Thursday, November 11, 2010

OBC BANK VACANCIES

Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC)
(A Government of Indian Undertaking)
Head Office, Harsha Bhawan, E-Block, Connaught Place, New Delhi – 110001

Oriental Bank of India (OBC), a leading public sector bank invites Online Applications from Indian citizens for 1105 posts in Clerical Cadre.


  • Clerks : 1105 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.4410-13210/- (Revising soon), Age : Min - 18-28 years, Qualification : Degree in any discipline or its equivalent with any class/division  OR 10+2 examination or its equivalent with minimum 50%.
Selection Procedure: The selection will be on the basis of written test and interview. Written test will be conducted on 09/01/2011.

Application Fee : Rs. 300/- (Rs. 50/- for SC/ST/PH/Ex-SM) to be deposited at any of the branch of the Oriental Bank of Commerce only in Current A/c No. 00071011002147 from 25/10/2010 to 24/11/2010.

How To Apply: Apply online. Online application will be open from 25/10/2010 to 24/11/2010 at OBC  website.

Details are available at https://www.obcindia.co.in/obcnew/upload/recruitmentResult/Advertisement_clerk-2010-11.doc , bank deposite slip is available at https://www.obcindia.co.in/obcnew/upload/recruitmentResult/DEPOSIT_RECEIPTCLERKS.doc and apply online at http://registration.sifyitest.com/obcclerical/

VACANCIES IN CENTRAL BANK OF INDIA CLERKS VACANCIES

Central Bank of India
Central Office

Recruitment of Clerks in Central Bank of India

Central Bank of India, a leading Public Sector Bank, invites Online applications from Indian Citizens for appointment in Clerical Cadre posts :

  • Clerk : 1163 posts in various states , Pay Scale : Rs.7200-19300, Age : 18-28 years, as on 01/11/2010 Relaxation as per rules.,

Application Fee  : Rs.250/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PH/Ex-SM) to be deposited in any CBS branch of Central Bank of India.

How to Apply : Apply Online. submission of Online application through Central Bank website from 09/11/2010 to 08/12/2010.

Important Dates:
  1. Opening date of the Online application and details : 09/11/2010
  2. Closing for online submission of application : 08/12/2010
  3. Date of Written Exam : 13/02/2010
Please view  http://www.centralbankofindia.co.in/upload/Central%20Bank%20clerical%20ad%20-2010.doc for details, payment challan is available at http://www.centralbankofindia.co.in/upload/FPR.doc and apply online at  http://registration.sifyitest.com/cbiclerk/

Thursday, November 4, 2010

HAPPY DIWALI

HELLO DOSTO AAP SABHI KO DIWALI KI HARDIK SUBH KAMAYE. AAP SABHI LOGO K DHER SARY EMAIL MILY SABHI DOSTO OR BHAIYO KO DIWALI KI BAHUT SARI SUBH KAMNYE. OR AAP SAB K EMAILS K LIYE THANKS. ACHA LAGA AAP SAB LOG MUJHE ITNA PIYAR KARTY HE YE DEKH KAR

crpf head constable min. vacancies

1
CENTRAL RESERVE POLICE FORCE
ADVERTISEMENT FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT SUB-INSPECTOR
(STENOGRAPHERS) AND HEAD CONSTABLE (MINISTERAL) IN CRPF
Applications are invited from Male and Female candidates for the combatised
post of Assistant Sub-Inspector (Stenographer-Grade-III) and Head Constable (Ministerial) in
Central Reserve Police Force as per tentative vacancy position given below. The posts are
temporary but likely to become permanent.
Category ASI (Steno) HC (Min)
Vacancies to be filled up
during 2010-11
Total Vacancies to be filled
up during 2010-11
Total
UR 38 38 18 18
OBC 27 27 22 22
SC 22 22 08 08
ST 16 16 120 120
Deptl. -- -- Genl 10
OBC 33
SC 19
ST 12
74
Ex-Ser. -- -- Genl 03
OBC 16
SC 09
ST 03
31
Total 103 273
Note: Above vacancies are subject to variation and the Deptt. has the right to make
any change in the advertisement or cancel it without assigning any reason.
2. PAY SCALE:-
Asst. Sub-Inspector (Stenographer) - Rs.5200-20200+GP-2800/-
(Minimum Rs.8,560/- P.M.)
Head Constable (Ministerial) - Rs.5200-20200+GP-2400/-
(Minimum Rs.7,510/- P.M.)
In addition, the posts carry DA, Free accommodation or House Rent Allowance as
per Govt. Order, Ration Money, Medical Facilities, Free uniform items, Leave Travel
concession and other special types of allowances as may be admissible for different areas,
from time to time.
2
3. ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS
QUALIFICATION For ASI/Steno and HC(Min)
Intermediate (10+2) or equivalent passed from
recognized board or university.
Skill Test Norm
on Computer
1) For ASI(Steno) – Dictation : 10 mts @ 80 w.p.m.
Translation: 50 mts(English),
65 mts (Hindi)
2) For HC(Min) – Typing on computer – 35
w.p.m in English (30 w.p.m for
SC/ST) or 30 wpm in Hindi.
Note: Typing speed test will be conducted only on
computers.
Note:- Computers for the Typing Test/Shorthand speed will be provided by the
Recruitment Centres.
4. PHYSICAL STANDARD:-
FOR MALE CANDIDATES
1. HEIGHT 165 Cms for General/OBC/SC Candidates. 162.5
Cms for ST Candidates including Adivasis
candidates of all States/UTs.
2. CHEST (For General/OBC/SC candidates)
Minimum 77 Cms with minimum expansion of 5
Cms
(For ST candidates including Adivasis candidates
of all States/UTs)
Minimum 76 Cms with minimum expansion of 5
Cms
3. WEIGHT Proportionate to height and age as per medical
standard in Force.
4 MEDICAL
STANDARDS
Candidate should not have knock knee/flat
foot/varicose veins or squint eye, colour blindness
or any other ailment/deformity, which may render
his /her service unfit in CRPF. They must be in a
good mental and bodily health and free from any
physical defect likely to interfere with the efficient
performance of the duties.
Candidates should be medically fit as per laid
down standards prescribed by the department
during medical examination.
5 VISUAL
STANDARD
Visual standard should be 6/6 right eye and 6/12
left eye or 6/9 both eyes without optical device.
3
FOR FEMALE CANDIDATES
1 HEIGHT 155 Cms for General/OBC/SC including
Gorkha/Garhwalies /Kumaonese/Dogras and
Marathis and 154 Cms for ST Candidates
including Adivasis candidates of all States/UTs.
2 WEIGHT Proportionate to height and age as per medical
standard in Force.
3 MEDICAL
STANDARDS
Same as for Male Candidates.
4 VISUAL
STANDARD
Same as for Male Candidates.
5. AGE LIMIT:
Between 18-25 years as on 16/11/2010 (upper age limit relaxable by 5 years for
SC/ST and 3 years for OBC candidates), 5 years relaxation in upper age limit will be granted
to those Govt. Servants (Other than CRPF persons) who have rendered at least 3 years
continuous and regular service and are working in the posts which are in the same line or
allied cadre of posts, recruitment to which is being advertised.
6. DEPARTMENTAL CANDIDATES FOR HC(M) ONLY:-
1. All Group "D" Employees of CRPF now converted into Group-"C" (CT/Tradesmen)
with five(5) years regular service in Group-'D'.
2. Constables having three (3) years regulars service and fulfilling the following
conditions:-
A) Educational
& Other
Qualification
As required for direct recruitment.
B) AGE Not more than 45 Years (50 Years for SC/ST & 48
Years for OBC).
C) Medical
Category
Category – SHAPE-ONE (Candidates should be
medically fit as per laid down standards
prescribed by the department)
7. STANDARD/CONDITIONS FOR EX-SERVICEMEN:-
a) Physical
Standard
Relaxable. Ex-servicemen with less than two
years break after retirement will be given total
relaxation in physical standards.
b) Educational
Qualification
Matriculate. Ex-servicemen having put in not less
than 15 years service in allied cadre/same line of
duties in Army/Navy/Air Force will also be eligible
to compete the test against the vacancies
reserved for them.
c) Character
Certificate
Minimum requirement will be good character
certificate.
4
d) Medical
Category
Category – AYE -One
e) Age Relaxation to the extent of Military service
rendered plus 3 years as provided in DOP & T
Notification No.39016/10/79-Estt(c) dated
15/12/1979.
f) Break in
Service
Ex-servicemen seeking recruitment in Para
Military Force with more than two years break
after retirement will be recruited only after physical
and medical examinations as well as prior
verification of character and antecedents like other
candidates from open market. It will not be
possible to extend the concession provided to
those Ex-servicemen with less than two years
break after retirement, to others having more than
two years break in service. In case of an exservicemen
who got discharged from Army at own
request before completing 5 years of service will
not be eligible for recruitment.
g) Rank Equivalent.
8. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION/SELECTION PROCEDURE:-
The test for selection shall be held in two phases as under:-
A. FIRST PHASE:-
i) Checking documents
ii) Physical Measurements.
iii)Written examinations
B. SECOND PHASE:-
i) Typing Speed test (Only on Computer)
ii) Short hand speed test (Only for ASI/Steno)
iii) Checking of documents
iv) Interview
v) Medical examination
9. CHECKING DOCUMENTS :-
Candidates should produce the following original documents:-
1) Education certificate of 10th Class/Matriculation from the
recognized board for proof of age.
2) Education certificate of Intermediate (10+2) or equivalent passed
from recognized Board or University.
3) Certificate of Caste if the candidate belongs to SC/ST/OBC,
issued by the Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tahsildar.
4) Discharge certificate for Ex-servicemen candidates.
5) No Objection Certificate by candidates who are already in Government Job.
5
10. PHYSCIAL MEASUREMENT :-
On arrival the candidates shall be screened and only those who satisfy the
educational qualification, Age and minimum physical standards i.e. Height, weight and chest
will be eligible/allowed to appear in written examination. No medical examination will be
carried out at this stage.
11. WRITTEN EXAMINATION
a) The Candidate who satisfy the educational and physical standards and age will
be eligible to appear in written examination consisting of the following four parts:-
Part -I : Hindi/English Language
Part -II : General Intelligence.
Part-III : Numerical Aptitude.
Part-IV : Clerical Aptitude.
There will be only one question paper for two hours duration consisting of above
four parts. The question in all the four parts will be "OBJECTIVE TYPE WITH MULTIPLE
CHOICE" . Each part will be consisting of 50 questions carrying one mark each for right
answer. Thus in total there will be 200 questions. A candidate obtaining qualifying
percentage out of total 200 marks should be considered as qualified. The minimum
qualifying marks of written test are 40% for General Category. For SC/ST/OBC candidates
the pass marks will be 35% i.e 80 Marks for General Candidates and 70 Marks for
SC/ST/OBC Candidates.
Instructions for written examination ;-
i. Candidates who qualify in the Physical and educational standards will be called for
the written examination.
ii. The written examination will be of 200 Marks and will have 200 questions.
iii. Answers to the questions will have to be given in an OMR Sheet provided
iv. Time allotted is two (2) hours.
v. Candidates should write their Roll Number both on the Question Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
vi. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
vii. Each Question Booklet has a Series No. Candidates should enter the Series Number
Correctly on Answer Sheet.
viii.Answer sheets where Booklets Series No. is not entered will not be evaluated.
ix. Each question is followed by four answer choices i.e. a,b,c,d,. Out of these, candidate
has to select the correct answer for each question and mark correct answer by
darkening only one of the choice of four ovals for each question.
x. If more than one oval is darkened, the answer will not be evaluated at all.
xi. Candidate should think and decide clearly before making heavy black marks to fill the
oval completely.
xii. The Answer Sheet shall be handed over to the invigilator before leaving the
examination hall, failing which, the applicant will be liable for disqualification.
xiii.Sufficient space is provided for rough work. The candidates should only use that
space and not use any other paper etc.
6
xiv.The candidates will be allowed to take carbon copy of the answer sheet. Answer key
to the question paper will be displayed on the notice board and also posted on the
website.
xv. The candidate should not write on answer sheet any irrelevant matter, except the
specified items of information called for; if he does so, his Answer Sheet will be
invalidated.
xvi.Candidates are instructed not to bring calculator/cell phone/any other computing
device along with them into the examination hall.
xvii.Candidate should not help other candidates as by doing so, candidate may reduce
his chance of selection and get disqualified.
xviii.Evaluation of answer sheet will be computerized and as such no requests for
revaluation will be entertained.
12. SKILL TEST
i) The candidates who qualify/pass the educational and physical standards and the
written examination in the First Phase, will be called to appear for the Second phase
of test. They will be tested in typewriting and shorthand (Shorthand for ASI/Steno
only), as mentioned in Para-3 (Skill Test) above.
ii) Typing test for the post of ASI(Steno)/HC(Min) will be conducted only on computers.
In no case use of typewriters shall be allowed.
13. INTERVIEW
i. The candidates who obtain the prescribed minimum speed in typewriting /shorthand
will be allowed for interview. The total marks for interview will be 25 only. At the time
of interview the candidates will again produce original certificates/testimonials in
support of their education and date of birth. In addition, they will also produce
original certificates/testimonials in support of higher education, accomplishment in
participating sports, participation in NCC and knowledge and experience in computer,
if any.
14. MEDICAL EXAMINATION;-
i. After interview, the candidates will be subjected to detailed medical examination.
The candidates who have been declared medically fit will only be considered for
appointment, subject to the condition that they secure merit in their respective
categories.
ii. When a candidate is declared unfit for appointment in the CRPF in detailed medical
examination, the grounds for rejection will be communicated to him in broad terms by
Presiding Officer.
iii. Within a period of one month from the date of communication of such grounds for
rejection on medical grounds, the candidate can file an appeal against such
declaration of medical unfitness.
iv. Such an appeal for re-medical examination must be accompanied by a proof of
his/her fitness in the form of medical certificate from any medical practitioner and be
submitted to the DIGP of the concerned centre where his/her test has been
7
conducted. The medical certificate will not be taken into considerations unless it
contains a note by the Medical Practitioner concerned to the effect that it has been
given in full knowledge of the fact that the candidate has already been rejected as
unfit for appointment by the CRPF Medical Officer.
v. The appeal will also not be taken into consideration unless it contains medical reexamination
fee Rs.25/- through Demand Draft in the name of the concerned DIGP.
15. HOW TO APPLY
Application in prescribed form as given in Annexure – "A' duly filled addressed to
the concerned DIGP, Group Centre, should be sent to any of the following centres so as to
reach there on or before 16/11/2010. A candidate shall have the choice to appear for the
test at only one centre. Once the choice is given the centre will not be changed under any
circumstances:-
Sl.
No.
Name of
Centres
To whom applications to be sent (Application
receiving centre)
01 GC, CRPF,
Hyderabad
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Chandrayan Gutta, Keshogiri,
Hyderabad, A.P. - 500005.
02 GC, CRPF,
Guwahati
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, P.O-Amerigog, Guwahati,
Assam – 781023.
03 GC, CRPF,
Silchar
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Udarband, Dayapur, Silchar,
Assam, Pin-788030.
04 GC, CRPF,
Mokameghat
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Mokameghat, Bihar-803303.
05 GC, CRPF,
Muzaffarpur
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, PO: Jhaphan, Via : Uma
Nagar, Distt : Muzaffarpur, Bihar – 842004.
06 GC, CRPF,
Bilaspur
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Bhrani P.O- Ganiyari,
Bilaspur, Chattisgarh – 495001.
07 GC, CRPF,
Jharodakalan
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Jhorada Kalan, New Delhi –
110072.
08 GC, CRPF,
Gandhinagar
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Gandhi Nagar, Ahmedabad,
Gujarat – 382042.
09 GC, CRPF,
Neemuch
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Neemuch, M.P- 458445.
10 GC, CRPF,
Gurgaon
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Gurgaon, Haryana – 122001.
11 GC, CRPF,
Bantalab
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Bantalab, Jammu (J&K) -
181123.
12 CTC (T&IT)
CRPF Ranchi
DIGP, CTC(T&IT), CRPF, Tiril Ashram, P.O-Dhurwa,
Ranchi, Jharkand, 834004.
13 GC, CRPF,
Bangalore
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Yelhanka, Bangalore,
Karnataka – 560064.
14 GC, CRPF,
Pallipuram
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Pallipuram,
Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala – 695316.
8
Sl.
No.
Name of
Centres
To whom applications to be sent (Application
receiving centre)
15 GC, CRPF,
Bhopal
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Bhopal, Vill :Bangrasia,
Taluk: Huzoor, Bhopal (MP) – 462045.
16 GC, CRPF,
Nagpur
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Nagpur, Maharashtra –
440019.
17 GC, CRPF,
Imphal
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Langjing, Imphal Manipur –
795113.
18 GC, CRPF,
Bhubaneswar
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Bhubaneswar, Orissa –
751011.
19 GC, CRPF,
Jallandhar
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, PO: Kartarpur, Distt:
Jallandhar, Punjab – 144801.
20 GC, CRPF,
Ajmer-II
DIGP, Group Centre-II, CRPF, Ajmer, Rajasthan –
305007.
21 GC, CRPF,
Avadi
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Avadi, Chennai, Tamil Nadu
– 600065.
22 GC, CRPF,
Agartala
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Agartala, Tripura –799005.
23 GC, CRPF,
Lucknow
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Lucknow(UP)-226002.
24 GC, CRPF,
Rampur
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Rampur, U.P-244901.
25 GC, CRPF,
Durgapur
DIGP, Group Centre, CRPF, Durgapur, W.B-713214.
The application must be accompanied by the following documents etc.:-
i) Attested copies of certificate /testimonials as proof of educational qualification and
date of birth.
ii) Three recent passport size photographs duly attested by a Gazetted Officer. Out of
which one photo to be pasted on application form and the remaining two will be
attached with the application.
iii) SC/ST/OBC candidates must furnish an attested copy of caste certificate issued by a
Revenue officer not below the rank of Tahsildar.
iv) Every candidates seeking reservation as OBC is required to submit a certificate in
prescribed proforma mentioned in DOP&T OM No.36033/2/94-Estt.(Res), dated
2/07/97 (Copy enclosed as Annexure – 'B'), regarding his/her 'OBC status and noncreamy
layer status' issued by an authority mentioned in DOPT Office Memorandum
No.36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT), dated 15/11/93. In addition to certificate issued by
competent authority, the candidates who are seeking reservation as OBC will furnish
a declaration as under:-
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DECLARATION
" I ________________________ son/daughter of Shri. _________________
resident of village/town/city ________________________ district ________________ state
___________ hereby declare that I belong to the ___________ community which is
recognized as a backward class by the Government of India for the purpose of reservation in
services as per orders contained in DOP&T OM No.36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT) dated 8/09/93.
It is also declared that I do not belong to persons/sections (Creamy Layer) Mentioned in
Column.3 of the Schedule to the above referred Office Memorandum dated 08/09/1993.
Signature of the Candidate
v) Copy of Certificate in support of claim for Adivasi/Mizos/Naga.
vi) Copy of discharge certificate in respect of Ex-servicemen.
vii) Persons serving in Govt./Semi Govt. Departments/offices/ undertakings should
apply through proper channel or should enclose a " No Objection Certificate" from
the employers with the applications.
viii)Two self addressed stamped envelopes (Rs.22/- ) of 25 cm x 12 cm size with full
complete postal address of the candidate neatly written on envelop in Capital
letters. The envelope containing the application must be super scribed in Bold
letters as " APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF ASI(STENO) /HC(MIN) IN CRPF"
as the case may be.
ix) Application fee as per instructions in para 16 below.
Note: Incomplete/incorrect applications and applications without copies of
required documents and application fee will be straightway/summarily rejected.
16. APPLCIATION FEE:-
i. Each application should be accompanied by a Crossed Indian Postal Order (Non
refundable) for Rs.30/- (Rupees thirty only) to be drawn in the name of DIGP, GCCRPF
to whom the application is addressed /sent payable at respective Head Post
Office at that location. However SC/ST candidates are not required to attach
postal orders.
17. DESPATCH OF APPLICATION FORMS:-
i) The candidates may utilize the format as application form and the same duly filled
in should reach any one of the centres of his choice on or before stipulated date.
18. GENERAL INFORMATION
1) The Vancancies so notified are subject to variation and the department has
the right to make any change in the advertisement or cancel it without
assigning any reasons.
2) Success in the examination confers no right to appointment, unless the
department is satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that
the candidate is suitable in all respects for appointment to the service post.
10
3) The application form will not be supplied by this department. Application in the
format as prescribed in Annexure-A must be filled by the candidate in his/her own
hand writing either in Hindi or English. Correction, if any, should be made legibly
and attested by the candidate. Before filling up the application form, the
candidate should read the eligibility conditions for the recruitment carefully to see
if he /she is eligible for the post and candidates should apply only if he/she fulfils
all the conditions to avoid disappointment at a later stage. Applications, which are
not in prescribed format/incomplete will be summarily rejected.
4) The department reserves the right to delete/change any examination centre or
date of examination at its discretion.
5) Request for change of examination centre by the candidate will not be allowed.
6) A candidate will be allowed to appear both for ASI/Steno and HC(Min) test
provided he /she has submitted application for each post separately and paid fee
separately for each application. One combined application form for both posts
will not be entertained.
7) Posts carries all India liability of service and candidates are liable to be posted
any where in India /abroad.
8) All candidates selected under various categories will only be considered for
appointment on occurrence or expected vacancies based on merit/other
conditions laid down and the qualified candidates will have no right to claim their
appointment.
9) New Contributory Pension Scheme to Central Government employees which has
come into effect from 01/01/2004 will be applicable to all selected candidates.
10)The selected candidate will be sent for training at any of the training institutions
of the CRPF. The service of those who fail to complete the training successfully
are liable to be terminated.
11)Govt. strives to have a work force which reflects gender balance and women
candidates are encouraged to apply.
12)Beware of touts. No money is charged for recruitment in CRPF. If you have paid
or promised to pay money to any one, you are cheated, your are losing money. If
any one demands money or promises recruitment, you should immediately inform
the Presiding Officer (PO) of the recruitment board.
19. TENTATIVE TIME SCHEDULE OF EXAMINATION /TEST
1st PHASE
(CHECKING OF DOCUMETS, PHYSICAL MEASUREMENTS, WRITTEN EXAMINATION)
Dated 03/01/2011 to 05/03/2011
2nd PHASE
(COMPUTER TYPING/SHORTHAND TEST, INTERVIEW, MEDICAL EXAMINATION) -
Dated 19/04/2011 to 17/05/2011
Sd/- 06/10/10
( Ram Anuj )
DIG(Adm), CRPF,
for IGP, S/Sector, CRPF.
11
ANNEXURE – "A"
FORM OF APPLICATION FOR RECRUITMENT OF ASI(STENO) & HC(M)
01. Post applied for
02. Name (in block letters)
03. Father's/Husband's Name
Affix recent
passport size
photograph duly
attested by the
Gazetted Officer
04 Whether Male or Female
05. Nationality
06. Permanent Address (in block letters)
07. Present residential Address for
communication (in block letters)
08. State/UT to which you belong
09. Religion
10. Date of Birth
11. Whether belonging to SC/ST/OBC category?
12. Whether belonging to Hillman/
Tribesmen/Adivasi/Mizo/Naga category.
13. Physical standards Height ............... Cms.
Chest ............... Cms (Normal)
............... Cms (Expanded)
Weight............... KGs
14. Speed in Shorthand and Typewriting in case
application is for the post of
ASI(Stenographer)
a) Shorthand
English : ............wpm
Hindi : .............wpm
b) Typewriting
English : ..............wpm
Hindi : ..............wpm
15. Speed in typewriting in case application is for
the post of HC(M)
English : .............wpm
Hindi : .............wpm
16. Medium opted for Stenography and
typewriting test
English/Hindi : ....................
17. Education qualification from matriculation onwards giving year of passing, percentage
of marks/division obtained and subjects taken, including technical qualification etc.
Year of
Passing.
Name of the examination
with Board /University.
% of Marks Division Subjects
taken
Remarks
12
18. Sports achivements, if any
19. Particulars of Extra-curricular activities
20. Have you been a memeber of NCC? If so,
give details of certificates passed.
21. Are you married? If so, state whether you
have more than one spouse living.
22. Have you ever been arrested/
prosecuted/kept under detention/ bound
down /convicted or fined by the court of law?
If so, give details.
23. Have you ever been dismisised/ removed
from Govt. Service or Public Sector service?
If so, give details .
24. Particulrs of present employment, if any
25. Number, date and value of postal order and
issuing authority (furnish in the following
proforma)
Amount Number & date of Postal order Name of the issuing post office.
26. For Departmental candidates only
a) Force Number and Rank,
b) Date of Appointment in CRPF
c) Present CRPF Unit/Office
DECLARATION
I hereby declare that all statements made in this application are true, complete
and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief. In the event of any information being
found false or incorrect or ineligiblity being detected before or after interview/test, my
candidature may be cancelled and all my claims for recruitment be forfeited. I also
understand that if at any stage I am found to have used unfair means in the written
examination/test or to have violated any of the rule/regulation governing the conduct of
selection process, my candidature can be cancelled or be declared to have been failed by
the selection board at its sole discretion.
Place : ..............................
date : ..............................
Signature of the Candidate.
13
Note:-
1) The form should be filled in by the candidate in own hand writing neatly and
legibly in BLOCK LETTERS. It should be completed in all respects and
should be accompainied with cewrtified copies of testimonials.
2) The post applied for should be written clearly in Column No.1 of the
application form.
3) Candidates in service must submit their application through proper channel
with the certificate duly signed by their employers stating their willingness to
release them for service in the CRPF, in case they are selected.
4) If any one who does not fulfill the minimum physical, educational and other
qualification chooses to apply he runs the risk of incurring wasteful
expenditure for which this department accepts no responsibility.
---
14
Annexure – "B"
FORM OF CERTIFICTE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES
APPLYING FOR APPOINTMENT TO POSTS UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
(G.I., Dept. of Per. & Trg. OM No.36033/28/94-Estt.(Res), dated 2/7/1997)
This is to certify that Shri/Smt/Kumari........................................., son/daughter
of ........................................., of village .......................................
District/Division ............................. in the ......................... State ......................... belongs to
the ......................... Community which is recognized as a Backward Class under:-
(i) Government of India, Ministry of Welfare, Resolution No.12011/68/93-BCC(C), dated
the 10th September, 1993 published in the Gazeete of India, Extraordinary, Part-I,
Section-I, No.186 dated the 13th September, 1993.
(ii) Government of India, Ministry of Welfare , Resolution No.12011/9/94-BCC, dated the
19th October, 1994, published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part-I, Section-I,
No.163 dated the 20th October, 1994.
(iii)Government of India, Ministry of Welfare , Resolution No.12011/7/95-BCC, dated the
24th May,1995, published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part-I, Section-I No.88
dated 24th May, 1995.
(iv)Government of India, Ministry of Welfare , Resolution No.12011/44/96-BCC, dated
the 6th December,1996 published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part-I,
Section-I No.210 dated 6th December, 1996.
Shri/Smt/Kumari ............................................. and /or his family ordinarily
reside(s) in the ................. District/Division of the ........................ State. This is also to certify
that he/she does not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy layer) mentioned in Column 3
of the Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel and Training OM
No.36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT) dated 8-9-1993.
Dated :
Seal
District Magistrate ,
Deputy Commissioner etc.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
* strike out whichever is not applicable.

Tuesday, November 2, 2010

CRPF HEAD CONSTABLE MIN. QUESTION PAPER



CRPF HEAD CONSTABLE MIN. EXAM


PART 1

FIND OUT THE SAME

1. DURGA GAYTRI MARG

PHONE 48893939

A. DURGA GAYTRI MARG
PHONE 8893939
B. DURGA AYTRI MARG
PHONE 48893939
C. 1. DURGA GAYTRI MARG
PHONE 48893939
D. 1. DGA GAYTRI MARG
PHONE 48893939

2. AMIT SAHU MAIN BAJAR
DEHRADUN PHONE 4888383

A. AMIT SAAHU MAIN BAJAR
DEHRADUN PHONE 4888383
B. AMIT SADHU MAIN BAJAR
DEHRADUN PHONE 4888383
C. AMIT SAHU MAIN BAJAAR
DEHRADUN PHONE 4888383
D. AMIT SAHU MAIN BAJAR
DEHRADUN PHONE 4888383


3. VINIT SANTI NAGAR
NEAR COAL FACTORY
PIN 2510021

A. VINIT SANTI NAGAR
NEAR COAL FAOTORY
PIN 2510021
B. VINIT SANTI NAGAR
NEAR COAL FACTORY
PIN 2510021
C. VINIT SANTI NAGAR
NEAR COAL FECTORY
PIN 2510021
D. VINIT SANTI NAGAR
NEAR COAL FACTORY
PIN 25100DD


4. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN 474743939

A. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN 74743939
B. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN 474743939
C. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN 47473939
D. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN RQAD
DELHI PIN 474743939


5. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN 474743939
A. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN 474743939
B. ANKIT KUMAR MAEN ROAD
DELHI PIN 474743939
C. ANKIT KUMAR MAN ROAD
DELHI PIN 474743939
D. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN. 474743939


6. RISHI JAIN PRAM HANSH
ROAD BADA BAJAR
A.  RISHI JAIN PRAM HANSH
ROAD BADA BAJAR
B. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN 474743939
C. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN 474743939
D. ANKIT KUMAR MAIN ROAD
DELHI PIN 474743939

7. SUMIT SAHU RANI KA BAAG
NEAR RAILWAY STATION
LUXMI NAGAR
A. SUMIT SAHU RANI. KA BAAG
NEAR RAILWAY STATION
LUXMI NAGAR
B. SUMIT SAHU RANI KA BAAG
NEAR RALWAY STATION
LUXMI NAGAR
C. SUMIT SAHU RANI KA BAAG
NEAR RAILWAY STATION
LUXMI NAGA
D. SUMIT SAHU RANI KA BAAG
NEAR RAILWAY STATION
LUXMI NAGAR

8. RANI JI SADAR MARKET
NEAR MAIN ROAD DELHI
A. RANI JEE SADAR MARKET
NEAR MAIN ROAD DELHI
B. RANI JE SADAR MARKET
NEAR MAIN ROAD DELHI
C. RANI JI SDAR MARKET
NEAR MAIN ROAD DELHI
D. RANI JI SADAR MARKET
NEAR MAIN ROAD DELHI



9. SANU RAJA MOHAN NAGAR
PIN 251001 UTTAR PRADESH

A.  SANU RAJA MOHAN NAGAR
PIN 25100 UTTAR PRADESH
B.  SANU RAJA MOHAN NAGAR
PIN 25100 UTTAR PRADESH
C.  SANU RAJA MOHAN NAGAR
PIN 251005 UTTAR PRADESH
D.  SANU RAJA MOHAN NAGAR
PIN 251001 UTTAR PRADESH


10.  MOHAN DAS NAGAR
PIN 3939303

A.  MOHAN DAS NAGAR
PIN 3939303
B.  MOHAN DAS NAGAR
PIN .3939303
C.  MOHAN DAS NAGAR
PIN.. 3939303
D.  MOHAN DAS NAGAR
PIN 939303



11. 2, OCT. 1988
A. 2 OCT. 1988
B. 2, OCT. 198
C. 2, OCT. 1988
D. 2, OCT 1988


12. 3 MARCH 2003
MONDAY

A.  3 MARCH 203
MONDAY
B.  3 MARCH 20O3
MONDAY
C.  3 MARCH 2003
MONDA
D.  3 MARCH 2003
MONDAY

13. 12 JUNE. 1766 MON.

A. 12 JUNE. 1866 MON.
B. 12 JUN 1766 MON.
C. 12 JUNE. 1766 MON.
D. 12 JUNE. 1766 MON


14. 21 MAY, DAY THU.

A. 21 MAY, DAY TGU.
B. 21 MAY, DAY FRI.
C. 21 MAY, DAY SUN.
D. 21 MAY, DAY THU.

15. 9/01/66

A. 9/01/69
B. 9/01/69
C. 9/07/66
D. 9/01/66


16. 6/6/2006
A. 6/6/2000
B. 6/6/2006
C. 6/6/206
D. 6/06/2006


17. 4/2/2009

A.  4/2/2009
B.  4/2/20000
C.  4/2/2
D.  4/2/20009


18 23/MAY/1980
A. 23/MAY/19.80
B. 23/MAY/19,80
C. 23/MA Y/1980
D. NONE OF ABOVE

19. MANIKAIIDNDHAIY
A. MANIKAIIDNDHAIY
B. MANIKAIIDGDHAIY
C. MANIKAIIDDDHAIY
D. MANIKAIIDDDHAIY


20 AYELURKHAKDI

A. AYELURKHAKDDI
B. AYELURKHAKDDI
C. AYELURKHSAKDI
D. AYELURKHAKDI

21. TYUOIEROQELE
A. TYUOIEROQELE
B. TYUOIERDOQELE
C. TYUAOIEROQELE
D. TYXUOIEROQELE


22. TUOWWNKDKHFJD
A. TUOWWKDKHFJD
B. TUOWWNKDHFJD
C. TUOWWNKDKHFJDD
D. TUOWWNKDKHFJD

23. 73939337483993
A. 73939337483993
B. 7393933483993
C. 73939337 483993
D. 7393937483993


24. %%^^&**((&%%
a.  %%^^&*((&%%
B.  %%^^&*\((&%%
C.  %%^^&**(&%%
D.  %%^^&**((&%%


25. RTIRTI RTI RVI
A.  RTIRTI RVI RVI
B.  RTIRTI RGI RVI
C.  RTIRTI RHHI RVI
D.  RTIRTI RTI RVI


26- 35) THERE ARE SOME CODES
WRITE CORRECT ANSWER ACCORDING
TO THE CODES

WORDS  Q = 11
       Z = 4
       A = 26
       B= 35
       N = 13
       M = 14
       E = 5
       L=  15

26. Q M E M B = ?

27. LZABNMEL= ?

28. BNMELQZBA= ?

29.  LMNBAQ = ?

30.  ELBA = ?

31. NBAAZ = ?

32 LEMNZ = ?


33. LLBEE =?

34 NBZZ =?

35. EBBAQQ = ?


36-50) IF A = 1 B= 2 C= 3......Z =26


36. BARFENE =

37. DKYUANJ =

38. DIDUJFA =

39. KDUFULS =

40. KDURKHEU =


41. ASFDIO =

42. KDJFEL -

43 KDUIORJELA =


44. EOEOOE =

45. OEIROE =

46. DUTIEOAN =

47. IENFKDJN =

48. KDJUR =


49. REIOEPW =


50. KJDKAJEUIEEME =



                              PART - II
Directions (Qs. 1 to 8) :    In these questions, select the
related letters/ words/ numbers/figures from the given
alternatives.
1.    Taste  :  Tongue   :  :   Walk   :   ?
    (a)    Pavement
    (b)    Crutch
    (c)    Legs
    (d)    Walking stick
    Ans:    ( c )    Legs
      
2.    CHIMNEY   :   SMOKE    :   :   ______   :   ______
    (a)    Gun  :  Bullet
    (b)    House   :   Roof
    (c)    Clay   :   Ceramic
    (d)    Tea   :   Kettle
    Ans:    ( a )    Gun  :  Bullet
      
3.    DCHG   :   LIKQP   :   :   FEJI   :   ?
    (a)    MLSR
    (b)    NMRQ
    (c)    ONTS
    (d)    QPUT
    Ans:    ( None )  
      
4.    CAD   :   FDG   :  :   XZW   :   ?
    (a)    IQJ
    (b)    CAD
    (c)    ZBY
    (d)    UWT
    Ans:    ( d )    UWT
      
5.    5  :   124     :  :     7   :   ?
    (a)    342
    (b)    343
    (c)    248
    (d)    125
    Ans:    ( a )    342
      
6.    3265   :   4376     :  :     4673   :   ?
    (a)    2154
    (b)    5487
    (c)    3562
    (d)    5784
    Ans:    ( d )    5784
      
Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) :    In these questions, select the
response which is different from the other three responses.
  
7.    (a)    Telephone
    (b)    Tape-Recorder
    (c)    Transistor
    (d)    Telescope
    Ans:    ( d )    Telescope
  
8.    (a)    Glue
    (b)    Oil
    (c)    Paste
    (d)    Cement
    Ans:    ( b )    Oil
  
9.    (a)    XZUS
    (b)    OQLJ
    (c)    HJFE
    (d)    FHCA
    Ans:    ( c )    HJFE
  
10.    (a)    KNPS
    (b)    RUWZ
    (c)    MPRU
    (d)    PRSU
    Ans:    ( d )    PRSU
      
11.    (a)    26 ? 62
    (b)    36 ? 63
    (c)    46 ? 64
    (d)    56 ? 18
    Ans:    ( d )    56 ? 18
      
12.    (a)    6958
    (b)    7948
    (c)    6895
    (d)    9783
    Ans:    ( d )    9783
      
Directions (Qs. 13) :    In this question, which one set of
letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given
letter series shall complete it ?
13.    m__nm__n__an__a__ma__
    (a)    amammn
    (b)    aammnn
    (c)    ammanm
    (d)    aamnan
    Ans:    ( b )    aammnn
      
Directions (Qs. 14 to 17) :    In these questions, a series is
given with one term missing.   Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
14.    A,  c,  f,  j,  ?,  ?
    (a)    ou
    (b)    mo
    (c)    lp
    (d)    rv
    Ans:    ( a )    ou
      
15.    QYK,   ?,   ISG,   EPE
    (a)    NWJ
    (b)    MVI
    (c)    NVI
    (d)    MVJ
    Ans:    ( b )    MVI
      
16.    10,   22,   46,   94   ?
    (a)    180
    (b)    184
    (c)    190
    (d)    140
    Ans:    ( c )    190
      
17.    110,   132,   156,   ?,   210
    (a)    162
    (b)    172
    (c)    182
    (d)    192
    Ans:    ( c )    182
      
Directions (Qs. 18 to 22) :    In these questions, which one of
the given responses would be a meaningful order of the
following words?
18.    (1)    Book    (2)    Words
(3)    Letters    (4)    Sentences
(5)    Chapters    (6)    Pages
    (a)    3  2  6  5  4  1
    (b)    3  2  5  4  6  1
    (c)    3  2  4  5  6  1
    (d)    3  2  4  6  5  1
    Ans:    ( d )    3  2  4  6  5  1
      
19.    (1)    Probation    (2)    Interview
(3)    Selection    (4)    Appointment
(5)    Advertisement    (6)    Application
    (a)    5  6  4  2  3  1
    (b)    5  6  3  2  4  1
    (c)    5  6  2  3  4  1
    (d)    6  5  4  2  3  1
    Ans:    ( c )    5  6  2  3  4  1
      
20.    If E = 5,  PEN = 35, then PAGE = ?
    (a)    28
    (b)    29
    (c)    36
    (d)    27
    Ans:    ( b )    29
      
21.    If he word ?PORTER? can be coded as ?MBNZQN?,  then how
can ?REPORT? be written?
    (a)    NQMBNZ
    (b)    NQBMNZ
    (c)    NBQMNZ
    (d)    NQMNBZ
    Ans:    ( a )    NQMBNZ
      
22.    In  a certain code, the words ?COME AT ONCE? were
written as XLNVZGLMXV.  In the same code which of the
following would be ?OK? ?
    (a)    LM
    (b)    LP
    (c)    KM
    (d)    KL
    Ans:    ( b )    LP

Directions (Qs. 23) :    In this question, you have to identify
the correct response from the given premises stated
according to following symbols.
23.    If ?+? means ?minus?, ?-? means ?multiplication?, ??
means ?plus? and ?x? means ?division, then
            15 ? 3 + 10 x 5  5 =
    (a)    52
    (b)    48
    (c)    22
    (d)    5
    Ans:    ( b )    48
      
Directions (Qs. 24 ) :    In this question, find the missing
number from the given response.
24.    8    7    10    12
13    12    15    17
10    9    ?    14
    (a)    12
    (b)    10
    (c)    21
    (d)    25
    Ans:    ( a )    12
      

Directions (Qs. 25) :    From the given alternative words
select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word.
25.    Given word :        ADMINISTRATION
    (a)    STATION
    (b)    TRADITION
    (c)    MINISTER
    (d)    RATION
    Ans:    ( c )    MINISTER
      
Directions (Qs. 26) :    A word given in Capital letters is
followed by four answer words.  Out of these only one can be
formed by using the letters of the given word.  Find out
that word.
26.    IMMEDIATELY
    (a)    DIAMETER
    (b)    DICTATE
    (c)    LIMITED
    (d)    DIALECT
    Ans:    ( c )    LIMITED
      
27.    Suresh starts from a point, walks 2 miles towards the
south, turns right and walks 1 ½ miles, turns left and walks
½ mile and then he turns back.  What is the direction he is
facing now?
    (a)    East
    (b)    West
    (c)    South
    (d)    North
    Ans:    ( d )    North
      
28.    Ashok wants to book a ticket to Madurai.  He starts and
covers 5 km to reach the Booking Office which is in the East
of his house.  From there he turns to the North towards the
market by traveling 3 km.  From there he turns left to his
friend Sandeep?s house which is 5 km away.  Now he has to
get back to his house.  How many km he has to cover to reach
his house?
    (a)    8 km
    (b)    3 km
    (c)    5 km
    (d)    6 km
    Ans:    ( b )    3 km
      
29.    The age of X is 2/3rd that of Y.  After 6 years, X will
be 46 years old.  The present age of Y is
    (a)    40 years
    (b)    56 years
    (c)    60 years
    (d)    100 years
    Ans:    ( c )    60 years
      
30.    A is B?s brother, C is A?s mother, D is C?s father, E is
B?s son.  How is D related to A ?
    (a)    Son
    (b)    Grandson
    (c)    Grandfather
    (d)    Great Grandfather
    Ans:    ( c )    Grandfather
      
31.    In a store, 5 articles A, B, C, D and E are priced
differently.  Value of ?C? is Rs. 100.  ?A? is cheaper than
?C? but costlier than ?B?.  ?E? is costlier than ?C? but
cheaper than ?D?.  Which of the articles is the costliest ?
    (a)    D
    (b)    E
    (c)    B
    (d)    A
    Ans:    ( a )    D
      
32.    Read The following information to answer this question :
(i)    A B C D E F are six family members
(ii)    There is one Doctor, one Lawyer, one Engineer, one
Pilot, one Student and one Housewife.
(iii)    There are two married couples in the family.
(iv)    F, who is a Lawyer, is the father of A.
(v)    B is a Pilot and is mother of C.
(vi)    D is grandmother of C and is a housewife.
(vii)    E is father of F and is a Doctor.
(viii)    C is brother of A.
        How many female members are there in the family?
    (a)    One
    (b)    Two
    (c)    Three
    (d)    Four
    Ans:    ( ? )   







                          PART III

 Directions (Qs. 1?15) : Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.  Certain
words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them
while answering some of the questions.
  The wise old Wazir was Famous for his judgement and people
came to him for justice from all parts of the country.
One-day two men came to his court and claimed ownership of
an extraordinarily good-looking horse.  It was a black
beauty indeed.  One of the men was tall, very well dressed
and soft-spoken.  The other one was just the opposite.  Each
of them said that the horse was his.  The Wazir heard them
patiently and asked them to leave the horse and come to him
next morning.  Both the men came the next morning.  The
Wazir asked his soldiers to give the horse to the tall man
and to arrest the other man.  The tall man wanted to know
how the Wazir had learnt the truth.  ?Very simple?, said he,
?Firstly, a man of your appearance and manners could not
have been the thief.  Still, I wanted to be sure, just after
you had left the court.  I asked one of my soldiers to leave
the horse free and to see whom it followed.  It went after
you.  This hint was enough for me.?
1. Which of the following best describes the other man?
 (A) Ill-dressed, short-statured, loud-voice
 (B) Tall, ill-dressed, courteous
 (C) Not well-dressed, short but good mannered
 (D) Thin, poorly-built, harsh in expression
 Ans: ( A ) Ill-dressed, short-statured, loud-voice
 
2. The Wazir discovered the real owner of the horse---
 (A) by arresting the other man
 (B) from the appearance and good manners of the tall man
 (C) by knowing whom the horse followed
 (D) by leaving the horse free
 Ans: ( C ) by knowing whom the horse followed
 
3. With the Wazir?s wisdom, the tall man was--
 (A) consoled
 (B) impressed
 (C) undecided
 (D) confused
 Ans: ( B ) impressed
 
4. People came to the Wazir from all places because he was ---
 (A) a wise judge
 (B) very famous
 (C) an old judge
 (D) an old Wazir
 Ans: ( A ) a wise judge
 
5. The story proves that ---
 (A) the court soldiers were very smart
 (B) the judge was quite old
 (C) the horse was very clever
 (D) the judge was indeed quite intelligent
 Ans: ( D ) the judge was indeed quite intelligent
 
 Directions (Qs. 6?10) : Which of the following is most
nearly the same in meaning as the word/group of words as
printed in bold as used in the passage?
6. Claimed
 (A) Demanded as a right
 (B) Promised
 (C) Declared
 (D) Possessed
 Ans: ( A ) Demanded as a right
 
7. Followed
 (A) Pursued
 (B) Owned
 (C) Went after
 (D) Interrupted
 Ans: ( C ) Went after
 
8. Hint
 (A) Advice
 (B) Clue
 (C) Truth
 (D) Nod
 Ans: ( B ) Clue
 
9. Patiently
 (A) Politely
 (B) Willingly
 (C) Sufficiently
 (D) Calmly
 Ans: ( D ) Calmly
 
10. Still
 (A) However
 (B) Calm
 (C) Quiet
 (D) Though
 Ans: ( A ) However
 
 Directions (Qs. 11?15) : Which of the following is most
opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in
the passage ?
11. Extraordinarily
 (A) Exceptionally
 (B) Unusually
 (C) Exactly
 (D) Plainly
 Ans: ( D ) Plainly
 
12. Sure
 (A) Promising
 (B) Definite
 (C) Unfaithful
 (D) Uncertain
 Ans: ( B ) Definite
 
13. Famous
 (A) Gentle
 (B) Notorious
 (C) Easily known
 (D) Widely known
 Ans: ( B ) Notorious
 
14. Arrest
 (A) Trap
 (B) Imprison
 (C) Catch attention
 (D) Release
 Ans: ( D ) Release
 
15. Enough
 (A) Inadequate
 (B) Sufficient
 (C) Understandable
 (D) Scarce
 Ans: ( D ) Scarce
 
 Directions (Qs. 16?25) : There is a mistake in each of the
following sentences.  Find out the part in which the mistake
occurs.
16. (A) The travel / (B) across the sandy desert / (C) was
an exhausting one / (D) for the caravan.
 Ans: ( A )
 
17. (A) No sooner did / (B) he announce the / (C) tour the
children / (D) screamed with great joy.
 Ans: ( C )
 
18. (A) His only / (B) frame to claim is that / (C) he is
the son of / (D) a rich man.
 Ans: ( B )
 
19. (A) It did not / (B) take me very long / (C) to size up
my / (D) fellow interviewees.
 Ans: ( C )
 
20. (A) I am pleased to sanction / (B) one special increment
/ (C) to all the employees / (D) with this month.
 Ans: ( D )
 
21. (A) I will put on / (B) a note in this regard / (C) for
your consideration / (D) and necessary decision.
 Ans: ( A )
 
22. (A) If the teacher / (B) is good the students / (C) will
respond / (D) positively to them.
 Ans: ( D )
 
23. (A) Rajesh has collected / (B) all the necessary
documents / (C) and have written a good paper / (D) for his
conference.
 Ans: ( C )
 
24. (A) The old chap / (B) who lives in the little / (C) hut
on the beach / (D) seems to be a real odd bird.
 Ans: ( D )
 
25. (A) I have been racking / (B) my brain all the days to
remember / (C) the name of the agency / (D) that Sheila
recommended.
 Ans: ( B )
 
 Directions (Qs. 26?35) : Give one word for each of the
following utterances :
26. A person who does not believe in any religion--
 (A) Philatelist
 (B) Rationaslist
 (C) Atheist
 (D) Pagan
 Ans: ( D ) Pagan
 
27. A post without remuneration--
 (A) Voluntary
 (B) Sinecure
 (C) Honorary
 (D) Involuntary
 Ans: ( C ) Honorary
 
28. A person who rules without consulting the opinion of
others--
 (A) Democrat
 (B) Bureaucrat
 (C) Autocrat
 (D) Fanatic
 Ans: ( C ) Autocrat
 
29. Through which light cannot pass--
 (A) Dull
 (B) Dark
 (C) Obscure
 (D) Opaque
 Ans: ( D ) Opaque
 
30. A person who brings goods illegally into the country--
 (A) Exporter
 (B) Importer
 (C) Smuggler
 (D) Imposter
 Ans: ( C ) Smuggler
 
31. A person who has just started learning--
 (A) Foreman
 (B) Accomplice
 (C) Novice
 (D) Apprentice
 Ans: ( C ) Novice
 
32. A person interested in reading books and nothing else--
 (A) Student
 (B) Book worm
 (C) Scholar
 (D) Book keeper
 Ans: ( B ) Book worm
 
33. One who resides in a country of which he is not citizen--
 (A) Alien
 (B) Native
 (C) Foreigner
 (D) Prodigal
 Ans: ( A ) Alien
 
34. Anything which destroys the effect of poison--
 (A) Serum
 (B) Antiseptic
 (C) Seramycin
 (D) Antidote
 Ans: ( D ) Antidote
 
35. A cure for all diseases--
 (A) Excorcism
 (B) Incantation
 (C) Panacca
 (D) Antibiotic
 Ans: ( C ) Panacca
 
 Directions (Qs. 36?40) : In the following items there is a
word odd in one respect or another from the rest.   Identify
such words.
36. (A) Goal
 (B) Guile
 (C) Gall
 (D) Whole
 Ans: ( D ) Whole
 
37. (A) Whole
 (B) Full
 (C) Fool
 (D) Complete
 Ans: ( C ) Fool

38. (A) On
 (B) Upon
 (C) Than
 (D) Over
 Ans: ( C ) Than
 
39. (A) Bring
 (B) Going
 (C) Coming
 (D) Rinning
 Ans: ( A ) Bring
 
40. (A) A
 (B) An
 (C) The
 (D) That
 Ans: ( D ) That
 
 Directions (Qs. 41?45) : In each question below four words
are given.  One of which is correctly spelt.  Choose the
word with correct spelling.
41. (A) Disguise
 (B) Desguise
 (C) Disguese
 (D) Disgiuse
 Ans: ( A ) Disguise
 
42. (A) Buccaner
 (B) Buccanner
 (C) Bucaneer
 (D) Buccaneer
 Ans: ( D ) Buccaneer
 
43. (A) Experence
 (B) Experince
 (C) Experience
 (D) Exparience
 Ans: ( C ) Experience
 
44. (A) Pionear
 (B) Pioneer
 (C) Pyoneer
 (D) Pienear
 Ans: ( B ) Pioneer
 
45. (A) Achievement
 (B) Achievment
 (C) Acheivement
 (D) Achivement
 Ans: ( A ) Achievement
 
 Directions (Qs. 46?50) : In each of the following passages,
there are blanks each of which has been numbered.  These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each.
Some words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately.  Find out the appropriate words.
 PASSAGE :
We will be crushed if civil ?(46)? is started.  It will be
?(47)? to the clock.  The technique of ?(48)? against it has
been ?(49)?   We may have to wait ?(50)? a year or more for
a suitable



46. (A) riot
 (B) disturbance
 (C) war
 (D) disobedience
 Ans: ( D ) disobedience
 
47. (A) damage
 (B) reversal
 (C) setback
 (D) rewinding
 Ans: ( C ) setback
 
48. (A) defence
 (B) protection
 (C) fighting
 (D) guarding
 Ans: ( C ) fighting
 
49. (A) learnt
 (B) practised
 (C) rehearsed
 (D) perfected
 Ans: ( D ) perfected
 
50. (A) at least
 (B) minimum
 (C) for
 (D) approximately
 Ans: ( A ) at least



                PART IV


101. IF A - 1 B- 2 C - 3 ACDF+ EFC=

102. 12098+547890-9987=


103. 1/2+1/4+1/5=

104. 786543+99087/56=

105. z=1 a =26 c=?

      
106.    The value of 52 + 62 + ???.. + 102 + 202
    (a)    755
    (b)    760
    (c)    765
    (d)    770
    Ans:    ( a )    755
      
107.    The sum of the first 8 terms of a geometric progression
is 6560 and the common ratio is 3.  The first term is
    (a)    1
    (b)    2
    (c)    3
    (d)    4
    Ans:    ( b )    2
      
108.    How many even three-digit numbers can be formed from
the digits 1, 2, 5, 6 and 9 without repeating any of the
digits ?
    (a)    120
    (b)    48
    (c)    40
    (d)    24
    Ans:    ( d )    24
      
109.    A and B, working separately, can do a piece of work in
10 and 15 days respectively.  If they work on alternate days
beginning with A, then in how many days will the work be
completed?
    (a)    18 days
    (b)    13 days
    (c)    12 days
    (d)    6 days
    Ans:    ( c )    12 days
      
110.    Two pipes can fill a tank separately in 20 minutes and
30 minutes respectively.  If both the pipes are opened
simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in
    (a)    10 minutes
    (b)    12 minutes
    (c)    15 minutes
    (d)    25 minutes
    Ans:    ( b )    12 minutes
      
111.    A can complete a work in 6 days while B can complete
the same work in 12 days.  If they work together and
complete it, then the portion of the work done by A is
    (a)    1/3
    (b)    2/3
    (c)    1/4
    (d)    1/2
    Ans:    ( b )    2/3
      
112.    If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 50% and the
height is increased by 50% to form a new cylinder, then the
volume will be decreased by
    (a)    0%
    (b)    25%
    (c)    62.5%
    (d)    75%
    Ans:    ( c )    62.5%
      
113.    The circum-radius of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm.
The in-radius of the triangle is
    (a)    3.25 cm
    (b)    3.50 cm
    (c)    4 cm
    (d)    4.25 cm
    Ans:    ( c )    4 cm
      
114.    The missing term in the sequence 0,  3,  8,  15,  24,
?..,  48
    (a)    35
    (b)    30
    (c)    36
    (d)    39
    Ans:    ( a )    35
      
115.    If (1012 + 25)2 ? (1012 ? 25)2 = 10n, then the value of
n is
    (a)    20
    (b)    14
    (c)    10
    (d)    5
    Ans:    ( b )    14
      
116.    The sum of first sixty numbers from one to sixty is
divisible by
    (a)    13
    (b)    59
    (c)    60
    (d)    61
    Ans:    ( d )    61
      
117.    A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to a
single discount of
    (a)    50.0%
    (b)    56.8%
    (c)    60.2%
    (d)    70.28%
    Ans:    ( b )    56.8%
      
118.    A sells a scooter priced at Rs. 36,000.   He gives a
discount of 8% on the first Rs. 20,000 and 5% on the next
Rs. 10,000.  How much discount can he afford on the
remaining Rs. 6,000 if he is to get as much s 7% discount on
the total ?
    (a)    5%
    (b)    6%
    (c)    7%
    (d)    8%
    Ans:    ( c )    7%
      
119.    The marked price of an electric iron is Rs. 690.  The
shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% and gains 8%.  If no
discount is allowed, then his gain percent would be
    (a)    20%
    (b)    24%
    (c)    25%
    (d)    28%
    Ans:    ( a )    20%
      
120.    The ratio of the ages of two boys is 5 : 6.   After two
years the ratio will be 7 : 8.  The ratio of their ages
after 10 years will be
    (a)    15 : 16
    (b)    17 : 18
    (c)    11 : 12
    (d)    22 : 24
    Ans:    ( a )    15 : 16
      
121.    The sum of three numbers is 116.  The ratio of the
second to the third is 9 : 16 and of the first to the third
is 1 : 4.   The second number is
    (a)    30
    (b)    32
    (c)    34
    (d)    36
    Ans:    ( b )    32
      
122.    Rs. 180 are to be divided among 66 persons (men and
women).  The ratio of the total amount of money received by
men and women is 5 : 4.  But the ratio of the money received
by each man and woman is 3 : 2.  The number of men is
    (a)    20
    (b)    24
    (c)    30
    (d)    36
    Ans:    ( d )    36
      
123.    The average of a collection of 20 measurements was
calculated to be 56 cm.  But later it was found that a
mistake had occurred in one of the measurements which was
recorded as 64 cm, but should have been 61 cm.   The correct
average must be
    (a)    53 cm
    (b)    54.5 cm
    (c)    55.85 cm
    (d)    56.15 cm
    Ans:    ( c )    55.85 cm
      
124.    The average weight of 12 parcels is 1.8 kg.  Addition
of another new parcel reduces the average weight by 50 g.
What is the weight of the new parcel?
    (a)    1.50 kg
    (b)    1.10 kg
    (c)    1.15 kg
    (d)    1.01 kg
    Ans:    ( c )    1.15 kg
      
125.    The average age of 20 boys in a class is 12 years.  5
new boys are admitted to the class whose average age is 7
years.   The average age of the boys in the class becomes
    (a)    8.2 years
    (b)    9.5 years
    (c)    12.5 years
    (d)    11 years
    Ans:    ( d )    11 years
      
126.    If 3x+3 + 7 = 250, the x is equal to
    (a)    5
    (b)    3
    (c)    2
    (d)    1
    Ans:    ( c )    2
      
127.    A die with faces numbered from 1 to 6 is thrown twice.
 The probability, that the numbers shown up differ by 2,  is
    (a)    1/9
    (b)    2/9
    (c)    3/9
    (d)    4/9
    Ans:    ( b )    2/9
      
128.    In the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 15, 20, 29, 40, 53,
one number is wrong.  The wrong number is
    (a)    15
    (b)    20
    (c)    29
    (d)    40
    Ans:    ( a )    15
      
129.    1 + 2 + 3 + ??. + 49 + 50 + 49 + 48 + ??. + 3 + 2 + 1
is equal to
    (a)    1250
    (b)    2500
    (c)    2525
    (d)    5000
    Ans:    ( b )    2500
      
130.    The surface area of a sphere is 64 cm2 its diameter is
equal to
    (a)    16 cm
    (b)    8 cm
    (c)    4 cm
    (d)    2 cm
    Ans:    ( b )    8 cm
      
131.    Each of the height and base radius of a cone is
increased by 100%.  The percentage increase in the volume of
the cone is
    (a)    700%
    (b)    400%
    (c)    300%
    (d)    100%
    Ans:    ( a )    700%
      
132.    A television and a refrigerator were sold for Rs.
12,000 each.  If the television was sold at a loss of 20% of
the cost and the refrigerator at a gain of 20% of the cost,
then the entire transaction resulted in
    (a)    No loss or gain
    (b)    Loss of rs. 1,000
    (c)    Gain of rs. 1,000
    (d)    Loss of Rs. 1,200
    Ans:    ( b )    Loss of rs. 1,000
      
133.    A person sells a table at a profit of 10%.  If he had
bought the table at 5% less cost and sold for Rs. 80 more,
then he would have gained 20%.  The cost price of the table is
    (a)    Rs. 3,200
    (b)    Rs. 2,500
    (c)    Rs. 2,000
    (d)    Rs. 200
    Ans:    ( c )    Rs. 2,000
      
134.    By selling an article at 2/3 of the marked price, there
is a loss of 10%.  The profit percent, when the article is
sold at the marked price, is
    (a)    20%
    (b)    30%
    (c)    35%
    (d)    40%
    Ans:    ( c )    35%
      
135.    A moving train, 66 metres long, overtakes another train
88 metres long, moving in the same direction in 0.168
minutes.  If the second train is moving at 30 km/r, then at
what speed is the first train moving ?
    (a)    85 km/hr
    (b)    50 km/hr
    (c)    55 km/hr
    (d)    25 km/hr
    Ans:    ( a )    85 km/hr
      
136.    A man observed that a train 120 m long crossed him in 9
seconds.  The speed (in km/hr) of the train was
    (a)    42
    (b)    45
    (c)    48
    (d)    55
    Ans:    ( c )    48
      
137.    A constable is 114 metres behind a thief.  The
constable runs 21 metres and the thief 15 metres in a
minute.  In what time will the constable catch the thief ?
    (a)    19 minutes
    (b)    18 minutes
    (c)    17 minutes
    (d)    16 minutes
    Ans:    ( a )    19 minutes
      
138.    Joseph?s salary is reduced by 10%.  In order to have
his salary back to his original amount, it must be raised by
    (a)    12.5%
    (b)    11 1/9 %
    (c)    10%
    (d)    11%
    Ans:    ( b )    11 1/9 %
      
139.    How many positive integers less than 1000 are multiples
of 11 whose square roots are whole numbers ?
    (a)    2
    (b)    4
    (c)    8
    (d)    11
    Ans:    ( a )    2
      
140.    The digit in the unit?s place of the product (2137)754 is
    (a)    1
    (b)    3
    (c)    7
    (d)    9
    Ans:    ( d )    9
      
141.    The smallest square number divisible by 10, 16 and 24 is
    (a)    900
    (b)    1600
    (c)    2500
    (d)    3600
    Ans:    ( d )    3600
      
142.    If the compound interest on a sum of money for 3 years
at the rate of 5% per annum is Rs. 252.20, then the simple
interest on the same sum at the same rate and for the same
time is
    (a)    Rs. 220
    (b)    Rs. 240
    (c)    Rs. 245
    (d)    Rs. 250
    Ans:    ( b )    Rs. 240
      
143.    On a certain sum of money, the compound interest for 2
years is Rs. 282.15 and the simple interest for the same
period of time is Rs. 270.   The rate of interest per annum is
    (a)    6.07%
    (b)    10%
    (c)    9%
    (d)    12.15%
    Ans:    ( c )    9%
      
144.    What sum of money at compound interest will amount to
Rs. 650 at the end of the first year and Rs. 676 at the end
of the second year ?
    (a)    Rs. 600
    (b)    Rs. 600.25
    (c)    Rs. 625
    (d)    Rs. 625.25
    Ans:    ( c )    Rs. 625
      
145.    A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, B
and C together in 15 days and C and A together in 20 days.
In how many days, can A, B and C together do it ?
    (a)    5 days
    (b)    10 days
    (c)    24 days
    (d)    30 days
    Ans:    ( b )    10 days
      
146.    The measures of the angles of a triangle are in the
ratio 2 : 7 : 11.  Measures of the angles are
    (a)    160, 560, 880
    (b)    180, 630, 990
    (c)    200, 700, 900
    (d)    250, 1750, 1050
    Ans:    ( b )    180, 630, 990
      
147.    The ratio of the cost price and the selling price of an
article is 5 : 6.  What is the percentage of profit ?
    (a)    20%
    (b)    15%
    (c)    12.5%
    (d)    10%
    Ans:    ( a )    20%
      
148.    Which number is 40% less than 90 ?
    (a)    36
    (b)    54
    (c)    50
    (d)    60
    Ans:    ( b )    54
      
149.    (32)3 + (79)3 ? (111)3 + 3 x 32 x 79 x 111 is equal to
    (a)    10000
    (b)    0
    (c)    30007
    (d)    1
    Ans:    ( b )    0
      
150.    If the ratio of two numbers is 2 : 3 and their L.C.M.
is 54, then the sum of the two numbers is
    (a)    5
    (b)    15
    (c)    45
    (d)    270
    Ans:    ( c )    45