rs. 252.20, then the simple
interest on the same sum at the same rate and for the same
time is
(a) Rs. 220
(b) Rs. 240
(c) Rs. 245
(d) Rs. 250
Ans: ( b ) Rs. 240
143. On a certain sum of money, the compound interest for 2
years is Rs. 282.15 and the simple interest for the same
period of time is Rs. 270. The rate of interest per annum is
(a) 6.07%
(b) 10%
(c) 9%
(d) 12.15%
Ans: ( c ) 9%
144. What sum of money at compound interest will amount to
Rs. 650 at the end of the first year and Rs. 676 at the end
of the second year ?
(a) Rs. 600
(b) Rs. 600.25
(c) Rs. 625
(d) Rs. 625.25
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 625
145. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, B
and C together in 15 days and C and A together in 20 days.
In how many days, can A, B and C together do it ?
(a) 5 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 24 days
(d) 30 days
Ans: ( b ) 10 days
146. The measures of the angles of a triangle are in the
ratio 2 : 7 : 11. Measures of the angles are
(a) 160, 560, 880
(b) 180, 630, 990
(c) 200, 700, 900
(d) 250, 1750, 1050
Ans: ( b ) 180, 630, 990
147. The ratio of the cost price and the selling price of an
article is 5 : 6. What is the percentage of profit ?
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 12.5%
(d) 10%
Ans: ( a ) 20%
148. Which number is 40% less than 90 ?
(a) 36
(b) 54
(c) 50
(d) 60
Ans: ( b ) 54
149. (32)3 + (79)3 ? (111)3 + 3 x 32 x 79 x 111 is equal to
(a) 10000
(b) 0
(c) 30007
(d) 1
Ans: ( b ) 0
150. If the ratio of two numbers is 2 : 3 and their L.C.M.
is 54, then the sum of the two numbers is
(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 45
(d) 270
Ans: ( c ) 45
ENGLISH
related letters/ words/ numbers/figures from the given
alternatives.
1. Taste : Tongue : : Walk : ?
(a) Pavement
(b) Crutch
(c) Legs
(d) Walking stick
Ans: ( c ) Legs
2. CHIMNEY : SMOKE : : ______ : ______
(a) Gun : Bullet
(b) House : Roof
(c) Clay : Ceramic
(d) Tea : Kettle
Ans: ( a ) Gun : Bullet
3. DCHG : LIKQP : : FEJI : ?
(a) MLSR
(b) NMRQ
(c) ONTS
(d) QPUT
Ans: ( None )
4. CAD : FDG : : XZW : ?
(a) IQJ
(b) CAD
(c) ZBY
(d) UWT
Ans: ( d ) UWT
5. 5 : 124 : : 7 : ?
(a) 342
(b) 343
(c) 248
(d) 125
Ans: ( a ) 342
6. 3265 : 4376 : : 4673 : ?
(a) 2154
(b) 5487
(c) 3562
(d) 5784
Ans: ( d ) 5784
Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) : In these questions, select the
response which is different from the other three responses.
7. (a) Telephone
(b) Tape-Recorder
(c) Transistor
(d) Telescope
Ans: ( d ) Telescope
8. (a) Glue
(b) Oil
(c) Paste
(d) Cement
Ans: ( b ) Oil
9. (a) XZUS
(b) OQLJ
(c) HJFE
(d) FHCA
Ans: ( c ) HJFE
10. (a) KNPS
(b) RUWZ
(c) MPRU
(d) PRSU
Ans: ( d ) PRSU
11. (a) 26 ? 62
(b) 36 ? 63
(c) 46 ? 64
(d) 56 ? 18
Ans: ( d ) 56 ? 18
12. (a) 6958
(b) 7948
(c) 6895
(d) 9783
Ans: ( d ) 9783
Directions (Qs. 13) : In this question, which one set of
letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given
letter series shall complete it ?
13. m__nm__n__an__a__ma__
(a) amammn
(b) aammnn
(c) ammanm
(d) aamnan
Ans: ( b ) aammnn
Directions (Qs. 14 to 17) : In these questions, a series is
given with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
14. A, c, f, j, ?, ?
(a) ou
(b) mo
(c) lp
(d) rv
Ans: ( a ) ou
15. QYK, ?, ISG, EPE
(a) NWJ
(b) MVI
(c) NVI
(d) MVJ
Ans: ( b ) MVI
16. 10, 22, 46, 94 ?
(a) 180
(b) 184
(c) 190
(d) 140
Ans: ( c ) 190
17. 110, 132, 156, ?, 210
(a) 162
(b) 172
(c) 182
(d) 192
Ans: ( c ) 182
Directions (Qs. 18 to 22) : In these questions, which one of
the given responses would be a meaningful order of the
following words?
18. (1) Book (2) Words
(3) Letters (4) Sentences
(5) Chapters (6) Pages
(a) 3 2 6 5 4 1
(b) 3 2 5 4 6 1
(c) 3 2 4 5 6 1
(d) 3 2 4 6 5 1
Ans: ( d ) 3 2 4 6 5 1
19. (1) Probation (2) Interview
(3) Selection (4) Appointment
(5) Advertisement (6) Application
(a) 5 6 4 2 3 1
(b) 5 6 3 2 4 1
(c) 5 6 2 3 4 1
(d) 6 5 4 2 3 1
Ans: ( c ) 5 6 2 3 4 1
20. If E = 5, PEN = 35, then PAGE = ?
(a) 28
(b) 29
(c) 36
(d) 27
Ans: ( b ) 29
21. If he word ?PORTER? can be coded as ?MBNZQN?, then how
can ?REPORT? be written?
(a) NQMBNZ
(b) NQBMNZ
(c) NBQMNZ
(d) NQMNBZ
Ans: ( a ) NQMBNZ
22. In a certain code, the words ?COME AT ONCE? were
written as XLNVZGLMXV. In the same code which of the
following would be ?OK? ?
(a) LM
(b) LP
(c) KM
(d) KL
Ans: ( b ) LP
Directions (Qs. 23) : In this question, you have to identify
the correct response from the given premises stated
according to following symbols.
23. If ?+? means ?minus?, ?-? means ?multiplication?, ??
means ?plus? and ?x? means ?division, then
15 ? 3 + 10 x 5 5 =
(a) 52
(b) 48
(c) 22
(d) 5
Ans: ( b ) 48
Directions (Qs. 24 ) : In this question, find the missing
number from the given response.
24. 8 7 10 12
13 12 15 17
10 9 ? 14
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 21
(d) 25
Ans: ( a ) 12
Directions (Qs. 25) : From the given alternative words
select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word.
25. Given word : ADMINISTRATION
(a) STATION
(b) TRADITION
(c) MINISTER
(d) RATION
Ans: ( c ) MINISTER
Directions (Qs. 26) : A word given in Capital letters is
followed by four answer words. Out of these only one can be
formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out
that word.
26. IMMEDIATELY
(a) DIAMETER
(b) DICTATE
(c) LIMITED
(d) DIALECT
Ans: ( c ) LIMITED
27. Suresh starts from a point, walks 2 miles towards the
south, turns right and walks 1 ½ miles, turns left and walks
½ mile and then he turns back. What is the direction he is
facing now?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) South
(d) North
Ans: ( d ) North
28. Ashok wants to book a ticket to Madurai. He starts and
covers 5 km to reach the Booking Office which is in the East
of his house. From there he turns to the North towards the
market by traveling 3 km. From there he turns left to his
friend Sandeep?s house which is 5 km away. Now he has to
get back to his house. How many km he has to cover to reach
his house?
(a) 8 km
(b) 3 km
(c) 5 km
(d) 6 km
Ans: ( b ) 3 km
29. The age of X is 2/3rd that of Y. After 6 years, X will
be 46 years old. The present age of Y is
(a) 40 years
(b) 56 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 100 years
Ans: ( c ) 60 years
30. A is B?s brother, C is A?s mother, D is C?s father, E is
B?s son. How is D related to A ?
(a) Son
(b) Grandson
(c) Grandfather
(d) Great Grandfather
Ans: ( c ) Grandfather
31. In a store, 5 articles A, B, C, D and E are priced
differently. Value of ?C? is Rs. 100. ?A? is cheaper than
?C? but costlier than ?B?. ?E? is costlier than ?C? but
cheaper than ?D?. Which of the articles is the costliest ?
(a) D
(b) E
(c) B
(d) A
Ans: ( a ) D
32. Read The following information to answer this question :
(i) A B C D E F are six family members
(ii) There is one Doctor, one Lawyer, one Engineer, one
Pilot, one Student and one Housewife.
(iii) There are two married couples in the family.
(iv) F, who is a Lawyer, is the father of A.
(v) B is a Pilot and is mother of C.
(vi) D is grandmother of C and is a housewife.
(vii) E is father of F and is a Doctor.
(viii) C is brother of A.
How many female members are there in the family?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans: ( ? )
GENERAL AWARENESS :
51 Capital output ratio of a commodity measures
(a) Its per unit cost of production
(b) The amount of capital invested per unit of output
(c) The ratio of capital depreciation to quantity of output
(d) The ratio of working capital employed to quantity of output
Ans: ( d ) The ratio of working capital employed to
quantity of output
52. In estimating the budgetary deficit, the official
approach in India is to exclude
(a) Long term borrowings from the market
(b) Borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India
(c) Drawing down of the cash balance
(d) Borrowings from Reserve Bank in the form of ways and
means advance
Ans: ( d ) Borrowings from Reserve Bank in the form of ways
and means advance
53 In equilibrium, a perfectly competitive firm will equate
(a) Marginal social cost with marginal social benefit
(b) Market supply with market demand
(c) Marginal profit with marginal cost
(d) Marginal revenue with marginal cost
Ans: ( d ) Marginal revenue with marginal cost
54 The existence of a Parallel Economy or Black Money
(a) Makes the economy more competitive
(b) Makes the monetary policies less effective
(c) Ensures a better distribution of income and wealth
(d) Ensures increasing productive investment
Ans: ( b ) Makes the monetary policies less effective
55. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme ?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Rennin
(c) Insulin
(d) Amylopsin
Ans: ( c ) Insulin
56. The ?Theory of Evolution? was put forward by
(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Aristotle
(c) Gregor Mendel
(d) Charles Darwin
Ans: ( d ) Charles Darwin
57. Which combination of colours is the most convenient
during day and night time?
(a) Orange and blue
(b) White and black
(c) Yellow and blue
(d) Red and green
Ans: ( d ) Red and green
58. In a human body, the longest bone is in the
(a) Vertebral column
(b) Thigh
(c) Rib cage
(d) Arm
Ans: ( b ) Thigh
59. Where did the miniature Bani Thani paintings of Indian
heritage develop?
(a) Guler
(b) Mewar
(c) Bundi
(d) Kishengarh
Ans: ( d ) Kishengarh
60. Match the artists and their artforms :
Artists Artforms
(A) Ustad Allaud-din Khan (1) Bharat natyam
(B) Hema Malini (2) Sarod
(C) Birju Maharaj (3) Santoor
(D) Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma (4) Kathak dance
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (1) (3) (2) (4)
(b) (2) (4) (3) (1)
(c) (3) (2) (4) (1)
(d) (2) (1) (4) (3)
Ans: ( d ) (2) (1) (4) (3)
61. A training ship of the Indian Navy, controlled through
sails, left on a sixteen month goodwill mission around the
world in January 2003. which is that ship?
(a) INS Tarangini
(b) INS Garuda
(c) INS Tir
(d) INS Godavari
Ans: ( a ) INS Tarangini
62. The headquarters of UNESCO is in
(a) New York
(b) The Hague
(c) Paris
(d) Moscow
Ans: ( c ) Paris
63. Bronze is an alloy of
(a) Copper and Zinc
(b) Tin and Zinc
(c) Copper and Tin
(d) Iron and Zinc
Ans: ( c ) Copper and Tin
64. The natural source of hydrocarbon is
(a) Crude oil
(b) Biomass
(c) Coal
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans: ( a ) Crude oil
65. Which of the following is chiefly present in LPG
(Liquefied Petroleum Gas)?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane
Ans: ( a ) Methane
66. Which British Governor-General introduced Postage Stamp
in India?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Auckland
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Ans: ( a ) Lord Dalhousie
67. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was
opened in
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d) 1855
Ans: ( b ) 1853
68. The famous rock-cut temple of kailasa is at
(a) Ajanta
(b) Badami
(c) Mahabalipuram
(d) Ellora
Ans: ( d ) Badami
69. World Environment Day falls on
(a) June 5
(b) October 2
(c) November 10
(d) November 19
Ans: ( a ) June 5
70. The original name of Swami Dayananda Saraswati was
(a) Abhi Shankar
(b) Gowri Shankar
(c) Daya Shankar
(d) Mula Shankar
Ans: ( d ) Mula Shankar
71. An element which does not react with oxygen is
(a) Chlorine
(b) Iodine
(c) Helium
(d) Nitrogen
Ans: ( c ) Helium
72. The instrument that measures and records the relative
humadity of air is
(a) Hydrometer
(b) Hygrometer
(c) Lactometer
(d) Barometer
Ans: ( b ) Hygrometer
73. The shape of our milky way galaxy is
(a) Circular
(b) Elliptical
(c) Spiral
(d) None of the above
Ans: ( c ) Spiral
74. The different colours of different stars are due to the
variation of
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Density
(d) Radiation from them
Ans: ( a ) Temperature
75. Coastal Andhra Pradesh and Orissa often face natural
disasters due to
(a) Cyclones
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Landslides
(d) Tornadoes
Ans: ( a ) Cyclones
76. Sex ratio refers to the number of women
(a) Per sq. km. In relation to the males
(b) Per 1,000 males
(c) Per state in relation to the males
(d) And the number of men in an area
Ans: ( b ) Per 1,000 males
77. River Damodar is called ?Sorrow of Bengal? because it
(a) Gets flooded often causing havoc
(b) Causes maximum soil erosion
(c) Forms number of dangerous waterfalls
(d) Is not a perennial river
Ans: ( a ) Gets flooded often causing havoc
78. ?Radcliff line? is a boundary line between
(a) India and Bangladesh
(b) India and Bhutan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Pakistan
Ans: ( d ) India and Pakistan
79. From which constitution of the world, the Indian
Constitution has adopted the concept of ?Directive
Principles of State Policy? ?
(a) Ireland
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: ( a ) Ireland
80. Which of the following is not an administrative function
of a Village Panchayat?
(a) Providing sanitation and drainage
(b) Providing burial and cremation grounds
(c) Providing college education
(d) Maintenance of roads, tanks and wells
Ans: ( c ) Providing college education
81. The Swadeshi Movement was launched
(a) As a protest against the division of Bengal
(b) With a view to improve the economic condition of the
people by encouraging consumption of Indian goods
(c) As a protest against the massacre of Indian people at
Jallianwala Bagh
(d) Due to the failure of the British government to
introduce responsible Government in India
Ans: ( a ) As a protest against the division of Bengal
82. The concept of political sovereignty was advocated by
(a) Plato
(b) John Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Austin
Ans: ( c ) Rousseau
83. The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was
(a) Nargis Dutt
(b) Shabana Azmi
(c) Madhubala
(d) Meena Kumari
Ans: ( a ) Nargis Dutt
84. Which of the following groups suffers the most from high
inflation ?
(a) Debtors
(b) Creditors
(c) Business class
(d) Holders of real assets
Ans: ( b ) Creditors
85. An economy is in equilibrium when
(a) Planned consumption exceeds planned saving
(b) Planned consumption exceeds planned investment
(c) Intended investment equals intended saving
(d) Intended investment exceeds intended saving
Ans: ( c ) Intended investment equals intended saving
86. The best way in which a bank can avoid loss is to
(a) Lend only to individuals known to the bank
(b) Accept sound collateral
(c) Give only short-term loans
(d) Lend only to bank?s old customers
Ans: ( b ) Accept sound collateral
87. Which one of the following is left when an hydrogen atom
loses its electron?
(a) An alpha particle
(b) A neutron
(c) A proton
(d) A beta particle
Ans: ( c ) A proton
88. The fundamental scientific principle in the operation of
a battery is
(a) Acid-base interaction
(b) Dialysis
(c) Dissociation of electrolytes
(d) Oxidation-reduction
Ans: ( d ) Oxidation-reduction
89. ?Dykes? are especially constructed in
(a) Norway
(b) Holland
(c) France
(d) United Kingdom
Ans: ( b ) Holland
90. Colorado in U.S.A. is famous for which of the following
landforms?
(a) Grand Canyon
(b) Grand Craors
(c) Great Valleys
(d) Great Basins
Ans: ( a ) Grand Canyon
91. Daily weather changes in the atmosphere are associated with
(a) Troposphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Ionosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Ans: ( a ) Troposphere
92. Epigraphy means
(a) The study of coins
(b) The study of inscriptions
(c) The study of epics
(d) The study of geography
Ans: ( b ) The study of inscriptions
93. The 19th century reawakening in India was confined to the
(a) Priestly class
(b) Upper middle class
(c) Rich peasantry
(d) Urban landlords
Ans: ( b ) Upper middle class
94. Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British
Parliament ?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans: ( a ) Dadabhai Naoroji
95. Who introduced the permanent settlement in Bengal ?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Curzon
Ans: ( a ) Lord Cornwallis
96. Which one of the following metals is used to galvaniese iron
(a) Copper
(b) Lead
(c) Zinc
(d) Mercury
Ans: ( c ) Zinc
97. The Instrument used to measure the force and velocity of
the wind is
(a) Ammeter
(b) Anemometer
(c) Altimeter
(d) Audiometer
Ans: ( b ) Anemometer
98. To whom can a case of dispute in the election of the
President of India be referred to ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) Cabinet
Ans: ( c ) Supreme Court of India
99. Which company invented the transistor radio?
(a) Sony
(b) Texas Instuments
(c) Panasonic
(d) Telstra
Ans: ( b ) Texas Instuments
100. Which amidst the following rural banks has been named
after a river ?
(a) Prathama Bank
(b) Varada Grameen Bank
(c) Thar Anchalik Grameen Bank
(d) Aravali Kehetriya Grameen Bank
Ans: ( b ) Varada Grameen Bank
NUMERICAL ABILITY :
101. IF A - 1 B- 2 C - 3 ACDF+ EFC=
102. 12098+547890-9987=
103. 1/2+1/4+1/5=
104. 786543+99087/56=
105. z=1 a =26 c=?
106. The value of 52 + 62 + ???.. + 102 + 202
(a) 755
(b) 760
(c) 765
(d) 770
Ans: ( a ) 755
107. The sum of the first 8 terms of a geometric progression
is 6560 and the common ratio is 3. The first term is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: ( b ) 2
108. How many even three-digit numbers can be formed from
the digits 1, 2, 5, 6 and 9 without repeating any of the
digits ?
(a) 120
(b) 48
(c) 40
(d) 24
Ans: ( d ) 24
109. A and B, working separately, can do a piece of work in
10 and 15 days respectively. If they work on alternate days
beginning with A, then in how many days will the work be
completed?
(a) 18 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 12 days
(d) 6 days
Ans: ( c ) 12 days
110. Two pipes can fill a tank separately in 20 minutes and
30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened
simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in
(a) 10 minutes
(b) 12 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 25 minutes
Ans: ( b ) 12 minutes
111. A can complete a work in 6 days while B can complete
the same work in 12 days. If they work together and
complete it, then the portion of the work done by A is
(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
Ans: ( b ) 2/3
112. If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 50% and the
height is increased by 50% to form a new cylinder, then the
volume will be decreased by
(a) 0%
(b) 25%
(c) 62.5%
(d) 75%
Ans: ( c ) 62.5%
113. The circum-radius of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm.
The in-radius of the triangle is
(a) 3.25 cm
(b) 3.50 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 4.25 cm
Ans: ( c ) 4 cm
114. The missing term in the sequence 0, 3, 8, 15, 24,
?.., 48
(a) 35
(b) 30
(c) 36
(d) 39
Ans: ( a ) 35
115. If (1012 + 25)2 ? (1012 ? 25)2 = 10n, then the value of
n is
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) 5
Ans: ( b ) 14
116. The sum of first sixty numbers from one to sixty is
divisible by
(a) 13
(b) 59
(c) 60
(d) 61
Ans: ( d ) 61
117. A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to a
single discount of
(a) 50.0%
(b) 56.8%
(c) 60.2%
(d) 70.28%
Ans: ( b ) 56.8%
118. A sells a scooter priced at Rs. 36,000. He gives a
discount of 8% on the first Rs. 20,000 and 5% on the next
Rs. 10,000. How much discount can he afford on the
remaining Rs. 6,000 if he is to get as much s 7% discount on
the total ?
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 7%
(d) 8%
Ans: ( c ) 7%
119. The marked price of an electric iron is Rs. 690. The
shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% and gains 8%. If no
discount is allowed, then his gain percent would be
(a) 20%
(b) 24%
(c) 25%
(d) 28%
Ans: ( a ) 20%
120. The ratio of the ages of two boys is 5 : 6. After two
years the ratio will be 7 : 8. The ratio of their ages
after 10 years will be
(a) 15 : 16
(b) 17 : 18
(c) 11 : 12
(d) 22 : 24
Ans: ( a ) 15 : 16
121. The sum of three numbers is 116. The ratio of the
second to the third is 9 : 16 and of the first to the third
is 1 : 4. The second number is
(a) 30
(b) 32
(c) 34
(d) 36
Ans: ( b ) 32
122. Rs. 180 are to be divided among 66 persons (men and
women). The ratio of the total amount of money received by
men and women is 5 : 4. But the ratio of the money received
by each man and woman is 3 : 2. The number of men is
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 30
(d) 36
Ans: ( d ) 36
123. The average of a collection of 20 measurements was
calculated to be 56 cm. But later it was found that a
mistake had occurred in one of the measurements which was
recorded as 64 cm, but should have been 61 cm. The correct
average must be
(a) 53 cm
(b) 54.5 cm
(c) 55.85 cm
(d) 56.15 cm
Ans: ( c ) 55.85 cm
124. The average weight of 12 parcels is 1.8 kg. Addition
of another new parcel reduces the average weight by 50 g.
What is the weight of the new parcel?
(a) 1.50 kg
(b) 1.10 kg
(c) 1.15 kg
(d) 1.01 kg
Ans: ( c ) 1.15 kg
125. The average age of 20 boys in a class is 12 years. 5
new boys are admitted to the class whose average age is 7
years. The average age of the boys in the class becomes
(a) 8.2 years
(b) 9.5 years
(c) 12.5 years
(d) 11 years
Ans: ( d ) 11 years
126. If 3x+3 + 7 = 250, the x is equal to
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans: ( c ) 2
127. A die with faces numbered from 1 to 6 is thrown twice.
The probability, that the numbers shown up differ by 2, is
(a) 1/9
(b) 2/9
(c) 3/9
(d) 4/9
Ans: ( b ) 2/9
128. In the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 15, 20, 29, 40, 53,
one number is wrong. The wrong number is
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 29
(d) 40
Ans: ( a ) 15
129. 1 + 2 + 3 + ??. + 49 + 50 + 49 + 48 + ??. + 3 + 2 + 1
is equal to
(a) 1250
(b) 2500
(c) 2525
(d) 5000
Ans: ( b ) 2500
130. The surface area of a sphere is 64 cm2 its diameter is
equal to
(a) 16 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 2 cm
Ans: ( b ) 8 cm
131. Each of the height and base radius of a cone is
increased by 100%. The percentage increase in the volume of
the cone is
(a) 700%
(b) 400%
(c) 300%
(d) 100%
Ans: ( a ) 700%
132. A television and a refrigerator were sold for Rs.
12,000 each. If the television was sold at a loss of 20% of
the cost and the refrigerator at a gain of 20% of the cost,
then the entire transaction resulted in
(a) No loss or gain
(b) Loss of rs. 1,000
(c) Gain of rs. 1,000
(d) Loss of Rs. 1,200
Ans: ( b ) Loss of rs. 1,000
133. A person sells a table at a profit of 10%. If he had
bought the table at 5% less cost and sold for Rs. 80 more,
then he would have gained 20%. The cost price of the table is
(a) Rs. 3,200
(b) Rs. 2,500
(c) Rs. 2,000
(d) Rs. 200
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 2,000
134. By selling an article at 2/3 of the marked price, there
is a loss of 10%. The profit percent, when the article is
sold at the marked price, is
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 35%
(d) 40%
Ans: ( c ) 35%
135. A moving train, 66 metres long, overtakes another train
88 metres long, moving in the same direction in 0.168
minutes. If the second train is moving at 30 km/r, then at
what speed is the first train moving ?
(a) 85 km/hr
(b) 50 km/hr
(c) 55 km/hr
(d) 25 km/hr
Ans: ( a ) 85 km/hr
136. A man observed that a train 120 m long crossed him in 9
seconds. The speed (in km/hr) of the train was
(a) 42
(b) 45
(c) 48
(d) 55
Ans: ( c ) 48
137. A constable is 114 metres behind a thief. The
constable runs 21 metres and the thief 15 metres in a
minute. In what time will the constable catch the thief ?
(a) 19 minutes
(b) 18 minutes
(c) 17 minutes
(d) 16 minutes
Ans: ( a ) 19 minutes
138. Joseph?s salary is reduced by 10%. In order to have
his salary back to his original amount, it must be raised by
(a) 12.5%
(b) 11 1/9 %
(c) 10%
(d) 11%
Ans: ( b ) 11 1/9 %
139. How many positive integers less than 1000 are multiples
of 11 whose square roots are whole numbers ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 11
Ans: ( a ) 2
140. The digit in the unit?s place of the product (2137)754 is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 9
Ans: ( d ) 9
141. The smallest square number divisible by 10, 16 and 24 is
(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600
Ans: ( d ) 3600
142. If the compound interest on a sum of money for 3 years
at the rate of 5% per annum is Rs. 252.20, then the simple
interest on the same sum at the same rate and for the same
time is
(a) Rs. 220
(b) Rs. 240
(c) Rs. 245
(d) Rs. 250
Ans: ( b ) Rs. 240
143. On a certain sum of money, the compound interest for 2
years is Rs. 282.15 and the simple interest for the same
period of time is Rs. 270. The rate of interest per annum is
(a) 6.07%
(b) 10%
(c) 9%
(d) 12.15%
Ans: ( c ) 9%
144. What sum of money at compound interest will amount to
Rs. 650 at the end of the first year and Rs. 676 at the end
of the second year ?
(a) Rs. 600
(b) Rs. 600.25
(c) Rs. 625
(d) Rs. 625.25
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 625
145. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, B
and C together in 15 days and C and A together in 20 days.
In how many days, can A, B and C together do it ?
(a) 5 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 24 days
(d) 30 days
Ans: ( b ) 10 days
146. The measures of the angles of a triangle are in the
ratio 2 : 7 : 11. Measures of the angles are
(a) 160, 560, 880
(b) 180, 630, 990
(c) 200, 700, 900
(d) 250, 1750, 1050
Ans: ( b ) 180, 630, 990
147. The ratio of the cost price and the selling price of an
article is 5 : 6. What is the percentage of profit ?
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 12.5%
(d) 10%
Ans: ( a ) 20%
148. Which number is 40% less than 90 ?
(a) 36
(b) 54
(c) 50
(d) 60
Ans: ( b ) 54
149. (32)3 + (79)3 ? (111)3 + 3 x 32 x 79 x 111 is equal to
(a) 10000
(b) 0
(c) 30007
(d) 1
Ans: ( b ) 0
150. If the ratio of two numbers is 2 : 3 and their L.C.M.
is 54, then the sum of the two numbers is
(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 45
(d) 270
Ans: ( c ) 45
ENGLISH
PART-I :: ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Qs. 1?15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. The wise old Wazir was Famous for his judgement and people came to him for justice from all parts of the country. One-day two men came to his court and claimed ownership of an extraordinarily good-looking horse. It was a black beauty indeed. One of the men was tall, very well dressed and soft-spoken. The other one was just the opposite. Each of them said that the horse was his. The Wazir heard them patiently and asked them to leave the horse and come to him next morning. Both the men came the next morning. The Wazir asked his soldiers to give the horse to the tall man and to arrest the other man. The tall man wanted to know how the Wazir had learnt the truth. ?Very simple?, said he, ?Firstly, a man of your appearance and manners could not have been the thief. Still, I wanted to be sure, just after you had left the court. I asked one of my soldiers to leave the horse free and to see whom it followed. It went after you. This hint was enough for me.? 1. Which of the following best describes the other man? (A) Ill-dressed, short-statured, loud-voice (B) Tall, ill-dressed, courteous (C) Not well-dressed, short but good mannered (D) Thin, poorly-built, harsh in expression Ans: ( A ) Ill-dressed, short-statured, loud-voice 2. The Wazir discovered the real owner of the horse--- (A) by arresting the other man (B) from the appearance and good manners of the tall man (C) by knowing whom the horse followed (D) by leaving the horse free Ans: ( C ) by knowing whom the horse followed 3. With the Wazir?s wisdom, the tall man was-- (A) consoled (B) impressed (C) undecided (D) confused Ans: ( B ) impressed 4. People came to the Wazir from all places because he was --- (A) a wise judge (B) very famous (C) an old judge (D) an old Wazir Ans: ( A ) a wise judge 5. The story proves that --- (A) the court soldiers were very smart (B) the judge was quite old (C) the horse was very clever (D) the judge was indeed quite intelligent Ans: ( D ) the judge was indeed quite intelligent Directions (Qs. 6?10) : Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/group of words as printed in bold as used in the passage? 6. Claimed (A) Demanded as a right (B) Promised (C) Declared (D) Possessed Ans: ( A ) Demanded as a right 7. Followed (A) Pursued (B) Owned (C) Went after (D) Interrupted Ans: ( C ) Went after 8. Hint (A) Advice (B) Clue (C) Truth (D) Nod Ans: ( B ) Clue 9. Patiently (A) Politely (B) Willingly (C) Sufficiently (D) Calmly Ans: ( D ) Calmly 10. Still (A) However (B) Calm (C) Quiet (D) Though Ans: ( A ) However Directions (Qs. 11?15) : Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage ? 11. Extraordinarily (A) Exceptionally (B) Unusually (C) Exactly (D) Plainly Ans: ( D ) Plainly 12. Sure (A) Promising (B) Definite (C) Unfaithful (D) Uncertain Ans: ( B ) Definite 13. Famous (A) Gentle (B) Notorious (C) Easily known (D) Widely known Ans: ( B ) Notorious 14. Arrest (A) Trap (B) Imprison (C) Catch attention (D) Release Ans: ( D ) Release 15. Enough (A) Inadequate (B) Sufficient (C) Understandable (D) Scarce Ans: ( D ) Scarce Directions (Qs. 16?25) : There is a mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out the part in which the mistake occurs. 16. (A) The travel / (B) across the sandy desert / (C) was an exhausting one / (D) for the caravan. Ans: ( A ) 17. (A) No sooner did / (B) he announce the / (C) tour the children / (D) screamed with great joy. Ans: ( C ) 18. (A) His only / (B) frame to claim is that / (C) he is the son of / (D) a rich man. Ans: ( B ) 19. (A) It did not / (B) take me very long / (C) to size up my / (D) fellow interviewees. Ans: ( C ) 20. (A) I am pleased to sanction / (B) one special increment / (C) to all the employees / (D) with this month. Ans: ( D ) 21. (A) I will put on / (B) a note in this regard / (C) for your consideration / (D) and necessary decision. Ans: ( A ) 22. (A) If the teacher / (B) is good the students / (C) will respond / (D) positively to them. Ans: ( D ) 23. (A) Rajesh has collected / (B) all the necessary documents / (C) and have written a good paper / (D) for his conference. Ans: ( C ) 24. (A) The old chap / (B) who lives in the little / (C) hut on the beach / (D) seems to be a real odd bird. Ans: ( D ) 25. (A) I have been racking / (B) my brain all the days to remember / (C) the name of the agency / (D) that Sheila recommended. Ans: ( B ) Directions (Qs. 26?35) : Give one word for each of the following utterances : 26. A person who does not believe in any religion-- (A) Philatelist (B) Rationaslist (C) Atheist (D) Pagan Ans: ( D ) Pagan 27. A post without remuneration-- (A) Voluntary (B) Sinecure (C) Honorary (D) Involuntary Ans: ( C ) Honorary 28. A person who rules without consulting the opinion of others-- (A) Democrat (B) Bureaucrat (C) Autocrat (D) Fanatic Ans: ( C ) Autocrat 29. Through which light cannot pass-- (A) Dull (B) Dark (C) Obscure (D) Opaque Ans: ( D ) Opaque 30. A person who brings goods illegally into the country-- (A) Exporter (B) Importer (C) Smuggler (D) Imposter Ans: ( C ) Smuggler 31. A person who has just started learning-- (A) Foreman (B) Accomplice (C) Novice (D) Apprentice Ans: ( C ) Novice 32. A person interested in reading books and nothing else-- (A) Student (B) Book worm (C) Scholar (D) Book keeper Ans: ( B ) Book worm 33. One who resides in a country of which he is not citizen-- (A) Alien (B) Native (C) Foreigner (D) Prodigal Ans: ( A ) Alien 34. Anything which destroys the effect of poison-- (A) Serum (B) Antiseptic (C) Seramycin (D) Antidote Ans: ( D ) Antidote 35. A cure for all diseases-- (A) Excorcism (B) Incantation (C) Panacca (D) Antibiotic Ans: ( C ) Panacca Directions (Qs. 36?40) : In the following items there is a word odd in one respect or another from the rest. Identify such words. 36. (A) Goal (B) Guile (C) Gall (D) Whole Ans: ( D ) Whole 37. (A) Whole (B) Full (C) Fool (D) Complete Ans: ( C ) Fool 38. (A) On (B) Upon (C) Than (D) Over Ans: ( C ) Than 39. (A) Bring (B) Going (C) Coming (D) Rinning Ans: ( A ) Bring 40. (A) A (B) An (C) The (D) That Ans: ( D ) That Directions (Qs. 41?45) : In each question below four words are given. One of which is correctly spelt. Choose the word with correct spelling. 41. (A) Disguise (B) Desguise (C) Disguese (D) Disgiuse Ans: ( A ) Disguise 42. (A) Buccaner (B) Buccanner (C) Bucaneer (D) Buccaneer Ans: ( D ) Buccaneer 43. (A) Experence (B) Experince (C) Experience (D) Exparience Ans: ( C ) Experience 44. (A) Pionear (B) Pioneer (C) Pyoneer (D) Pienear Ans: ( B ) Pioneer 45. (A) Achievement (B) Achievment (C) Acheivement (D) Achivement Ans: ( A ) Achievement Directions (Qs. 46?55) : In each of the following passages, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each. Some words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. PASSAGE : We will be crushed if civil ?(46)? is started. It will be ?(47)? to the clock. The technique of ?(48)? against it has been ?(49)? We may have to wait ?(50)? a year or more for a suitable ?(51)? to be created. Any hasty ?(52)? may result in complete ?(53)? Labour troubles will ?(54)? to violence and there will be ?(55)? discord. 46. (A) riot (B) disturbance (C) war (D) disobedience Ans: ( D ) disobedience 47. (A) damage (B) reversal (C) setback (D) rewinding Ans: ( C ) setback 48. (A) defence (B) protection (C) fighting (D) guarding Ans: ( C ) fighting 49. (A) learnt (B) practised (C) rehearsed (D) perfected Ans: ( D ) perfected 50. (A) at least (B) minimum (C) for (D) approximately Ans: ( A ) at least
C.P.O SPECIAL EXAM MODEL SET PAPER ENGLISH PAPER II
Directions : In questions 1 to 10, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of (A) or (B) or (C) of a sentence has an error. If there is no error, mark you answer as (D). 1. I have (A) / invited (B) / to dinner (C) / No error (D) Ans: ( b ) 2. A block of residential flats (A) / are coming up (B) / near our house (C) / No error (D) Ans: ( b ) 3. The test will not need (A) / more than one and half (B) / to finish. (C) / No error. (D) Ans: ( b ) 4. Will you be (A) / at Board meeting (B) / on next Wednesday. (C) / No error. (D) Ans: ( c ) 5. He is writing (A) / for the (B) / past four hours. (C) / No error. (D) Ans: ( a ) 6. He was in such hurry (A) / that he did not (B) / win the prize. (C) / No error. (D) Ans: ( a ) 7. He was sure (A) / that he should (B) / win the prize. (C) / No error (D) Ans: ( b ) 8. Had I (A) / know it earlier (B) / I would have contacted you. (C) / No error. (D) Ans: ( b ) 9. I am thinking (A) / to go to Agra (B) / for my cousin?s marriage. (C) / No error. (D) Ans: ( b ) 10. You must (A) / remember me (B) / to post this letter. (C) / No error. (D) Ans: ( b ) Directions : In questions 11 to 20, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it. 11. My father ____________ down for a nap. (a) Lay (b) Laid (c) Lain (d) Lie Ans: ( a ) Lay 12. The time he noticed his mistake, he put _______ the light and slept. (a) Up (b) Down (c) In (d) Out Ans: ( d ) Out 13. I am sure that neither the house nor its contents _______ for sale. (a) Is (b) Are (c) Have been (d) Were Ans: ( a ) Is 14. West Bengal ______ plentiful rainfall and is consequently a very green part of the country. (a) Misses (b) Receives (c) Expects (d) Regrets Ans: ( b ) Receives 15. If you work beyond your capacity, you will naturally feel _______ (a) Drowsy (b) Tired (c) Confident (d) Giddy Ans: ( b ) Tired 16. I have read one novel by Premchand. I want to read ______ novel by him. (a) Other (b) Another (c) All (d) Few Ans: ( b ) Another 17. The man came in a van to _____ the television set. (a) Mend (b) Reform (c) Correct (d) Alter Ans: ( d ) Alter 18. He was accused _____ stealing his aunt?s necklace. (a) For (b) With (c) Of (d) On Ans: ( c ) Of 19. Indeed, all over the world, more and more people are ______ coffee. (a) Wanting (b) Drinking (c) Liking (d) Partaking Ans: ( b ) Drinking 20. The park _______ as far as the river. (a) extends (b) advances (c) enlarges (d) emerges Ans: ( a ) extends Directions: In question 21 to 30, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 21. FAMILIAR (a) Unpleasant (b) Dangerous (c) Friendly (d) Strange Ans: ( d ) Strange 22. PRELIMINARY (a) Final (b) First (c) Secondary (d) Initial Ans: ( a ) Final 23. DOUBTFUL (a) Famous (b) Certain (c) Fixed (d) Important Ans: ( b ) Certain 24. ENMITY (a) Important (b) Unnecessary (c) Friendship (d) Likeness Ans: ( c ) Friendship 25. SHRINK (a) Contract (b) Spoil (c) Expand (d) Stretch Ans: ( c ) Expand 26. CROWDED (a) Busy (b) Congested (c) Quiet (d) Deserted Ans: ( d ) Deserted 27. EXTRAVAGANCE (a) Luxury (b) Poverty (c) Economy (d) Cheapness Ans: ( c ) Economy 28. REVEALED (a) Denied (b) Concealed (c) Ignored (d) Overlooked Ans: ( b ) Concealed 29. GRACEFUL (a) Rough (b) Expert (c) Miserable (d) Awkward Ans: ( d ) Awkward 30. AWARE (a) Uncertain (b) Ignorant (c) Sure (d) Doubtful Ans: ( b ) Ignorant Directions : In questions 31 to 40, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 31. CORRESPONDENCE (a) Agreements (b) Contracts (c) Documents (d) Letters Ans: ( d ) Letters 32. VENUE (a) Place (b) Agenda (c) Time (d) Duration Ans: ( a ) Place 33. DISTANT (a) Far (b) Removed (c) Reserved (d) Separate Ans: ( a ) Far 34. DILIGENT (a) Progressive (b) Brilliant (c) Inventive (d) Hard-working Ans: ( d ) Hard-working 35. SHIVER (a) Shake (b) Rock (c) Tremble (d) Move Ans: ( c ) Tremble 36. CONSEQUENCES (a) Results (b) Conclusions (c) Difficulties (d) Applications Ans: ( a ) Results 37. ABUNDANT (a) Ripe (b) Cheap (c) Plenty (d) Absent Ans: ( c ) Plenty 38. BRIEF (a) Limited (b) Small (c) Little (d) Short Ans: ( d ) Short 39. CANDID (a) Apparent (b) Explicit (c) Frank (d) Bright Ans: ( c ) Frank 40. VIGOUR (a) Strength (b) Boldness (c) Warmth (d) Enthusiasm Ans: ( a ) Strength Directions : In Questions 41 to 50, four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase in underlined in the sentence. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. 41. Don?t lose patience, things will improve by and by. (a) soon (b) finally (c) gradually (d) unexpectedly Ans: ( c ) gradually 42. When the heard that he had once again not been selected he lost heart. (a) became desperate (b) felt sad (c) became angry (d) became discouraged Ans: ( d ) 43. I felt like a fish out of water among all those business tycoons. (a) troubled (b) stupid (c) uncomfortable (d) inferior Ans: ( c ) uncomfortable 44. Turban is in vogue in some communities. (a) in fashion (b) out of use (c) vaguely used (d) never used Ans: ( a ) in fashion 45. The PM has pulled up Orissa partymen. (a) elevated (b) rewarded (c) punished (d) reprimanded Ans: ( d ) reprimanded 46. His plan was so complicated that it floored his listeners. (a) entertained (b) puzzled (c) annoyed (d) encouraged Ans: ( b ) puzzled 47. The prince did not take after the king. (a) Run after (b) follow (c) precede (d) resemble Ans: ( d ) resemble 48. I requested him to put in a word for me. (a) introduce (b) assist (c) support (d) recommend Ans: ( d ) recommend 49. The curious neighbours were disappointed as the young couple?s quarrel was just a shorm in a tea cup. (a) violent quarrel (b) fuss about a trifle (c) brittle situation (d) quarrel about tea cups Ans: ( b ) fuss about a trifle 50. His friends let him down. (a) failed (b) comforted (c) succeeded (d) stood by Ans: ( a ) failed Directions : In questions 51 to 60, groups of four words are given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word. 51. (a) Deploy (b) Emply (c) Supply (d) Reply Ans: ( b ) Emply 52. (a) Leisure (b) Nuisance (c) Opineon (d) Mystery Ans: ( c ) Opineon 53. (a) Dismiss (b) Dispel (c) Disservice (d) Discribe Ans: ( d ) Discribe 54. (a) Grammer (b) Hammer (c) Manner (d) Stammer Ans: ( a ) Grammer 55. (a) Choclate (b) Woollen (c) Parliament (d) Biscuit Ans: ( a ) Choclate 56. (a) Differed (b) Suffered (c) Offered (d) Reffered Ans: ( d ) Reffered 57. (a) Passion (b) Fashion (c) Ration (d) Tution Ans: ( d ) Tution 58. (a) Formulate (b) Formidable (c) Forman (d) Format Ans: ( c ) Forman 59. (a) Collision (b) Superstition (c) Conversation (d) Humilation Ans: ( d ) Humilation 60. (a) Refuse (b) Repute (c) Despute (d) Confuse Ans: ( c ) Despute Directions : In questions 61 to 65, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. 61. That which cannot be corrected (a) Unintelligible (b) Indelible (c) Illegible (d) Inconigible Ans: ( d ) Inconigible 62. A child born after the death of its father (a) Posthumous (b) Orphan (c) Bastard (d) Progenitor Ans: ( a ) Posthumous 63. Something that can be heard (a) Auditory (b) Audio-visual (c) Audible (d) Audition Ans: ( c ) Audible 64. The absence of law and order (a) Rebellion (b) Anarchy (c) Mutiny (d) Revolt Ans: ( b ) Anarchy 65. To walk with slow or regular steps is to (a) Limp (b) Stride (c) Pace (d) Advance Ans: ( c ) Pace Directions : In questions 66 to 70, a sentence has been given in active voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice. 66. She spoke to the official on duty. (a) The official on duty was spoken to by her. (b) The official was spoken to by her on duty. (c) She was spoken to by the official on duty. (d) She was the official to be spoken to on duty. Ans: ( a ) The official on duty was spoken to by her. 67. A child could not have done this mischief. (a) This mischief could not be done by a child. (b) This mischief could not been done by a child. (c) This mischief could not have been done by a child. (d) This mischief a child could not have been done. Ans: ( c ) This mischief could not have been done by a child. 68. James Watt discovered the energy of steam. (a) The energy of steam discovered James Watt. (b) The energy of steam was discovered by James Watt. (c) James Watt was discovered by the energy of steam. (d) James Watt had discovered energy by the steam. Ans: ( b ) The energy of steam was discovered by James Watt. 69. She makes cakes every Sunday. (a) Every Sunday are cakes made by her. (b) Cakes are made by her every Sunday. (c) Cakes make her every Sunday. (d) Cakes were made by her every Sunday. Ans: ( b ) Cakes are made by her every Sunday. 70. They greet me cheerfully every morning. (a) Every morning I was greeted cheerfully. (b) I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning. (c) I am being greeted cheerfully by them every morning. (d) Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning to me. Ans: ( b ) I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning. Directions : In the following passage (Questions 71 to 80), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. PASSAGE In the large shops ?????? (71) for Diwali are begun ????(72) or six weeks before ????(73) actual day. Shop owners ????(74) Diwali because lots of ????(75) are given, which means ????(76) goods are bought than ????(77) any other time of ????(78) year. The main shops ????(79) decorated many weeks before ????(80) to tempt people to buy things. 71. (a) preparations (b) shopping (c) purchases (d) preparing Ans: ( a ) preparations 72. (a) two (b) five (c) few (d) couple Ans: ( b ) five 73. (a) a (b) an (c) the (d) which Ans: ( c ) the 74. (a) hate (b) anticipate (c) recommend (d) like Ans: ( d ) like 75. (a) purchases (b) prizes (c) presents (d) presentations Ans: ( c ) presents 76. (a) many (b) more (c) few (d) less Ans: ( b ) more 77. (a) at (b) in (c) on (d) for Ans: ( a ) at 78. (a) any (b) a (c) the (d) this Ans: ( c ) the 79. (a) were (b) are (c) have been (d) will be Ans: ( b ) are 80. (a) occasion (b) festival (c) festivities (d) diwali Ans: ( b ) festival
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