Directions—(Q. 1–10) Some of the sentences have errors and some have
none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the
rectangle [■] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C).
If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■ ] corresponding to the
letter (D) in the Answer-Sheet.
1. The whole country (A) / was suffering by (B) / a financial crisis. (C) No Error. (D)
2. I do not know where could he have gone (A) / so early (B) / in the morning. (C) No Error. (D)
3. I suggest that (A) / he goes (B) / to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the examination. (C) No Error. (D)
4. The introduction of tea and coffee (A) / and such other beverages (B) / have not been without some effect. (C) No Error. (D)
5. In spite of the roadblock (A) / the guards allowed us (B) / enter the
restricted area to search for our friends. (C) No Error. (D)
6. The newer type of automatic machines (A) / wash (B) / the clothes faster. (C) No Error. (D)
7. By the time (A) / we got our tickets and entered the cinema theatre (B) / the show was already begun. (C) No Error. (D)
8. Each of the students in the computer class (A) / has to type (B) / their own research paper this semester. (C) No Error. (D)
9. The fact of me (A) / being a stranger (B) / does not excuse his conduct. (C) No Error. (D)
10. The sea looks (A) / as if it has been (B) / agitated by a storm. (C) No Error. (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–20) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which
best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the
Answer-Sheet.
11. Illicit
(A) immoral
(B) illegal
(C) ineligible
(D) illegible
12. Flair
(A) talent
(B) tendency
(C) bias
(D) need
13. Conservation
(A) preservation
(B) respiration
(C) correction
(D) confusion
14. Abysmal
(A) sickening
(B) gloomy
(C) sad
(D) bottomless
15. Salient
(A) valiant
(B) variant
(C) prudent
(D) prominent
16. Decamp
(A) move
(B) encamp
(C) flee
(D) hide
17. Philanthropist
(A) benefactor
(B) beneficiary
(C) matron
(D) sponsor
18. Exotic
(A) alien
(B) strange
(C) rare
(D) grand
19. Incapacitate
(A) cripple
(B) strengthen
(C) imprison
(D) invent
20. Congregation
(A) concentration
(B) meeting
(C) discussion
(D) judgement
Directions—(Q. 21–30) Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning to the
given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle [■] in the
Answer-Sheet.
21. Suppress
(A) stir up
(B) rouse
(C) urge
(D) incite
22. Loosen
(A) fasten
(B) accelerate
(C) delay
(D) paste
23. Rebellion
(A) forgiveness
(B) retribution
(C) submission
(D) domination
24. Idiosyncrasy
(A) insanity
(B) sanity
(C) generality
(D) singularity
25. Sanguine
(A) diffident
(B) hopeless
(C) cynical
(D) morose
26. Sobriety
(A) moderation
(B) drunkenness
(C) dizziness
(D) stupidity
27. Extinct
(A) recent
(B) distinct
(C) alive
(D) ancient
28. Fiendish
(A) diabolical
(B) devilish
(C) angelic
(D) friendly
29. Subsequent
(A) eventual
(B) succeeding
(C) prior
(D) comparative
30. Orthodox
(A) revolutionary
(B) heretical
(C) anarchist
(D) generous
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one
word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and mark your answer in
the Answer-Sheet.
31. (A) prioratise
(B) picturise
(C) visualise
(D) individualise
32. (A) mendacious
(B) obnoxcious
(C) pernicious
(D) ferocious
33. (A) pennetrate
(B) irritate
(C) hesitate
(D) perforate
34. (A) passagway
(B) causeway
(C) subway
(D) straightway
35. (A) rapport
(B) support
(C) repport
(D) purport
36. (A) stationery
(B) dictionery
(C) revolutionary
(D) voluntary
37. (A) temperature
(B) temperament
(C) tempastuous
(D) temptation
38. (A) whether
(B) weathere
(C) whither
(D) wither
39. (A) legible
(B) communiceble
(C) incorrigible
(D) eligible
40. (A) audacious
(B) auspicious
(C) caprisious
(D) credulous
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase
Bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
41. Don’t worry about the silly row. It was just a storm in a tea cup.
(A) important matter dealt with ease
(B) hot tea being served
(C) commotion over a trivial matter
(D) confusion and chaos
42. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(A) became enemies
(B) turned away from
(C) faced difficulty
(D) opposed strongly
43. Syria is now currying favour with America.
(A) pleasing
(B) favouring
(C) obliging
(D) ingratiating itself with
44. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.
(A) to confuse issues
(B) to say something mildly
(C) to mix everything together
(D) to be very modest
45. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(A) to consider
(B) to admit
(C) to accept readily
(D) to care for
46. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(A) wounded
(B) alone
(C) depressed
(D) neglected
47. The success of his first novel completely turned his head.
(A) made him vain
(B) made him look back
(C) changed him completely
(D) made him think
48. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(A) despises
(B) loves
(C) sees no harm in
(D) can just tolerate
49. At last the rioters fell back.
(A) fell on the ground
(B) yielded
(C) ran back
(D) turned back
50. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(A) had no effect
(B) was an utter failure
(C) resulted in blood-shed
(D) was a disaster
Directions—(Q. 51–55) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which
can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by
blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the. Answer-Sheet.
51. Belief that God is in everything and that everything is God—
(A) Atheism
(B) Pantheism
(C) Scepticism
(D) Animism
52. A picture of a person or a thing drawn in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter—
(A) Cartoon
(B) Cacography
(C) Cartography
(D) Caricature
53. The state of being miserable bereft of all possessions—
(A) Dependant
(B) Complacent
(C) Destitute
(D) Omnipresent
54. That which cannot be called back—
(A) Irresponsible
(B) Irrevocable
(C) Irredeemable
(D) Incalculable
55. One who journeys from place to place—
(A) Quack
(B) Cannibal
(C) Itinerant
(D) Courier
Directions—(Q. 56–60) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive
Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best
expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and mark your
answer in the Answer-Sheet.
56. We have already done the exercise.
(A) Already, the exercise has been done by us
(B) The exercise has already been done by us
(C) The exercise had been already done by us
(D) The exercise is already done by us
57. The main skills we seek to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas.
(A) The main skills sought by us to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(B) The main skills sought to be developed by us include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(C) The main skills that we are seeking to be developed include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(D) The main skills include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas which are sought by us to develop
58. Who can question Gandhi’s integrity ?
(A) By whom Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned ?
(B) By whom can Gandhi’s integrity be questioned ?
(C) Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned by whom ?
(D) Who could have questioned Gandhi’s integrity ?
59. He presented me a bouquet on my birthday.
(A) A bouquet is presented to me on my birthday by him
(B) I was presented on my birthday a bouquet by him
(C) I was presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
(D) I will be presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
60. This surface feels smooth.
(A) This surface is felt smooth
(B) This surface is smooth when it is felt
(C) This surface when felt is smooth
(D) This surface is smooth as felt
Directions—(Q. 61–65) A part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given
alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is
needed, your answer is (D) and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
61. In the desert, the sun is the master, all else resigns before its merciless rays.
(A) collapses
(B) falls
(C) retires
(D) No improvement
62. I intend to learn French next year.
(A) learning
(B) learn
(C) have learnt
(D) No improvement
63. The police needed him for armed robbery.
(A) liked
(B) was after
(C) were looking to
(D) No improvement
64. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
(A) no more seat
(B) no more space
(C) no more accommodation
(D) No improvement
65. It is easy to see why cities grew on the river banks.
(A) along the river banks
(B) in the river banks
(C) upon the river banks
(D) No improvement
Directions—(Q. 66–70) The first and the last parts of the
sentence/passage are numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the
sentence/passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and
(S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the
sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct
and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet—
66. (1) Einstein was a bad student.
(P) He attended classes regularly and took down careful notes.
(Q) His friend Marcel Grossman, on the other hand, was an irreproachable student
(R) These notes he shared with Einstein
(S) He resented having to attend lectures
(6) If Einstein passed his examinations, it was only because of Grossman
(A) SQPR
(B) QRPS
(C) PSRQ
(D) RSQP
67. (1) Creating and modifying a school timetable is a complex task.
(P) ‘TT Plus’ closely models the real world timetable creation tasks
(Q) So is the job of computerizing it
(R) All timetables can be viewed on the screen before they are actually printed
(S) It has a comprehensive manual and a useful glossary of terms.
(6) It relieves you of the anxiety to get it all right.
(A) QPSR
(B) RPSQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) PQSR
68. (1) Three painters competed for a prize.
(P) Ram painted a curtain.
(Q) A butterfly came and sat on the bunch of flowers–was painted by Shyam
(R) And an ox tried to eat from the basket of apples–was painted by Sohan
(S) And the judge himself tried to lift the curtain.
(6) So Ram got the prize.
(A) PSQR
(B) PQRS
(C) PSRQ
(D) QRPS
69. (1) The farmer wanted to please the men.
(P) The poor donkey struggled and kicked.
(Q) They tied his legs together and slung him on a pole.
(R) The farmer and his son put the ends of the pole on their shoulders
(S) He and his son got off the donkey.
(6) They walked into the town carrying the donkey
(A) PQRS
(B) SQRP
(C) RSQP
(D) QSPR
70. (1) The wife is.
(P) not the husband’s slave
(Q) but his companion and his help-mate
(R) and an equal partner
(S) in all his joys and sorrows,
(6) as free as the husband to choose her own path.
(A) QRSP
(B) PRQS
(C) QSRP
(D) PQRS
Directions—(Q. 71–80) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in
with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each
question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it
by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
71. When I was speaking to Rani over the phone suddenly we were………
(A) hung up
(B) run out
(C) broken down
(D) cut off
72. The farmer had……… land and many servants.
(A) very little
(B) some
(C) a lot of
(D) many
73. The tribes lived …… customs different from anything the English had ever seen.
(A) on
(B) by
(C) off
(D) with
74. The criminal together with his associates…… arrested.
(A) are
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have
75. By the time I reach America, it …… morning.
(A) is
(B) would be
(C) must be
(D) was
76. When he got married he……… a life insurance policy.
(A) took up
(B) took out
(C) took in
(D) took over
77. In the last few days, …… to help him ?
(A) anything has been done
(B) is anything done
(C) something is done
(D) has anything been done
78. While picking a rose she …… her hand on a thorn.
(A) stung
(B) scratched
(C) cut
(D) damaged
79. The child did not approve…… the father’s plan.
(A) to
(B) by
(C) of
(D) with
80. None of the food was wasted, ……… ?
(A) wasn’t it
(B) was it
(C) weren’t it
(D) were it
Directions—(Q. 81–90) You have two brief passages with five questions
following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best
answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the
Answer-Sheet.
Passage I
(Question Nos. 81 to 85)
Read not to contradict and confuse, nor to believe and take for granted,
nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some books
are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and
digested. That is some books are to be read only in parts; others to be
read, but not curiously; and some few to be read wholly, and with
diligence and attention. Some books may also be read by deputy, and
extracts made of them by others but that would be only in the less
important arguments and the meaner sort of books; else distilled books
are like common distilled waters, flashy things. Reading maketh a full
man, conference a ready man and writing an exact man.
81. What should be the purpose of reading a book ?
(A) To contradict
(B) To weigh and consider
(C) To take it for granted
(D) To understand the contents
82. Why are some books to be tasted ?
(A) To be read with great care
(B) To be read with great attention
(C) To be read only in parts
(D) To be read for fun
83. How is man’s character influenced by the art of writing ?
(A) It makes him a great writer
(B) It makes him a ready man
(C) It makes him a full man
(D) It makes him an exact man
84. What kind of books is to be read by the deputy ?
(A) Extraordinary books
(B) Ordinary books
(C) Interesting books
(D) Meaner sort of books
85. What is meant by ‘chewed and digested’ ?
(A) Thoroughly read and understood
(B) Partly read and understood
(C) Understood without any effort
(D) None of the above
Passage II
(Question Nos. 86 to 90)
From the world of magic, hypnosis is moving into the world of medicine.
From hocus-pocus performed by men in black capes, to hypnotherapy
practised by doctors in white coats. The purpose is to help people stop
smoking, lose weight, overcome phobias, and control pain in a variety of
medical situations, from childbirth to cancer. Research laboratories
are currently checking out the success rate of therapy under hypnosis,
while medical journals stand by to publish the results. And the
important thing is, nobody is laughing.
In the 1840’s, a British doctor in Calcutta created a controversy by
performing over 1000 operations with hypnosis as the only anaesthesia.
During the World Wars, German and British doctors used hypnosis to treat
war neuroses.
86. Hypnosis means—
(A) auto-suggestion
(B) suggestion made in trance
(C) anaesthesia
(D) hocus-pocus
87. ‘Nobody is laughing’ at hypnotherapy now, because they are—
(A) sad
(B) angry
(C) taking it seriously
(D) annoyed
88. The purpose of hypnotherapy is to—
(A) cure patients
(B) make life easier
(C) carry out research
(D) check out the success rate
89. German and British doctors used hypnosis as—
(A) anaesthesia was not available
(B) anaesthesia was not needed
(C) it was a substitute for anaesthesia
(D) it was fashionable during the war period
90. Treating war neurosis means—
(A) curing madness
(B) curing brain fever
(C) dealing with war problems
(D) curing war anxiety
Directions—(Q. 91–100) In the following passage, some of the words have
been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 91 to 100. First
read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill
in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer
in the Answer-Sheet.
Passage
The Aryans …91… about northern Asia and Europe over the wide grasslands.
But as their numbers grew and the climate became drier and the land
…92…, there was not …93… food for all of them to eat. …94… they were
forced to move to other parts of the world in search of …95… They spread
out all over Europe and …96… to India, Persia and Mesopotamia. Thus we
find that nearly all the people of Europe and northern India and Persia
and Mesopotamia, although they differ so much …97… each other now, are
really descendants from the same …98…, the Aryans. Of course this was
very long …99… and since then much has happened and races have got mixed
up to a large extent. The Aryans are …100…, one great ancestral race of
the people of the world today.
91. (A) wandered
(B) wondered
(C) worked
(D) worried
92. (A) grassful
(B) green
(C) grassless
(D) dead
93. (A) full
(B) enough
(C) plenty
(D) grass
94. (A) So
(B) As
(C) Because
(D) Yet
95. (A) riches
(B) money
(C) shelter
(D) food
96. (A) went
(B) came
(C) come
(D) has come
97. (A) to
(B) with
(C) on
(D) from
98. (A) friends
(B) family
(C) ancestors
(D) Aryans
99. (A) ago
(B) time
(C) period
(D) wait
100. (A) so
(B) since
(C) therefore
(D) but
Answers with Hints
1. (B) Change ‘by’ to ‘from’.
2. (A) Reword it as ‘where he could have’.
3. (B) Change ‘goes’ to ‘go’. Strictly grammatically ‘he’ should be
followed by ‘goes’. But where suggestion is involved it assumes
imperative form. i.e., go.
4. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ in order to accord with its subject introduction’.
5. (C) Change ‘enter’ to ‘to enter’.
6. (D)
7. (C) Change the clause as “the show had already begun”.
8. (C) Change ‘their’ to ‘his’. Use singular possessive with a singular subject.
9. (A) Change ‘me’ to ‘my’.
10. (B) Change ‘has been’ to ‘had been’.
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (D)
27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) Correct spelling is ‘prioritise’.
32. (B) Correct spelling is ‘obnoxious’.
33. (A) Correct spelling is ‘penetrate’.
34. (A) Correct spelling is ‘passageway’.
35. (C) Correct spelling is ‘report’.
36. (B) Correct spelling is ‘dictionary’.
37. (C) Correct spelling is ‘tempestuous’.
38. (B) Correct spelling is ‘weather’.
39. (B) Correct spelling is ‘communicable’.
40. (C) Correct spelling is ‘capricious’.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (D)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C)
73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D) 96. (B)
97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (C)
Wednesday, October 27, 2010
SSC DATA ENTRY OPERATOR EXAM 2008
1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi
2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members
3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953
4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.
5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373
6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months
7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month
8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India
10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26
13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250
15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70
17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica
18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha
19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State
20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India
21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari
22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal
23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14
24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night
25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above
26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid
27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic
28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter
30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian
31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong
32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway
33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China
34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia
35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None
36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands
37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya
38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea
39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga
40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco
41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians
42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above
43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti
44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv
45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka
47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta
48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God
49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir
50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga
51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung
52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka
54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas
56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas
57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira
58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas
59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above
60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians
61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam
62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India
63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam
64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli
65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch
66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi
67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above
68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti
69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar
70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956
71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951
72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel
73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962
74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57
75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body
77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council
79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar
80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these
81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20
82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940
83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None
84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677
85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989
86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper
87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid
88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these
90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine
91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment
92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes
93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals
94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space
95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease
96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All
97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s
98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black
99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air
100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi
ANSWERS
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C) 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B) 61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B) 71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A) 81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A) 91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)
DEO AND LDC MODEL TEST PAPER G.K
101. Devaluation of currency leads to
(A) expansion of export trade
(B) contraction of import trade
(C) expansion of import substitution
(D) All of the above
102. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of
(A) Commercial bills
(B) Foreign exchange
(C) Gold
(D) Government bonds
103. Which is not the objective of Public Procurement and . Distribution system followed by Indian Government?
(A) Maintain price stability through creation of buffer stocks
(B) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor farmers
(C) Control the production of food grains
(D) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the distribution
104. Where is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade located?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad
105. The Centre for Agricultural Marketing is located at
(A) Jaipur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Nagpur
(D) Hyderabad
106. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by
(A) Total population of the country
(B) Total working population
(C) Area of the country
(D) Volume of capital used
107. The currency of Thailand is
(A) Bhat
(B) Rupiah
(C) Yuan
(D) Yen
108. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of
(A) reconstruction and development
(B) stimulating private investment
(C) tackling foreign exchange crisis
(D) meeting deficits in government budget
109. In Indian agriculture the period from July to October-November is called
(A) Rabi season
(B) Kharif season
(C) Pre-kharif season
(D) Slack season
110. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of public sector units occur when the government sells
(A) 5% of shares
(B) 10% of shares
(C) 15% of shares
(D) 20% of shares
111. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on financial reforms proposed for establish ment of a
(A) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(B) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(C) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking structure
(D) Unified control by the apex institutions
112. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in the year
(A) 1942
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1955
113. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) Constitution
(D) President
114. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of
(A) centre/state relations
(B) Legislative problems
(C) Union territories’ problems
(D) Tribal areas
115. The Judges of the High Court hold office
(A) during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India
(B) till they have attained 62 years of age
(C) till they have attained 65 years of age
(D) as long as they desire
116. The United Nations officially came into existence on
(A) January 1, 1942
(B) October 3, 1944
(C) October 24, 1945
(D) June 26, 1945
117. The English Crown is an example of
(A) Real executive
(B) Quasi-real executive
(C) Nominal executive
(D) Nominated executive
118. The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to
(A) The President
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
119. In ends and means relationship, Gandhiji believed
(A) Means become good if they serve the end
(B) Means and ends are watertight compartments
(C) Means determine the end
(D) End is everything, no matter what or how the means are
120. The ‘Speaker’s vote’ in the Lok Sabha is called
(A) casting vote
(B) sound vote
(C) direct vote
(D) indirect vote
121. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Fundamental Rights’?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
122. Which is the Greek classic that Gandhi translated into Gujarati?
(A) Plato’s Republic
(B) Dialogues of Plato
(C) Aristotle’s Politics
(D) Aristotle’s Nicomachicm Ethics
123. To be a regional party, the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
124. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Eleven
(B) Nine
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
125. Indian Penal Code came into operation in
(A) 1858
(B) 1860
(C) 1859
(D) 1862
126. The First Viceroy & Governor-General of British India was
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Sir John Lawrence
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Lord Canning
127. The split between the ‘Extremists’ and ‘Moderates’ came up in the open at the Surat Congress Session in the year
(A) 1905
(B) 1906
(C) 1907
(D) 1910
128. Bhulabhai Desai’s most memorable achieve ment was his defence of the Indian National Army (I.N.A) personnel at the Red Fort Trial towards the end of
(A) 1943
(B) 1944
(C) 1945
(D) 1946
129. St. Thomas is said to have come to India to propagate Christianity during the reign of the
(A) Cheras
(B) Parthians
(C) Pandyas
(D) Cholas
130. The First Viceroy of the Portuguese in the East was
(A) Albuquerque
(B) Joa de Castro
(C) Francisco de Almedia
(D) Nuno da Cunha
131. When was the All India Women’s Con ference founded?
(A) 1924
(B) 1925
(C) 1926
(D) 1927
132. The Kuka movement started in mid- Nineteenth century in
(A) Western Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bengal
(D) MadhyaBharat
133. Who is the author of the autobiography, The Indian Struggle?
(A) Annie Beasant
(B) Subhas Chandra Bose
(C) Chittaranjan Das
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
134. Mahatma Gandhi’s remark, “A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank” is regarding the proposals of
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Cripps Mission
(C) Cabinet Mission
(D) WavelPlan
135. Under whose leadership was the Congress Socialist Party founded in 1934?
(A) Jawahailal Nehru and Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Acharya Narendra Dev and Jai Prakash Narayan
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose and P. C. Joshi
(D) Saifuddin Kitchlew and Rajendra Prasad
136. The people of the Indus Valley Civilization usually built their houses of
(A) Pucca bricks
(B) Stone
(C) Wood
(D) All of the above
137. Which one of the following pairs of places does the National Highway number 2 join?
(A) Delhi – Amritsar
(B) Delhi – Mumbai
(C) Delhi – Kolkata
(D) Delhi – Ahmedabad
138. Watermelons grow best in
(A) Alluvial soil
(B) Sandy soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Laterite soil
139. In which state is the Maikala range situated?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhatisgarh
140. The latitude passing through the northern most part of India is
(A) 35° N
(B) 36° N
(C) 37° N
(D) 39° N
141. River erosion is at its greatest where the river’s
(A) depth is more
(B) breadth is more
(C) flow is fast
(D) gradient is more
142. Nallamala hills are located in the state of
(A) Orissa
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
143. Excluding the East European countries and Russia, the country with the largest area under forest, is
(A) USA
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Brazil
144. In which of the following is the Great Barrier Reef located?
(A) Coral Sea
(B) Solomon Sea
(C) Bismarck Sea
(D) Arafura Sea
145. Where is the Headquarter of Zoological Survey of India located?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
146. The South West monsoon engulfs the entire India by
(A) 5th June
(B) 15th June
(C) 1st July
(D) 15th July
147. Where was the first iron and steel industry of India established?
(A) Bhadravati
(B) Bhilai
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Burnpur
148. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
(A) Columbus – 1492
(B) Vasco de Gama – 1498
(C) Magellan – 1520
(D) Balboa – 1530
149. Which one of the following wavelengths of light is most effective in photosynthesis?
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Orange
(D) Yellow
150. Human cloning is permitted in Britain for the purpose of
(A) Reproduction
(B) Research
(C) Therapeutics
(D) Genetics
CPO EXAM PAPER II MODEL TEST PAPER
Directions: In Question Nos. 1 to 10, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error mark (D) as your answer.
1. A moment delay/would have proved costly/ in the situation./No error.
2. Ram disappointed his mother/ as he did not/ write to her very often./No error.
3. After you will return/ from Chennai/ I will come and see you./ No error.
4. Scenes from the film / had to be censured/ before it was released./ No error.
5. When my sister was ill/ I went to the hospital/ on alternative days./ No error.
6 The beautiful/ surrounding of the place/ enchanted me./ No error.
7. No Porter being available/ he carried/ all his luggages himself./ No error.
8 He will not be able/ to cope up with/ the pressure of work./ No error.
9. Lasers are/ indispensable tools/ for the delicate eyes surgery./ No error.
10. I take great pleasure/ to welcome you/ to this institution./ No error.
Directions: In Question Nos. 11 to 15, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given.
11. Indignation
(A) hatred
(B) anger
(C) disapproval
(D) contempt
12. Acronym
(A) A word with two or more meanings
(B) A word of new coinage
(C) A word formed by the initial letters of words
(D) A word of picturesque effect
13. Meticulous
(A) interfere
(B) courage
(C) agreement
(D) careful
14. Rescind
(A) change
(B) revoke
(C) repeat
(D) reconsider
15. Antipathy
(A) dishonesty
(B) disturbance
(C) demonstration (D) dislike
Directions: In Question Nos. 16 to 20, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
16. APPARENT
(A) Illegible
(B) Hidden
(C) Mysterious
(D) Remote
17. ALIEN
(A) Native
(B) Domiciled
(C) Natural
(D) Resident
18. FUTILE
(A) upright
(B) costly
(C) eminent
(D) worthy
19. AUDACIOUS
(A) meek
(B) cowardly
(C) mild
(D) gentle
20. ARROGANT
(A) simple
(B) timid
(C) civilized
(D) modest
Directions: In Question Nos. 21 to 30, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word.
21. The food that an average Indian eats has been found to be deficient _____ vitamins and proteins.
(A) of
(B) from
(C) with
(D) in
22. The patient is _____ of stomachache.
(A) suffering
(B) experiencing
(C) complaining
(D) afflicting
23. A good teacher should _____ responses from the students.
(A) elicit
(B) provoke
(C) command
(D) infer
24. Had he taken his degree five years ago he _____ got a promotion by now.
(A) might
(B) would have
(C) will be
(D) was
25. There will be a rush for seats when the train
(A) will arrive
(B) arrived
(C) is arriving
(D) arrives
26. He drove the car very fast _____
(A) Did he?
(B) Does he?
(C) Didn’t he?
(D) Was he?
27. He _____ wants to succeed in life must be prepared to work hard.
(A) whoever
(B) whom
(C) who
(D) whose
28. It is time you _____ home.
(A) go
(B) went
(C) come
(D) reach
29. _____ a walk in the morning will improve your health.
(A) Going to
(B) Go to
(C) Go for
(D) Going for
30. Government must _____ the rise in prices.
(A) cheque
(B) check
(C) cease
(D) seize
Directions: In Question Nos. 31 to 40, four alternatives are given for the underlined or given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined or given idiom/phrase.
31. The bus had a close shave as its driver swerved to the right a split second before the on-coming truck could run into it.
(A) serious accident
(B) close collision
(C) narrow escape
(D) deep dent
32. Fits and starts
(A) slowly
(B) not regularly
(C) continuously
(D) quickly
33. When the Inspector entered the class some of the students shook in their shoes.
(A) stamped the ground with their shoes
(B) showed signs of anger
(C) trembled with fear
(D) stood up to salute
34. In high spirits
(A) full of hope and enthusiasm
(B) under tremendous stress
(C) under the influence of liquor
(D) mentally deranged
35. He amassed his wealth through sharp practices.
(A) dishonest means
(B) illegal means
(C) intelligent decisions
(D) quick decisions
36. He is not in the good books of his boss.
(A) a lover of good books
(B) in favour with
(C) not of the same opinion as
(D) as good as
37. The officer is fed up with the complaints made against the clerk.
(A) annoyed
(B) disgusted
(C) pleased
(D) satisfied
38. A white elephant,
(A) a rare species of elephants
(B) an expensive gift
(C) a costly but useless possession
(D) a worthless thing
39. Ins and outs
(A) entry and exit points
(B) full details
(C) tactical moves
(D) complexity of character
40. All his ventures went to the winds.
(A) dissipated
(B) spread all over
(C) got speed of the winds
(D) became well-known
Directions: In Question Nos. 41 to 50, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
41. Government by a ruler who has unlimited power.
(A) Despotism
(B) Autocracy
(C) Monarchy
(D) Anarchy
42. An occasion of great importance
(A) exemplary
(B) momentous
(C) herculean
(D) grandiose
43. A person who is always hopeful and look: upon the brighter side of things
(A) florist
(B) artist
(C) theist
(D) optimist
44. Place of burial
(A) cave
(B) church
(C) synagogue
(D) cemetry
45. To have a very high opinion of oneself
(A) exaggeration
(B) adulation
(C) abundance
(D) conceited
46. One who believes in giving equal opportunity to women in all fields
(A) Fanatic
(B) Misogynist
(C) Philanderer
(D) Feminist
47. Inability to sleep
(A) hysteria
(B) insomnia
(C) aphasia
(D) amnesia
48. One who is given to pleasures of the flesh.
(A) terrestrian
(B) epicurean
(C) celestial
(D) pedestrian
49. A tank where fish or water plants are kept
(A) Aquarium
(B) Sanatorium
(C) Nursery
(D) Aviary
50. A person who never takes alcoholic drinks
(A) teetotaller
(B) alcoholic
(C) addict
(D) bagpiper
Directions: In Question Nos. 51 to 55, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt.
51.
(A) poignant
(B) relevent
(C) prevalent
(D) malignant
52.
(A) seize
(B) achieve
(C) wierd
(D) leisure
53.
(A) repent
(B) serpent
(C) flagrent
(D) reverent
54. (A) dining
(B) shining
(C) determining
(D) begining
55.
(A) vendetta ‘
(B) verisimilitude
(C) vicarious
(D) vociferrate
Directions: In Question Nos. 56 to 65, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at A, B and C which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is D.
56. He was weary of failure, Didn’t he?
(A) Isn’t he?
(B) Wasn’t he?
(C) Doesn’t he?
(D) No improvement
57. What you have been doing since the work shop last month?
(A) have you done
(B) you have done
(C) have you been doing
(D) No improvement
58. Keats says the idea very well in his poems.
(A) speaks
(B) describes
(C) expresses
(D) No improvement
59. The enemy soldiers went back hastily.
(A) returned
(B) retreated
(C) retrenched
(D) No improvement
60. No sooner had the teacher entered the room and the boys rushed to their seats.
(A) when
(B) than
(C) but
(D) No improvement
61. We have already disposed our old house.
(A) disposed off
(B) disposed out
(C) disposed of
(D) No improvement
62. We can buy anything in this shop, Can we?
(A) Isn’t it?
(B) Can’t we?
(C) Don’t we?
(D) No improvement
63. If I had followed your advice, I would not regret today.
(A) will not regret
(B) had not regretted
(C) would not have regretted
(D) No improvement
64. Somebody must be made to answer for the securities scam.
(A) to
(B) after
(C) upon
(D) No improvement
65. Corruption is the most serious problem in India.
(A) the more serious
(B) the seriouser
(C) serious
(D) No improvement
Directions: In Question Nos. 66 to 70, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
66. The cat is running after the rat.
(A) The rat was being run after by the cat
(B) The rat is being run after by the cat
(C) The rat is run after by the cat
(D) The cat is being run after by the rat
67. English is spoken all over the world.
(A) All over the world English speaks
(B) English speaks all over the world
(C) The whole world speaks English
(D) People speak English all over the world
68. The boys elected Mohan captain.
(A) The boys were elected captain by Mohan
(B) Mohan is elected captain by the boys
(C) Mohan was elected captain by the boys
(D) Mohan and the boys elected the captain
69. They threw away the Rubbish.
(A) The Rubbish will be thrown away
(B) The Rubbish was being thrown away
(C) The Rubbish was thrown away
(D) The Rubbish thrown away
70. Let him see the picture.
(A) Let the picture be seen by him
(B) The picture is seen by him
(C) Let him the picture be seen
(D) The picture is seen by him
Directions: In Question Nos. 71 to 80, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four Parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations s correct. Then find the correct answer.
71.
1. There was a lamp hanging on the wall
P. Then he picked a lot of jewels off the trees in the garden
Q. He put the lamp inside his shirt
R. He put them in his pockets
S. Aladdin climbed a ladder and took down the lamp
6. Then he put more jewels inside his shirt on top of the lamp.
(A) PRQS
(B) RSPQ
(C) SQPR
(D) QSRP
72.
1. Gopal and Sheela felt very bored one evening
P. Gopal wanted to stay on for the next show
Q. So they decided to go to the cinema
R. They reached the theatre in time for the interval
S. On the way there was a traffic jam
6. But Sheela wanted to return home
(A) PSQR
(B) SQPR
(C) QSRP
(D) SQRP
73.
1. Ferdinand rose up to receive the messenger
P. At the end of his account he was moved to tears
Q. He fell on his knees and thanked him
R. He made him sit on a level with himself
S. He listened to the circumstantial account of his voyage
6. It was a great conquest the Almighty gave to a sovereign.
(A) RPSQ
(B) RSPQ
(C) QPRS
(D) PKSQ
74.
1. In order to judge the inside of others, study your own
P. and though one has one prevailing passion
Q. for, men, in general are very much alike
R. yet their operations are very much the same
S. and another has another
6. and whatever engages or disgusts, pleases or offends you in others, will engage, disgust, please or offend others in you.
(A) QPSR
(B) PQRS
(C) RQPS
(D) PRQS
75.
1. Paucity of funds
P. universities cannot make
Q. essentials like books
R. sufficient expenditure on
S. ordains that the
6. journals and equipment.
(A) QPRS
(B) SPRQ
(C) PQRS
(D) QSRP
76.
1. The symptoms of
P. and certain other changes
Q. what is popularly called
R. serious forgetfulness, confusion
S “serility” include
6. in personality behaviour.
(A) QSRP
(B) PQRS
(C) SRQP
(D) QPSR
77.
1. When they heard the bell P. out of his clothes
Q. as quickly
R. every boy scrambled
S. and got into bed
6. as possible.
(A) QRPS
(B) PSQR
(C) RQSP
(D) RPS.Q
78.
1. Thirty years from now
P. and industry will be scarce
Q. almost half of the people
R. that water for drinking, farming
S. then living may find
6. according to a study by Dr. S. Posten.
(A) SPQR
(B) SRPQ
(C) QSRP
(D) QSPR
79.
1. A good cry can be a
P. bring relief from anxiety
Q. prevent a headache or
R. and it might even
S. healthy way to
6. other physical consequence
(A) SRQP
(B) SRPQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) SPQR
80.
1. Long, long, time ago
P. who lived with his three wives
Q. in a country called Kosala
R. there ruled a noble king
S. and four sons
6. beautiful, graceful and well versed in all shastras.
(A) PQRS
(B) SPQR
(C) RQPS
(D) QRSP
Directions: In the following passage (Question Nos. 81 to 90), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Cloze Passage
Scientists have developed an electronic circuit that 81 the wiring of the human brain in some ways – an achievement that 82 revolu-tionalise computer science and 83 understanding of how nature’s most powerful 84 works. The 85 built on a 86 chip the size of a finger nail, is 87 from the thinking machines of science-fiction. For one thing it cannot 88 , the way the 89 can. But researchers say it could 90 in better speech and object recognition by computers.
81.
(A) imitates
(B) mimics
(C) limits
(D) expands
82.
(A) shall
(B) ought
(C) could
(D) have
83.
(A) exceed
(B) improve
(C) impair
(D) develop
84.
(A) processor
(B) electronic system
(C) circuit
(D) brain
85.
(A) computer
(B) monitor
(C) system
(D) circuit
86.
(A) silicon
(B) minute
(C) big
(D) brown
87.
(A) for
(B) above
(C) beyond
(D) far
88.
(A) equate
(B) teach
(C) learn
(D) recognise
89.
(A) computer
(B) processor
(C) chip
(D) brain
90.
(A) yield
(B) give
(C) respond
(D) result
Directions: In Question Nos. 91 to 100, you have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE – I
For any activity, discipline is the key word. It should begin with the self, then be extended to the family, neighbours, environment, workplace, society and the nation at large. It is from society that inspiration is drawn. Systems and institutions should provide the inspiration to society through performance which in turn will provide leaders, capable of rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation. The nationalists’ spirit then becomes infectious.
91. What is the key word for Activity according to the passage?
(A) Active Discipline
(B) Key Discipline
(C) Self Discipline
(D) Discipline
92. According to the passage Discipline should begin
(A) with the self
(B) with the self, family and neighbours
(C) with the self, family, neighbours and environment
(D) with the self, family, workplace, society
93. According to the passage, where do we draw inspiration from?
(A) Society
(B) Society and nation
(C) Environment
(D) Nothing in particular
94. According to the passage, a good leader should be capable of
(A) rebuilding a nation the way he/she likes
(B) rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation
(C) building a national consensus
(D) rebuilding and structuring a nation
95. What is the meaning of the word “infectious” in the passage?
(A) dangerous
(B) spreading to everyone
(C) spreading to everyone by germs
(D) give disease
PASSAGE -II
A 23-year-old British woman was yesterday sentenced to six months in jail for leaving her two-year-old daughter home alone eight-hours-a-day, five days a week for a year while she went to work. The young mother from the central town of Warwick initially hired a babysitter, when she landed a job in a travel agency but eventually reached the point when she could no longer afford the facility, prosecutors said. The woman then started leaving the child home by herself, providing it with food and toys and removing all potentially dangerous objects from its reach. At first the mother came home at lunch time but had to stop because her daughter threw tantrums every time she left to go back to work.
The mother, who was not identified, told the court, “If I had money I would not have done it. It was a case of that or not keeping my job and living on benefit”.
The judge, Mr. Harrison Hall, however said “Having had a child, the absolute priority is to look after it. There must be an alternative to leaving a child alone all day, a thing you would not do even to a dog”.
96. The young mother had to work in the office
(A) 40 hours a week
(B) 8 hours a week
(C) 48 hours a week
(D) all the seven days a week
97. The word ‘Facility’ in sentence refers to
(A) her job in the travel agency
(B) living in a well furnished apartment
(C) getting adequate salary
(D) employing someone to look after the child
98- The mother stopped coming home for lunch because
(A) her house was far away from the office
(B) she was not able to control her angry baby
(C) she had to work extra hours to earn more
(D) she was not interested in looking after the baby
99. The sentence “If I had money, I would not have done it” means
(A) I had money and so I did not leave the baby alone
(B) I had money and so I left the baby alone
(C) I had no money and so I left the baby alone
(D) I had no money and so I did not leave the baby alone
100. Which one of the following statements about the judge Mr. Harrison Hall is correct?
(A) He can tolerate cruelty to children but not to animals
(B) He can tolerate cruelty to animals but not to children
(C) He can tolerate cruelty both to children and animals
(D) He can tolerate cruelty neither to children nor to animals
DEO AND LDC MODEL TEST PAPER G.K
1. The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is located at—
(A) Bangkok
(B) Singapore
(C) Kualalumpur
(D) Manila
Ans : (D)
2. Explicit cost means—
(A) Payments made for short period
(B) Payments made for long period
(C) Payments incurred on fixed and variable costs
(D) Payments made for productive resources
Ans : (D)
3. The most important aspect affecting cropping pattern is—
(A) The social consideration
(B) The economic consideration
(C) The political consideration
(D) The geographical consideration
Ans : (D)
4. Which is the most mobile factor of production ?
(A) Land
(B) Labour
(C) Capital
(D) Organisation
Ans : (C)
5. Cottage and small scale industries are desirable in Indian Economy from the point of view of—
(A) Income generation
(B) Large scale production
(C) Low cost technology
(D) Employment generation
Ans : (D)
6. Which one of the following item is entered as credit in the balance of Payment Account ?
(A) Imports from abroad
(B) Purchase of assets from abroad
(C) Sale of assets abroad
(D) Purchase of gold from abroad
Ans : (C)
7. When there are economies of scale, it means that an increase in production must be accompanied by—
(A) A reduction in total cost of production
(B) A reduction in average cost of production
(C) A reduction in prices of inputs
(D) An increase in profitability of producers
Ans : (B)
8. G-77 stands for a group of 77—
(A) Capitalist countries
(B) Socialist countries
(C) Advanced countries
(D) Developing countries
Ans : (D)
9. Changes in Bank Rate affects—
(A) The market rate of interest
(B) Select industries for investments
(C) Banks giving loans
(D) The cash reserve ratios
Ans : (A)
10. Total costs is a combination of—
(A) Fixed cost and variable cost
(B) Money cost and real cost
(C) Economic cost and social cost
(D) Past cost and future cost
Ans : (A)
11. The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 245
(B) 250
(C) 260
(D) 300
Ans : (A)
12. The electoral college for election to the office of the President consists of elected members of the—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. Under which Article of the Constitution the central government can take pre-emptive action to protect any state against external aggression and internal disturbances—
(A) 355
(B) 356
(C) 357
(D) 358
Ans : (A)
14. When did India become a Republic ? On—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) January 26, 1950
(D) December 10, 1946
Ans : (C)
15. Who was the first Indian Scholar who treated Mathematics as a distinct subject ?
(A) Brahma Gupta
(B) Aryabhatta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) Ramanujam
Ans : (B)
16. In Buddhism a Chaitya is also known as—
(A) Residence of the Monks
(B) Hall of Worship
(C) Dining Hall
(D) Congregation Hall
Ans : (D)
17. When were Goa, Diu and Daman annexed into the Indian Union ?
(A) 1947 A.D.
(B) 1961 A.D.
(C) 1951 A.D.
(D) 1954 A.D.
Ans : (B)
18. The Maldives are the islands of this ocean—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Pacific Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Ans : (B)
19. Shiva is worshipped as Nataraja in a famous temple in Tamil Nadu, where ?
(A) Tanjore
(B) Madurai
(C) Rameshwaram
(D) Chidambaram
Ans : (D)
20. Australia is particularly known for—
(A) Wheat Mills and Wheat Cultivation
(B) Sheep rearing and Mining
(C) Lumbering and Paper Mills
(D) Jute Mills and Jute Cultivation
Ans : (B)
21. Lime is sometimes applied to soil in order to—
(A) Increase the acidity of the soil
(B) Decrease the alkalinity of the soil
(C) Decrease the acidity of the soil
(D) Increase the alkalinity of the soil
Ans : (D)
22. Which of the following depletes the ozone layer ?
(A) CFC’s
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Nitrogen dioxide
Ans : (A)
23. The turgid condition of a cell is due to—
(A) Loss of water
(B) Entry of water
(C) Loss of solutes
(D) Entry of solutes
Ans : (B)
24. In the blood group ‘O’ the antigen present is—
(A) A
(B) B
(C) A and B
(D) No antigen
Ans : (D)
25. The time-period of a pendulum on the moon—
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains the same
(D) Is zero
Ans : (B)
26. The human ear is sensitive to sound intensity ranging from—
(A) 200 to 300 db
(B) 300 to 400 db
(C) 500 to 600 db
(D) 0 to 180 db
Ans : (D)
27. A solar eclipse occurs when the—
(A) Sun comes between the earth and the moon
(B) Moon comes between the sun and the earth
(C) Earth comes between the sun and the moon
(D) Sun comes between the earth and the star
Ans : (B)
28. The Angstrom unit measures—
(A) Temperature
(B) Electric current
(C) Time
(D) Wavelength
Ans : (D)
29. We can hold a pen due to the—
(A) Force of gravity
(B) Force of friction
(C) Force of weight
(D) Work done by our muscles
Ans : (B)
30. One calorie of energy is equivalent to—
(A) 0•42 joule
(B) 4•2 joule
(C) 42 joule
(D) 420 joule
Ans : (B)
31. Metals, when exposed to electromagnetic radiations, emit—
(A) Electrons
(B) Protons
(C) Neutrons
(D) Alpha particles
Ans : (A)
32. Which one of the following is a super cooled liquid ?
(A) Mercury
(B) Bromine
(C) Glass
(D) Ice-cream
Ans : (C)
33. Haemoglobin is an Iron-containing—
(A) Nucleic acid
(B) Protein
(C) Antibody
(D) Hormone
Ans : (B)
34. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—
(A) Sodium
(B) Barium
(C) Potassium
(D) Calcium
Ans : (B)
35. Which one of the following is not a function of protein ?
(A) Building up of tissues
(B) Catalysing some reactions
(C) Growth of bones
(D) Repair of torn tissues
Ans : (B)
36. Metal used for galvanising iron is—
(A) Mercury
(B) Aluminium
(C) Copper
(D) Zinc
Ans : (D)
37. An example of a synthetic rubber is—
(A) Neoprene
(B) Nylon
(C) Rayon
(D) Polyester
Ans : (A)
38. The metal which is called Quick Silver is—
(A) Silver
(B) Aluminium
(C) Mercury
(D) Lead
Ans : (C)
39. What is the tenure of office of the Vice-President ?
(A) Co-terminus with that of the President
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) As decided by the Electoral College voting the person
Ans : (B)
40. Who amidst the following Presidents held office for two terms ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(D) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans : (A)
41. Which of the following constitutional documents had the most profound influence in creating the Indian Constitution ?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The US Constitution
(C) The British Constitution
(D) The UN Charter
Ans : (A)
42. Which of the following produces the widely used antibiotic penicillin ?
(A) An algae
(B) A bacterium
(C) A synthetic process
(D) A fungus
Ans : (D)
43. What forms the largest part of most diets ?
(A) Nucleic acid
(B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) Lipids
Ans : (C)
44. Acid present in Tamarind is—
(A) Citric acid
(B) Acetic acid
(C) Tartaric acid
(D) Oxalic acid
Ans : (C)
45. Which of the following diseases is caused by a viral infection ?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Cholera
(C) Common cold
(D) Tetanus
Ans : (C)
46. In which part of India does saffron grow ?
(A) Darjeeling district
(B) Kashmir
(C) Hills in Madhya Pradesh
(D) Nilgiri Hills
Ans : (B)
47. India is one of the largest producer of which of the following spices ?
1. Black pepper
2. Cardamom
3. Cloves
4. Ginger
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
48. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to strike
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to freedom of religion
Ans : (A)
49. Who can issue the writs for enforcement of the fundamental rights ?
(A) The District Judge
(B) The Human Rights Commission
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court
(D) The Director General of Police
Ans : (C)
50. What does hail consist of ?
(A) Granular ice
(B) Crystals of ice
(C) Water droplets
(D) Masses of ice in layers one above the other
Ans : (D)
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