PART-I :: ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Qs. 1?15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. The wise old Wazir was Famous for his judgement and people came to him for justice from all parts of the country. One-day two men came to his court and claimed ownership of an extraordinarily good-looking horse. It was a black beauty indeed. One of the men was tall, very well dressed and soft-spoken. The other one was just the opposite. Each of them said that the horse was his. The Wazir heard them patiently and asked them to leave the horse and come to him next morning. Both the men came the next morning. The Wazir asked his soldiers to give the horse to the tall man and to arrest the other man. The tall man wanted to know how the Wazir had learnt the truth. ?Very simple?, said he, ?Firstly, a man of your appearance and manners could not have been the thief. Still, I wanted to be sure, just after you had left the court. I asked one of my soldiers to leave the horse free and to see whom it followed. It went after you. This hint was enough for me.? 1. Which of the following best describes the other man? (A) Ill-dressed, short-statured, loud-voice (B) Tall, ill-dressed, courteous (C) Not well-dressed, short but good mannered (D) Thin, poorly-built, harsh in expression Ans: ( A ) Ill-dressed, short-statured, loud-voice 2. The Wazir discovered the real owner of the horse--- (A) by arresting the other man (B) from the appearance and good manners of the tall man (C) by knowing whom the horse followed (D) by leaving the horse free Ans: ( C ) by knowing whom the horse followed 3. With the Wazir?s wisdom, the tall man was-- (A) consoled (B) impressed (C) undecided (D) confused Ans: ( B ) impressed 4. People came to the Wazir from all places because he was --- (A) a wise judge (B) very famous (C) an old judge (D) an old Wazir Ans: ( A ) a wise judge 5. The story proves that --- (A) the court soldiers were very smart (B) the judge was quite old (C) the horse was very clever (D) the judge was indeed quite intelligent Ans: ( D ) the judge was indeed quite intelligent Directions (Qs. 6?10) : Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/group of words as printed in bold as used in the passage? 6. Claimed (A) Demanded as a right (B) Promised (C) Declared (D) Possessed Ans: ( A ) Demanded as a right 7. Followed (A) Pursued (B) Owned (C) Went after (D) Interrupted Ans: ( C ) Went after 8. Hint (A) Advice (B) Clue (C) Truth (D) Nod Ans: ( B ) Clue 9. Patiently (A) Politely (B) Willingly (C) Sufficiently (D) Calmly Ans: ( D ) Calmly 10. Still (A) However (B) Calm (C) Quiet (D) Though Ans: ( A ) However Directions (Qs. 11?15) : Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage ? 11. Extraordinarily (A) Exceptionally (B) Unusually (C) Exactly (D) Plainly Ans: ( D ) Plainly 12. Sure (A) Promising (B) Definite (C) Unfaithful (D) Uncertain Ans: ( B ) Definite 13. Famous (A) Gentle (B) Notorious (C) Easily known (D) Widely known Ans: ( B ) Notorious 14. Arrest (A) Trap (B) Imprison (C) Catch attention (D) Release Ans: ( D ) Release 15. Enough (A) Inadequate (B) Sufficient (C) Understandable (D) Scarce Ans: ( D ) Scarce Directions (Qs. 16?25) : There is a mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out the part in which the mistake occurs. 16. (A) The travel / (B) across the sandy desert / (C) was an exhausting one / (D) for the caravan. Ans: ( A ) 17. (A) No sooner did / (B) he announce the / (C) tour the children / (D) screamed with great joy. Ans: ( C ) 18. (A) His only / (B) frame to claim is that / (C) he is the son of / (D) a rich man. Ans: ( B ) 19. (A) It did not / (B) take me very long / (C) to size up my / (D) fellow interviewees. Ans: ( C ) 20. (A) I am pleased to sanction / (B) one special increment / (C) to all the employees / (D) with this month. Ans: ( D ) 21. (A) I will put on / (B) a note in this regard / (C) for your consideration / (D) and necessary decision. Ans: ( A ) 22. (A) If the teacher / (B) is good the students / (C) will respond / (D) positively to them. Ans: ( D ) 23. (A) Rajesh has collected / (B) all the necessary documents / (C) and have written a good paper / (D) for his conference. Ans: ( C ) 24. (A) The old chap / (B) who lives in the little / (C) hut on the beach / (D) seems to be a real odd bird. Ans: ( D ) 25. (A) I have been racking / (B) my brain all the days to remember / (C) the name of the agency / (D) that Sheila recommended. Ans: ( B ) Directions (Qs. 26?35) : Give one word for each of the following utterances : 26. A person who does not believe in any religion-- (A) Philatelist (B) Rationaslist (C) Atheist (D) Pagan Ans: ( D ) Pagan 27. A post without remuneration-- (A) Voluntary (B) Sinecure (C) Honorary (D) Involuntary Ans: ( C ) Honorary 28. A person who rules without consulting the opinion of others-- (A) Democrat (B) Bureaucrat (C) Autocrat (D) Fanatic Ans: ( C ) Autocrat 29. Through which light cannot pass-- (A) Dull (B) Dark (C) Obscure (D) Opaque Ans: ( D ) Opaque 30. A person who brings goods illegally into the country-- (A) Exporter (B) Importer (C) Smuggler (D) Imposter Ans: ( C ) Smuggler 31. A person who has just started learning-- (A) Foreman (B) Accomplice (C) Novice (D) Apprentice Ans: ( C ) Novice 32. A person interested in reading books and nothing else-- (A) Student (B) Book worm (C) Scholar (D) Book keeper Ans: ( B ) Book worm 33. One who resides in a country of which he is not citizen-- (A) Alien (B) Native (C) Foreigner (D) Prodigal Ans: ( A ) Alien 34. Anything which destroys the effect of poison-- (A) Serum (B) Antiseptic (C) Seramycin (D) Antidote Ans: ( D ) Antidote 35. A cure for all diseases-- (A) Excorcism (B) Incantation (C) Panacca (D) Antibiotic Ans: ( C ) Panacca Directions (Qs. 36?40) : In the following items there is a word odd in one respect or another from the rest. Identify such words. 36. (A) Goal (B) Guile (C) Gall (D) Whole Ans: ( D ) Whole 37. (A) Whole (B) Full (C) Fool (D) Complete Ans: ( C ) Fool 38. (A) On (B) Upon (C) Than (D) Over Ans: ( C ) Than 39. (A) Bring (B) Going (C) Coming (D) Rinning Ans: ( A ) Bring 40. (A) A (B) An (C) The (D) That Ans: ( D ) That Directions (Qs. 41?45) : In each question below four words are given. One of which is correctly spelt. Choose the word with correct spelling. 41. (A) Disguise (B) Desguise (C) Disguese (D) Disgiuse Ans: ( A ) Disguise 42. (A) Buccaner (B) Buccanner (C) Bucaneer (D) Buccaneer Ans: ( D ) Buccaneer 43. (A) Experence (B) Experince (C) Experience (D) Exparience Ans: ( C ) Experience 44. (A) Pionear (B) Pioneer (C) Pyoneer (D) Pienear Ans: ( B ) Pioneer 45. (A) Achievement (B) Achievment (C) Acheivement (D) Achivement Ans: ( A ) Achievement Directions (Qs. 46?55) : In each of the following passages, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each. Some words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. PASSAGE : We will be crushed if civil ?(46)? is started. It will be ?(47)? to the clock. The technique of ?(48)? against it has been ?(49)? We may have to wait ?(50)? a year or more for a suitable ?(51)? to be created. Any hasty ?(52)? may result in complete ?(53)? Labour troubles will ?(54)? to violence and there will be ?(55)? discord. 46. (A) riot (B) disturbance (C) war (D) disobedience Ans: ( D ) disobedience 47. (A) damage (B) reversal (C) setback (D) rewinding Ans: ( C ) setback 48. (A) defence (B) protection (C) fighting (D) guarding Ans: ( C ) fighting 49. (A) learnt (B) practised (C) rehearsed (D) perfected Ans: ( D ) perfected 50. (A) at least (B) minimum (C) for (D) approximately Ans: ( A ) at least 51. (A) condition (B) climate (C) atmosphere (D) weather Ans: ( B ) climate 52. (A) decision (B) work (C) deed (D) action Ans: ( D ) action 53. (A) demoralization (B) doom (C) disobedience (D) disaster Ans: ( D ) disaster 54. (A) draw (B) take (C) lead (D) grow Ans: ( C ) lead 55. (A) labour (B) communal (C) religious (D) community Ans: ( B ) communal Directions (Qs. 56?60) : In each question below four words are given, one of which is wrongly spelt. Find out that word the spelling of which is wrong. 56. (A) Merriment (B) Meridean (C) Marauder (D) Morose Ans: ( B ) Meridean 57. (A) Neightingale (B) Nectar (C) Notion (D) Nickel Ans: ( A ) Neightingale 58. (A) Forsake (B) Finance (C) Former (D) Flevour Ans: ( D ) Flevour 59. (A) Romance (B) Receipt (C) Racket (D) Resticate Ans: ( D ) Resticate 60. (A) Pirate (B) Pesimist (C) Patriot (D) Passion Ans: ( B ) Pesimist Direction (Qs. 61?65) : Rearrange the given six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence so as o form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below them. (a) Miss Sullivan arrived at the Keller home when Helen was seven. (b) The deaf and blind Helen learned to communicate verbally. (c) But eventually, Miss Sullivan?s effort was rewarded. (d) Before Helen Keller was two years old, she lost her sight and her hearing. (e) Miss Sullivan worked closely with Helen, her new student. (f) At times, the teacher became frustrated. 61. Which sentence should come first in the sequence ? (A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d Ans: ( D ) d 62. Which sentence should come last in the sequence ? (A) b (B) c (C) d (D) e Ans: ( A ) b 63. Which sentence should come fourth in the sequence ? (A) c (B) d (C) e (D) f Ans: ( D ) f 64. Which sentence should come third in the sequence ? (A) c (B) d (C) e (D) f Ans: ( C ) e 65. Which sentence should come second in the sequence ? (A) a (B) b (C) d (D) e Ans: ( A ) a Directions (Qs. 66-75) : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 66. We will be ??????? her on Friday at Madan?s house. (A) talking (B) taking (C) meet (D) seeing Ans: ( D ) seeing 67. We will be late if we ???? not leave now. (A) will (B) shall (C) do (D) did Ans: ( C ) do 68. Much against her wishes, Munni?s father ???? her to give up studies. (A) requested (B) encouraged (C) adviced (D) compelled Ans: ( D ) compelled 69. Mr. Ashoka said that it was all that he ???? collect from him. (A) shall (B) could (C) will (D) may Ans: ( B ) could 70. The Governor of the State is going to ???? away the prizes to the winners. (A) given (B) giving (C) gave (D) give Ans: ( D ) give 71. They were grateful for ???? bread we gave them. (A) a (B) an (C) the (D) some Ans: ( C ) the 72. We decided to stay at ???? hotel in the center of the town. (A) a (B) an (C) the (D) some Ans: ( A ) a 73. It is ???? pleasure to do business with such an efficient organization. (A) a (B) some (C) the (D) any Ans: ( A ) a 74. The guide knows ???? way. (A) a (B) an (C) the (D) any Ans: ( C ) the 75. I first met him ???? year ago. (A) a (B) an (C) the (D) very Ans: ( A ) a Directions (Qs. 76?80) : In the following sentences a blank is given. Fill in the blank with the appropriate preposition. 76. Anju?s marriage ???? Manoj was tumultuous. (A) of (B) with (C) between (D) to Ans: ( B ) with 77. The examinee could guess ???? the answer correctly. (A) with (B) of (C) about (D) at Ans: ( D ) at 78. He has reigned himself ???? fate. (A) in (B) into (C) for (D) to Ans: ( D ) to 79. He persisted ???? saying so. (A) on (B) in (C) with (D) over Ans: ( B ) in 80. You must remember this lesson word ???? word. (A) by (B) to (C) on (D) for Ans: ( D ) for Directions (Qs. 81?85) : In the following questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it. 81. 1. Diwali is the feat of lights. P. Even the house of the poorest has a few candles burning. Q. On this night, thousands of lamps are lit in every town. R. It is celebrated in every part of the country. S. All the houses, shops and buildings are illuminated with earthen lamps or candles. 6. Young and old, rich and poor?all enjoy a holiday. (A) P R Q S (B) Q P R S (C) S Q P R (D) R Q S P Ans: ( D ) R Q S P 82. 1. Smoke oozed up between the planks. P. Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship. Q. The rising gale fanned the smouldering fire. R. Every one now knew there was a fire on board. S. Flames broke out here and there. 6. Most people bore the smoke bravely. (A) Q P S R (B) Q S R P (C) R S P Q (D) S R Q P Ans: ( D ) S R Q P 83. 1. It is very easy to acquire bad habits. P. If we do not continue to do it, we feel unhappy. Q. The more we do a thing, the more we tend to like doing it. R. The force of habit should be fought against. S. This is called the force of habit. 6. Even good things should be done from time to time only. (A) P S Q R (B) Q P S R (C) R P S Q (D) S Q R P Ans: ( B ) Q P S R 84. 1. Once upon a time an ant lived on the blank of a river. P. The dove saw the ant struggling in water in a helpless condition. Q. All its efforts to come up failed. R. One day it suddenly slipped into the water. S. A dove lived in a tree on the bank not far from the spot. 6. She was touched. (A) P Q R S (B) Q R P S (C) R Q S P (D) S R P Q Ans: ( C ) R Q S P 85. 1. We and all other animals breathe in and breathe out air all the time. P. If we stop breathing we die. Q. It is because of this fact that we are able to live. R. It is called the atmosphere. S. All parts of the earth are surrounded by air. 6. It is a part of the earth. (A) P Q R S (B) P R Q S (C) Q P S R (D) S R Q P Ans: ( C ) Q P S R Directions (Qs. 86?95) : Each of the following idioms/phrases is followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses its meaning. 86. To keep one?s head (A) To be agile and active (B) To keep calm (C) To think coherently (D) None of these Ans: ( B ) To keep calm 87. To give up the ghost (A) To suffer (B) To fight evil forces (C) To die (D) To become rational Ans: ( C ) To die 88. To smell a rat (A) To detect bad smell (B) To misunderstand (C) To suspect a trick or deceit (D) To see hidden meaning Ans: ( C ) To suspect a trick or deceit 89. To get cold feet (A) To run for life (B) To fall sick (C) To be afraid (D) To become discourteous Ans: ( C ) To be afraid 90. Something up one?s sleeve (A) A secret plan (B) A grand idea (C) A profitable plan (D) Something important Ans: ( A ) A secret plan 91. To see red (A) To be very angry (B) To victimise someone (C) To find fault with (D) To criticise others Ans: ( C ) To find fault with 92. Hard-Pressed (A) Bewilde red (B) Insulted (C) Hard discipline (D) In difficulties Ans: ( D ) In difficulties 93. In a jiffy (A) In a moment (B) In a hurry (C) Immediately (D) In a funny mood Ans: ( A ) In a moment 94. To cool one?s heels (A) To rest for sometime (B) To give no importance to someone (C) To remain in a comfortable position (D) To be kept waiting for sometime Ans: ( D ) To be kept waiting for sometime 95. Spick and span (A) Neat and clean (B) Out spoken (C) A ready-made thing (D) Garrulous Ans: ( A ) Neat and clean Directions (Qs. 96?100) : The words of a readable sentence are jumbled. Each word has a number. Choose the right choice of numbers which represents the correct arrangement of the sentence. 96. 1. Solomon 2. for 3. was 4. wisdom 5. famous 6. his (A) 1 3 5 2 6 4 (B) 4 2 1 3 6 5 (C) 1 5 3 2 4 6 (D) 4 1 2 5 6 3 Ans: ( A ) 1 3 5 2 6 4 97. 1. of 2. the 3. gift 4. wisdom 5. is 6. heaven (A) 6 2 3 4 1 5 (B) 6 5 2 3 1 4 (C) 2 4 5 6 1 3 (D) 4 5 2 3 1 6 Ans: ( D ) 4 5 2 3 1 6 98. 1. hearing 2. promise 3. a 4. I 5. fair 6. you (A) 6 2 3 1 5 4 (B) 4 2 6 3 5 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 6 5 (D) 2 1 4 6 5 3 Ans: ( B ) 4 2 6 3 5 1 99. 1. a 2. slight 3. cold 4. has 5. child 6. that (A) 1 2 5 4 3 6 (B) 2 3 1 5 4 6 (C) 6 5 4 1 2 3 (D) 2 4 3 6 1 5 Ans: ( C ) 6 5 4 1 2 3 100. 1. cross 2. child 3. a 4. is 5. liked 6. not (A) 3 1 2 6 4 5 (B) 3 1 2 4 6 5 (C) 2 1 5 3 6 4 (D) 5 2 1 3 4 6 Ans: ( B ) 3 1 2 4 6 5
Thursday, September 30, 2010
ENGLISH SET PAPER FOR UPCOMING EXAMS STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
Wednesday, September 29, 2010
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL (TIER-II) RE-EXAMINATION
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL (TIER-II) RE-EXAMINATION, 2010 - Declaration of Written Result of Re-Examination for calling Candidates for Tier-III Test of Interview / Skill Test as applicable. Due to some administrative reasons, re-examination of Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination, 2010 for Paper-I at one Sub-Centre in Patna was held on 12.09.2010 in respect of some of the candidates who were declared qualified on the basis of the Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Examination, 2010. 2. Following are the details of candidates who have qualified for Interview /Skill Test for the different posts on the same cut-off as under:- (I) Candidates qualified for Interview/Skill Test (Tier-III) Examination for the posts of Assistants in CSS Cadre (M), Assistants in non-CSS Cadre and Inspector of Posts (N), Inspector in Central Excise /Preventive Officer /Examiner (O), Sub-Inspector in CBI (P) and Inspector of Income Tax /Assistant Enforcement Officer (Q): Category SC ST OBC EXS PH HH VH UR TOTAL Cut Off Marks [T-I + T-II (P-I+P-II)] 364 353 398 355 357 357 357 424 - Candidates Available 2 - 20 - 4 - - 11 37 (II) Additional candidates for the post of Assistants in CSS cadre only on lower cut-off:– Category SC ST OBC EXS PH HH VH UR TOTAL Cut Off Marks [T-I + T-II (P-I+P-II)] 361 352 396 - - - - 421 - Candidates Available - - 2 - - - - 1 3 (III) For post of Tax Assistants in (Central Excise and Income Tax) only:– Category SC ST OBC EXS PH HH VH UR TOTAL Cut Off Marks [T-I + T-II (P-I+P-II)] 343 333 378 313 336 254 268 406 - Candidates Available 4 1 17 1 - 1 - 10 34 3. The result of candidates for the post of Sub Inspector in CPOs for interview has been declared separately. 4. Any candidate qualifying for Interview for more than one posts as mentioned in Para 2 (I), Para 2 (II) and SI in CPO, will be required to appear in Interview only once.
5. The above results are based on data sent by Regional Office of the Commission and are subject to verification of their options furnished in the Application Form. Inclusion of any candidate in any of the list of the post for which he/she has not opted will not confer any right on his/her consideration for any post for which he/she had not exercised option. 6. The lists herein are PROVISIONAL. The candidates whose Roll Numbers figure in the lists would be called for Interview/Skill Test subject to their fulfilling all the eligibility conditions/requirements as prescribed for the respective posts in the 'Notice' of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, preference, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. If on verification from the application form, it is found that any candidate does not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, he/she will not be called for the Interview/Skill Test. 7. The category status in respect of candidates belonging to reserved categories has been indicated along with their roll numbers. It is important for candidates belonging to the reserved category for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per Government policy, to note that if any of them does not actually belong to the category shown against his/her roll number, he/she may not be eligible for appearing in the Interview. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to contact immediately the respective Regional Office of the Commission if they do not belong to the category shown against their roll numbers. If there is discrepancy between Roll Number and Name of any candidate, he/she is advised to report the matter to the concerned Regional Director immediately. 8. The result for the posts of Divisional Accountants (R), Auditor/Junior Accountants /UDCs (T) for which there is no Interview (Tier-III Examination) will be declared later on based on the performance of the candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II Examinations after finalization of the results of other posts. 9. Call letters for the Interviews/Skill Tests and detail instructions for Skill Test will be sent to the concerned candidates by SSC, Allahabad shortly. If any candidate does not receive the call letter in due course, he/she may contact the Regional Office of the Commission. Format of the Skill Test is available on the website of the Commission. 10. The result is available on the Commission's website: http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. The SSC, Allahabad Office of the Commission has also been advised to place the results on their respective website. 11. Marks of the candidates would be made available only after the declaration of final result is view of Para 8. (Vandana Sethi) Deputy Secretary(C-I) 28.09.2010
5. The above results are based on data sent by Regional Office of the Commission and are subject to verification of their options furnished in the Application Form. Inclusion of any candidate in any of the list of the post for which he/she has not opted will not confer any right on his/her consideration for any post for which he/she had not exercised option. 6. The lists herein are PROVISIONAL. The candidates whose Roll Numbers figure in the lists would be called for Interview/Skill Test subject to their fulfilling all the eligibility conditions/requirements as prescribed for the respective posts in the 'Notice' of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, preference, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. If on verification from the application form, it is found that any candidate does not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, he/she will not be called for the Interview/Skill Test. 7. The category status in respect of candidates belonging to reserved categories has been indicated along with their roll numbers. It is important for candidates belonging to the reserved category for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per Government policy, to note that if any of them does not actually belong to the category shown against his/her roll number, he/she may not be eligible for appearing in the Interview. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to contact immediately the respective Regional Office of the Commission if they do not belong to the category shown against their roll numbers. If there is discrepancy between Roll Number and Name of any candidate, he/she is advised to report the matter to the concerned Regional Director immediately. 8. The result for the posts of Divisional Accountants (R), Auditor/Junior Accountants /UDCs (T) for which there is no Interview (Tier-III Examination) will be declared later on based on the performance of the candidates in Tier-I and Tier-II Examinations after finalization of the results of other posts. 9. Call letters for the Interviews/Skill Tests and detail instructions for Skill Test will be sent to the concerned candidates by SSC, Allahabad shortly. If any candidate does not receive the call letter in due course, he/she may contact the Regional Office of the Commission. Format of the Skill Test is available on the website of the Commission. 10. The result is available on the Commission's website: http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. The SSC, Allahabad Office of the Commission has also been advised to place the results on their respective website. 11. Marks of the candidates would be made available only after the declaration of final result is view of Para 8. (Vandana Sethi) Deputy Secretary(C-I) 28.09.2010
CPO SI 2010 RESULT NOTICE
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors in Central Police Organisations through Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2010. Declaration of result of written examination for calling the candidates for Interview. While declaring the result of Tier-II Examination of Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2010, it was mentioned in Para 4 of the write-up that the result of the candidates for the post of Sub-Inspector in CPOs will be declared after completion of PET and Medical Test. PET and Medical Test of the candidates who qualified in Tier-I Examination has now been completed. 2. Following is the list of all 1324 candidates (1297 Male and 27 Female) who appeared in Tier-I and Tier-II for the said post and who qualified in PET & found medically fit, are eligible for being called for the Interview. Keeping in view the low number of candidates qualified in PET /Medical Test, all such candidates have been selected for the interview. 3. The category-wise availability of male and female candidates are as under: MALE: Category SC ST OBC ExS UR TOTAL Candidates available 128 332 450 23 364* 1297 * includes 1 PH candidate. FEMALE: Category SC ST OBC UR TOTAL Candidates available 5* 2 14 6 27 * includes 1 HH candidate. Note:- * PH /HH candidates are not eligible for the said post. Verification of their category will be done by the concerned Regional Office of the Commission and if the above candidates (one PH male and one HH female) actually belong to PH/HH, their candidature will be cancelled. 4. Any candidate qualifying for Interview for other post(s) also, will be required to appear in Interview only once. 5. This list is PROVISIONAL. The candidates whose roll numbers figure in the list would be called for Interview subject to their fulfilling all the eligibility conditions/requirements as prescribed for the post in the 'Notice' of this Examination and further subject to their having exercised option for CPOs in their original application.
6. The category status in respect of candidates belonging to the reserve category has been indicated along with their roll numbers. It is important for such candidates for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per the policy of the Government, to note that some of them may have been declared qualified for the Interview in the category mentioned against their roll numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned against his/her roll number, he/she may not be eligible to be called for the Interview. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to contact immediately the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the categories shown against their roll numbers. If there is discrepancy between Roll Number and Name of any candidate, he/she is advised to report the matter to the concerned Regional Director immediately. 7. The interview schedule of the short-listed candidates would be finalized and call letters would be issued by the respective Regional Offices of Commission in due course. 8. The list of candidates herein is also available on the Commission's Website: http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. (Vandana Sethi) Deputy Secretary (C.I) 28.09.2010
6. The category status in respect of candidates belonging to the reserve category has been indicated along with their roll numbers. It is important for such candidates for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per the policy of the Government, to note that some of them may have been declared qualified for the Interview in the category mentioned against their roll numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned against his/her roll number, he/she may not be eligible to be called for the Interview. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to contact immediately the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the categories shown against their roll numbers. If there is discrepancy between Roll Number and Name of any candidate, he/she is advised to report the matter to the concerned Regional Director immediately. 7. The interview schedule of the short-listed candidates would be finalized and call letters would be issued by the respective Regional Offices of Commission in due course. 8. The list of candidates herein is also available on the Commission's Website: http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. (Vandana Sethi) Deputy Secretary (C.I) 28.09.2010
SSC STENOGRAPHERS GRADE C AND GRADE D EXAM GENERAL AWARENESS ANSWER KEY SSC STENO ANSWER KEY
65 B ACID RAIN
66 A AMMETER
67 B RAVI
68
69
70 D CENTRAL STATISTICAL ORGANISATION
71 A UNIVERSAL BROTHERHOOD
72 B TRINIDAD AND TOBAGO
73 C MANMOHAN SINGH
74 RATAN KUMAR SINHA
75 B
76 D 1 2 4 3
77 A COALFIELDS
78 B DADABHAI NAUROJI
79 B GROWTH IN NATIONAL INCOME AT CURRENT PRICES
80 A CORNEA
81 A ORISSA COAST
82 D RICE
83 A SRINAGAR AND LEH
84 B PROTEINS
85 D
86 D 4 3 1 2
87 B
88 A ANTIBIOTICS
89 D HURRICANE
90 D HIGHLY VOLATILE
91 C ARJUN VAJPAI
92 B NICOTINE
93 D CONGRESS
94 A PAROTID GLAD
95 C PHILLIPP LAHM
96 A U.N GENERAL ASSEMBLY
97B 40
98 A ENERGY
99 B LIVER
100 B LIQUID METAL
101
102
103 B GOA
104 C THE DEPUTY SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
105 B COTTON, OIL SEEDS, JUTE AND SUGARCANE
106 D SAMUDRAGUPTA
107 B MYOPIA
108 A WAREN HASTINGS
109 SAROSH HOMI KAPADIA
110 WATER
111 C DIAMOND MINES
112 A
113 B SPLEEN
114 B STEPTOMYCIN
I AM NOT RESPONSIBLE FOR ANY INCORRECT ANSWER.
66 A AMMETER
67 B RAVI
68
69
70 D CENTRAL STATISTICAL ORGANISATION
71 A UNIVERSAL BROTHERHOOD
72 B TRINIDAD AND TOBAGO
73 C MANMOHAN SINGH
74 RATAN KUMAR SINHA
75 B
76 D 1 2 4 3
77 A COALFIELDS
78 B DADABHAI NAUROJI
79 B GROWTH IN NATIONAL INCOME AT CURRENT PRICES
80 A CORNEA
81 A ORISSA COAST
82 D RICE
83 A SRINAGAR AND LEH
84 B PROTEINS
85 D
86 D 4 3 1 2
87 B
88 A ANTIBIOTICS
89 D HURRICANE
90 D HIGHLY VOLATILE
91 C ARJUN VAJPAI
92 B NICOTINE
93 D CONGRESS
94 A PAROTID GLAD
95 C PHILLIPP LAHM
96 A U.N GENERAL ASSEMBLY
97B 40
98 A ENERGY
99 B LIVER
100 B LIQUID METAL
101
102
103 B GOA
104 C THE DEPUTY SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
105 B COTTON, OIL SEEDS, JUTE AND SUGARCANE
106 D SAMUDRAGUPTA
107 B MYOPIA
108 A WAREN HASTINGS
109 SAROSH HOMI KAPADIA
110 WATER
111 C DIAMOND MINES
112 A
113 B SPLEEN
114 B STEPTOMYCIN
I AM NOT RESPONSIBLE FOR ANY INCORRECT ANSWER.
SSC STENOGRAPHERS GRADE C AND GRADE D EXAM REASONING ANSWER KEY SSC STENO ANSWER KEY
SSC STENOGRAPHERS GRADE C AND GRADE D EXAMINATION 2010 GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING ANSWER KEY
1. D HRIS
2. D GRASS
3. C
4. D 59 - 39
5. A
6. C 5-25
7. A GIRAFFE
8. C UVWX
9. B TEXT
10. D RUBBER- ERASE
11. D
12. D HISTORY
13. C MINE
14. D
15 B 82
16. D CPNS
17. B 223
18. C XVTR
19. B 19
20 B
21 A XVY
22.
23 A
24 B 1111
25 C
26 D V
27 C 66
28 A QRDE
29 C baaba
30 D 3 2 4 6 5 1
31 A 3 4 5 1 2
32 A 34
33 D SON IN LOW
34 I THINK QUESTION IS NOT CORRECT
35 C 92
36 C
37 A 8
38 D 10+2*1=6
39 A AEROGRAM
40 C OPTION
41 B BF
42 B ONLY CONCLUSION II IS VALID
43 D NEITHER I NOR II IS IMPLICIT
44 B
45 C
46 D 6
47 A
48 D 4
49 D 10
50 A
I AM NOT RESPONSIBLE IF ANY ANSWER IS INCORRECT.
1. D HRIS
2. D GRASS
3. C
4. D 59 - 39
5. A
6. C 5-25
7. A GIRAFFE
8. C UVWX
9. B TEXT
10. D RUBBER- ERASE
11. D
12. D HISTORY
13. C MINE
14. D
15 B 82
16. D CPNS
17. B 223
18. C XVTR
19. B 19
20 B
21 A XVY
22.
23 A
24 B 1111
25 C
26 D V
27 C 66
28 A QRDE
29 C baaba
30 D 3 2 4 6 5 1
31 A 3 4 5 1 2
32 A 34
33 D SON IN LOW
34 I THINK QUESTION IS NOT CORRECT
35 C 92
36 C
37 A 8
38 D 10+2*1=6
39 A AEROGRAM
40 C OPTION
41 B BF
42 B ONLY CONCLUSION II IS VALID
43 D NEITHER I NOR II IS IMPLICIT
44 B
45 C
46 D 6
47 A
48 D 4
49 D 10
50 A
I AM NOT RESPONSIBLE IF ANY ANSWER IS INCORRECT.
Tuesday, September 28, 2010
BSF 19857 VACANCIES OF CONSTABLE GD
Recruitment of Constable (General Duty - GD) in BSF
Applications are invited from male Indian citizens belonging to all States and UTs for appointment to Group 'C' post of Constable (GD) in the BSF
Constable (GD) : 19857 posts in various states and UTs, Age : 18-23 years as on 01/08/2010 (Relaxation as per GoI rules), Pay Band : PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 + Grade pay Rs.2000
App,lication Form : Application should be forwarded in the OMR Application Form which will be available in all district headquarters in all over India from 04/10/2010 to 23/10/2010.
Last Date : application should reach the concerned addresses on or before 03/11/2010.
How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format on white paper should be sent to corresponding centre as prescribed in the detailed advertisement.
For more information and application form, please view http://www.bsf.nic.in/recruitment/r284.pdf
STATE BANK OF INDIA VACANCIES
STATE BANK Of INDIA (SBI)
Central Recruitment & Promotion Department (CRPD) Corporate Centre, Mumbai
Recruitment of 6100 Clerical Staff in Associte Banks State Bank of India (SBI)
Central Recruitment & Promotion Department, State Bank of India, Corporate Centre, Mumbai invites Online applications from Indian citizens for appointment of 6100 Clerical Cadre posts in State Bank of India Associate Banks (State Bank of Travancore, State Bank of Suarashtra, State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Indore, State Bank of Patiala etc.) upto 01/11/2010 :
* Clerical Cadre : 6100 posts in various states in India (see detailed advt. for Bank-wise, State-wise and Category-wise vacancies) , Pay Scale : Rs.7200-19300/-, Qualification : Minimum 12th Standard (10+2) or equivalent qualification thereof with a minimum of 60% marks (55% for SC/ST/PWD/XS) OR A degree from a recognised university (graduation level) with a minimum of 40% marks (35% for SC/ST/PWD/XS). Matriculate Ex-Servicemen, who have obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or the Air Force, who have put in not less than 15 years of service in Armed Forces of the Union are also eligible for the post. Should be able to write and speak English fluently. must be fluent in speaking and writing the Regional Language of the state from which they are selected. Knowledge of other Indian language will be an added qualification., Age : 18-28 years. Age relaxation as per Govt. rules.
Selection Procedure : Final selection will be made on the basis of performance in the written test and interview taken together.
Application Fee : Rs. 250/- (for SC/ST/PWD/XS Rs.50/- only) to be deposited in any branch of SBI by a prescribed deposit slip and get receipt upto 30/10/2010. Details of the payment should be entered in online application form.
How to Apply : Apply Online at SBI website upto 01/11/2010.
Important Dates :
1. Last date of Online submission of Application : 01/11/2010
2. Date of Written Examination : 16/01/2011
For more information, please visit the Recruitment page at SBI website http://www.sbi.co.in/
Central Recruitment & Promotion Department (CRPD) Corporate Centre, Mumbai
Recruitment of 6100 Clerical Staff in Associte Banks State Bank of India (SBI)
Central Recruitment & Promotion Department, State Bank of India, Corporate Centre, Mumbai invites Online applications from Indian citizens for appointment of 6100 Clerical Cadre posts in State Bank of India Associate Banks (State Bank of Travancore, State Bank of Suarashtra, State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Indore, State Bank of Patiala etc.) upto 01/11/2010 :
* Clerical Cadre : 6100 posts in various states in India (see detailed advt. for Bank-wise, State-wise and Category-wise vacancies) , Pay Scale : Rs.7200-19300/-, Qualification : Minimum 12th Standard (10+2) or equivalent qualification thereof with a minimum of 60% marks (55% for SC/ST/PWD/XS) OR A degree from a recognised university (graduation level) with a minimum of 40% marks (35% for SC/ST/PWD/XS). Matriculate Ex-Servicemen, who have obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or the Air Force, who have put in not less than 15 years of service in Armed Forces of the Union are also eligible for the post. Should be able to write and speak English fluently. must be fluent in speaking and writing the Regional Language of the state from which they are selected. Knowledge of other Indian language will be an added qualification., Age : 18-28 years. Age relaxation as per Govt. rules.
Selection Procedure : Final selection will be made on the basis of performance in the written test and interview taken together.
Application Fee : Rs. 250/- (for SC/ST/PWD/XS Rs.50/- only) to be deposited in any branch of SBI by a prescribed deposit slip and get receipt upto 30/10/2010. Details of the payment should be entered in online application form.
How to Apply : Apply Online at SBI website upto 01/11/2010.
Important Dates :
1. Last date of Online submission of Application : 01/11/2010
2. Date of Written Examination : 16/01/2011
For more information, please visit the Recruitment page at SBI website http://www.sbi.co.in/
Sunday, September 26, 2010
STENOGRAPHERS EXAM SOLVED PAPER WITHIN TWO DAYS
HELLO READERS WE SHALL PROVIDE YOU STENO EXAM SOLVED PAPER AS SOON AS POSSIBLE PLEASE KEEP VISITING.
Attention of the Candidates is drawn to Notice of the Junior Translators (CSOLs)/Junior Hindi Translator (in Subordinate Offices) Examination, 2010 published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar in its edition dated 28.08.2010.
(TO BE PUBLISHED IN THE EMPLOYMENT NEWS/ROZGAR SAMACHAR ON 02.10.2010)
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
NOTICE
F.No.3/6/2010-P&P. Attention of the Candidates is drawn to Notice of the Junior Translators
(CSOLs)/Junior Hindi Translator (in Subordinate Offices) Examination, 2010 published in
the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar in its edition dated 28.08.2010.
Junior Translators (CSOLs)/Junior Hindi Translator (in Subordinate Offices) Examination,
2010 will be held on 05.12.2010 instead of 28.11.2010, due to administrative reasons.
Other provisions of the Notice remain unchanged.
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
NOTICE
F.No.3/6/2010-P&P. Attention of the Candidates is drawn to Notice of the Junior Translators
(CSOLs)/Junior Hindi Translator (in Subordinate Offices) Examination, 2010 published in
the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar in its edition dated 28.08.2010.
Junior Translators (CSOLs)/Junior Hindi Translator (in Subordinate Offices) Examination,
2010 will be held on 05.12.2010 instead of 28.11.2010, due to administrative reasons.
Other provisions of the Notice remain unchanged.
Combined Graduate Level Examination Note on Proficiency Test/Skill Test
Combined Graduate Level Examination
Note on Proficiency Test/Skill Test
I. In the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2010, posts of Assistant (CSS) and Tax
Assistant for CBEC and CBDT have been included. The notice for the examination dated
30.01.2010 (Para 9 D) prescribes Skill Test in Data Entry with speed of 8000 (eight thousand)
key impressions per hour on computer for the post of Tax Assistant (Central Excise and Income
Tax). It was also prescribed in the Notice that the “Data Entry Speed” Skill Test will be of
qualifying nature, with the note that the test will be conducted in the manner decided by SSC
for the purpose. Para 9(E) of the Notice states that the Commission will hold a skill test at its
discretion for the post of Assistants (CSS) and that it will test computer proficiency of the
candidates and will be of qualifying nature. It was further stated that this Skill Test will be
conducted in the manner decided by the Commission for the purpose.
II. The Commission has now decided the manner in which the aforesaid Skill Tests will be
conducted. The Commission has already published three lists of candidates qualifying for the
interview/skill test for posts for which interview is prescribed inter-alia including the post of
Assistants (CSS), additional candidates qualifying for interview/skill test only for the post of
Assistants (CSS) and additional candidates qualifying for skill test for only Tax Assistants,
subject to the candidates having exercised option for the posts of Assistant (CSS) and Tax
Assistant in their original application. This note is placed on the website of the Commission in
order to allow adequate time to the candidates to familiarize themselves with the format(s) of
the Skill Tests.
III. Skill Test in Data Entry for Tax Assistants.
(i) The skill test will be administered for duration of 15 minutes on passages containing
text of 2000 key depressions.
(ii) The actual skill test will be preceded by a test passage for 5 minutes in order to enable
the candidates to adjust to the system and key board provided by the Commission.
(iii) The candidates will not be required to re-enter the text on completion of the passage
and, therefore, should utilize the spare time to correct mistakes, if any.
(iv) Commission will decide at its discretion qualifying standard in entry of the text for
different categories of candidates taking into consideration overall performance of the
candidates in the skill test and available vacancies, subject to the standards not falling below
limits fixed by the Commission.
(v) As clearly stated in the Notice for the examination, the skill test will be of qualifying
nature.
(vi) As in the past, the test passage will be in English as the purpose of the test is to test data
entry skills of the candidates.
IV. Test of Computer Proficiency for Assistants (CSS)
1. The Proficiency Test will consist of the following three components:
(i) Word Processing
(ii) Generation and working on Spread Sheets.
(iii) Generation of and working on PowerPoint (or equivalent) slides.
2. The proficiency test on word processing will be identical to the skill test to be
administered for Tax Assistants in scope, content and duration.
3. Before commencement of actual test on word processing a test passage of 5 minutes
duration will be allowed to enable the candidates to adjust to the system and key board
provided by the Commission.
4. The test on spread sheets and PowerPoint (or equivalent) will be administered for
duration of 15 minutes each using Open Office. Candidates are advised to familiarize
themselves on OPEN OFFICE which is freely downloadable and is very similar to M.S. Office.
The tests on spread sheet will inter-alia test the ability of the candidates to generate a spread
sheet, perform simple computations and effect changes in the spread sheet, besides testing their
familiarity with use of spread sheets including generation of charts, graphs etc.
The test on Power Point (or equivalent) will test the candidates’ familiarity in the
software, their ability to generate slides, effect transition / changes in the slides etc.
5. The Commission may prescribe different qualifying standards in each of the tests
depending on the overall performance of the candidates and availability of vacancies subject to
the standards not falling below limits fixed by the Commission.
6. As clearly stated in the Notice of the examination, the skill test will be of qualifying
nature.
V. Candidates who have qualified both for the Proficiency Test for Assistant (CSS) And
Skill Test for Tax Assistant and have opted for both need to take only the Proficiency Test.
They will not be allowed to take the Skill Test in data entry separately.
Note on Proficiency Test/Skill Test
I. In the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2010, posts of Assistant (CSS) and Tax
Assistant for CBEC and CBDT have been included. The notice for the examination dated
30.01.2010 (Para 9 D) prescribes Skill Test in Data Entry with speed of 8000 (eight thousand)
key impressions per hour on computer for the post of Tax Assistant (Central Excise and Income
Tax). It was also prescribed in the Notice that the “Data Entry Speed” Skill Test will be of
qualifying nature, with the note that the test will be conducted in the manner decided by SSC
for the purpose. Para 9(E) of the Notice states that the Commission will hold a skill test at its
discretion for the post of Assistants (CSS) and that it will test computer proficiency of the
candidates and will be of qualifying nature. It was further stated that this Skill Test will be
conducted in the manner decided by the Commission for the purpose.
II. The Commission has now decided the manner in which the aforesaid Skill Tests will be
conducted. The Commission has already published three lists of candidates qualifying for the
interview/skill test for posts for which interview is prescribed inter-alia including the post of
Assistants (CSS), additional candidates qualifying for interview/skill test only for the post of
Assistants (CSS) and additional candidates qualifying for skill test for only Tax Assistants,
subject to the candidates having exercised option for the posts of Assistant (CSS) and Tax
Assistant in their original application. This note is placed on the website of the Commission in
order to allow adequate time to the candidates to familiarize themselves with the format(s) of
the Skill Tests.
III. Skill Test in Data Entry for Tax Assistants.
(i) The skill test will be administered for duration of 15 minutes on passages containing
text of 2000 key depressions.
(ii) The actual skill test will be preceded by a test passage for 5 minutes in order to enable
the candidates to adjust to the system and key board provided by the Commission.
(iii) The candidates will not be required to re-enter the text on completion of the passage
and, therefore, should utilize the spare time to correct mistakes, if any.
(iv) Commission will decide at its discretion qualifying standard in entry of the text for
different categories of candidates taking into consideration overall performance of the
candidates in the skill test and available vacancies, subject to the standards not falling below
limits fixed by the Commission.
(v) As clearly stated in the Notice for the examination, the skill test will be of qualifying
nature.
(vi) As in the past, the test passage will be in English as the purpose of the test is to test data
entry skills of the candidates.
IV. Test of Computer Proficiency for Assistants (CSS)
1. The Proficiency Test will consist of the following three components:
(i) Word Processing
(ii) Generation and working on Spread Sheets.
(iii) Generation of and working on PowerPoint (or equivalent) slides.
2. The proficiency test on word processing will be identical to the skill test to be
administered for Tax Assistants in scope, content and duration.
3. Before commencement of actual test on word processing a test passage of 5 minutes
duration will be allowed to enable the candidates to adjust to the system and key board
provided by the Commission.
4. The test on spread sheets and PowerPoint (or equivalent) will be administered for
duration of 15 minutes each using Open Office. Candidates are advised to familiarize
themselves on OPEN OFFICE which is freely downloadable and is very similar to M.S. Office.
The tests on spread sheet will inter-alia test the ability of the candidates to generate a spread
sheet, perform simple computations and effect changes in the spread sheet, besides testing their
familiarity with use of spread sheets including generation of charts, graphs etc.
The test on Power Point (or equivalent) will test the candidates’ familiarity in the
software, their ability to generate slides, effect transition / changes in the slides etc.
5. The Commission may prescribe different qualifying standards in each of the tests
depending on the overall performance of the candidates and availability of vacancies subject to
the standards not falling below limits fixed by the Commission.
6. As clearly stated in the Notice of the examination, the skill test will be of qualifying
nature.
V. Candidates who have qualified both for the Proficiency Test for Assistant (CSS) And
Skill Test for Tax Assistant and have opted for both need to take only the Proficiency Test.
They will not be allowed to take the Skill Test in data entry separately.
Friday, September 24, 2010
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION CUTOFF METHOD
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION CUTOFF MARKS
ME AAP LOGO KA DHIYAN ES OR DILANA CHATA HO AAP SAB LOG SSC K EXAMS DE RAHY HE
KYA AAP LOGO KO PATA HE SSC AB SE KAI EXAM ME ALAG ALAG CUTOFF MARKS DECLARE
KARNY JA RAHA HE. (JO EXAM KAI SIFT ME HOGAY) YAH NIYAM FILHAL LDC OR DEO EXAM K LIYE
APPLY HONE JA RAHA HE. KYOKI WAHA CANDIDATES KI SANKHYA 15 LAK K KARIB HE OR PAPER
3 PARIYO ME HONE JA RAHA HE. SSC PAPER KA DIFFICULTY LEVEL DECIDE KARYGA OR CUTOFF MARKS
PAPER WISE DECLARE KARYGA.
EXAPMLE: JAYSE LDC OR DEO KA EXAM 3 PARYO ME HO RAHA HE TO AGAR KISI PARI KA PAPER
KATHIN HOA TO WAHA CUTOFF ALAG HOGA DOSRI PARIYO SE JINKA PAPER USKI APYKSHA AASAN THA
ME AAP SAB KO BATANA CHATA HO KI ESKA BAHUT PARBHAV PADYGA OR KAI CANDIDATES KA SELECTION
ES KARN SE RUK BHI SAKTA HE. KYA KOI ESA METHOD HE JISSE AAP YAH BATA SAKY KI KON SA PAPER AASAN
HE OR KON SA KATHIN OR JO NIYAM SSC NE BANYE HE ME UNSE PURI TRH SE SANTOSTH NAHI HO AAP LOG SSC
KO HAR EXAM K LIYE FEES DETY HE KYA AAP NAHI SOCHTY KI SSC KO EK HE DIN EXAM LENA CAHIYE. KYA KUCH OR
CENTER NAHI BANYE JA SAKTY. AGAR AAP MERI BAAT SE SAHMAT HE TO PLEASE COMMENT KARY OR ME AAP KO
YAH BHI BATNA CHATA HO KI SSC NE SABHI LOGO K SUGGESTION MANGAYE HE AAP SSC KO APNY SUGGESTION EK EMAIL
ADDRESS PAR BHIJ SAKTY HE
EMAIL ADDRESS : vsethi.ssc@gmail.com
SSC KA NOTICE PADHNY K LIYE UPPER CLICK KARY.
ME AAP LOGO KA DHIYAN ES OR DILANA CHATA HO AAP SAB LOG SSC K EXAMS DE RAHY HE
KYA AAP LOGO KO PATA HE SSC AB SE KAI EXAM ME ALAG ALAG CUTOFF MARKS DECLARE
KARNY JA RAHA HE. (JO EXAM KAI SIFT ME HOGAY) YAH NIYAM FILHAL LDC OR DEO EXAM K LIYE
APPLY HONE JA RAHA HE. KYOKI WAHA CANDIDATES KI SANKHYA 15 LAK K KARIB HE OR PAPER
3 PARIYO ME HONE JA RAHA HE. SSC PAPER KA DIFFICULTY LEVEL DECIDE KARYGA OR CUTOFF MARKS
PAPER WISE DECLARE KARYGA.
EXAPMLE: JAYSE LDC OR DEO KA EXAM 3 PARYO ME HO RAHA HE TO AGAR KISI PARI KA PAPER
KATHIN HOA TO WAHA CUTOFF ALAG HOGA DOSRI PARIYO SE JINKA PAPER USKI APYKSHA AASAN THA
ME AAP SAB KO BATANA CHATA HO KI ESKA BAHUT PARBHAV PADYGA OR KAI CANDIDATES KA SELECTION
ES KARN SE RUK BHI SAKTA HE. KYA KOI ESA METHOD HE JISSE AAP YAH BATA SAKY KI KON SA PAPER AASAN
HE OR KON SA KATHIN OR JO NIYAM SSC NE BANYE HE ME UNSE PURI TRH SE SANTOSTH NAHI HO AAP LOG SSC
KO HAR EXAM K LIYE FEES DETY HE KYA AAP NAHI SOCHTY KI SSC KO EK HE DIN EXAM LENA CAHIYE. KYA KUCH OR
CENTER NAHI BANYE JA SAKTY. AGAR AAP MERI BAAT SE SAHMAT HE TO PLEASE COMMENT KARY OR ME AAP KO
YAH BHI BATNA CHATA HO KI SSC NE SABHI LOGO K SUGGESTION MANGAYE HE AAP SSC KO APNY SUGGESTION EK EMAIL
ADDRESS PAR BHIJ SAKTY HE
EMAIL ADDRESS : vsethi.ssc@gmail.com
SSC KA NOTICE PADHNY K LIYE UPPER CLICK KARY.
Thursday, September 23, 2010
ASI IN CISF IMPORTANT NOTICE FOR PET AND ME TEST
[TO BE PUBLISHED IN THE EMPLOYMENT NEWS / ROZGAR SAMACHAR IN ITS
EDITION DATED 02.10.2010]
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
NEW DELHI
NOTICE
~~~~~
F.No.4/9/2010-P&P. Attention of the candidates is drawn to Notice of the ASI
(Executive) in CISF Examination, 2010 and Corrigendum published in the Employment
News / Rozgar Samachar in its 29th May – 4thJune, 2010 Edition and 19 TO 25 June
2010 Edition respectively.
Modification made in Note I below Para 9 of the Notice by the above
mentioned Corrigendum is withdrawn. Candidates selected in PET will now be
subjected to Medical Examination simultaneously.
Remaining provisions of the Notice published in Employment News / Rozgar
Samachar in its 29th May – 4thJune, 2010 Edition remains unchanged.
(Ashok Kumar Roy)
Under Secretary (P&P)
EDITION DATED 02.10.2010]
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
NEW DELHI
NOTICE
~~~~~
F.No.4/9/2010-P&P. Attention of the candidates is drawn to Notice of the ASI
(Executive) in CISF Examination, 2010 and Corrigendum published in the Employment
News / Rozgar Samachar in its 29th May – 4thJune, 2010 Edition and 19 TO 25 June
2010 Edition respectively.
Modification made in Note I below Para 9 of the Notice by the above
mentioned Corrigendum is withdrawn. Candidates selected in PET will now be
subjected to Medical Examination simultaneously.
Remaining provisions of the Notice published in Employment News / Rozgar
Samachar in its 29th May – 4thJune, 2010 Edition remains unchanged.
(Ashok Kumar Roy)
Under Secretary (P&P)
Wednesday, September 22, 2010
CDS ANSWER KEY
19-9-2010 CDS 2 answer key and solution for English paper
Sentence improvement:
1. a. are at cross purposes
2. c. That you are not cheated
3. D. where has he gone. No improvement.
4. c. No sooner did I hear the shot than
5. d. hardly he had entered. No improvement
6. a. shall we.
7. a. What was the matter.
Antonyms.
8. Probity
Ans: dishonesty.
9. Contest
Ans: Accept
10. Sporadic
Ans: Persistent
11. Implication
Ans: Exoneration
12. Apposite
inappropriate
13. Gregarious
Ans: unsociable
14. Chivalry
Ans: discourtesy
15. Dismal
Ans: Bright
16. Sanguine Temper
Ans: Despairing nature
17. Meagre
Ans: Abundant
18. Imperial
Ans: Create
19. Ostensibly
Ans: Vaguely
20. Consolidated
Ans: Broken
21. Chronic
Ans: Temporary
22. Diligent
Ans: Carless
23. Callous
Ans: Generous
24. Vituperative
Ans: CONGRATULATORY
25. Awkward
Ans: Graceful
26. Smug
Ans: Dissatisfied
27. Oppressive
Ans: Gentle
28. Obscure
Ans: clear
29. Clinch
Ans: Lose
30. Enervate
Ans: strengthen
31. To put up with
Ans: to move along with
Synonyms
32. Crass
Ans: coarse
33. Accomplish
Ans: Achieve
34. cursory
Ans: quick
35. Envisaged
Ans: contemplated
36. Fickle
Ans: Inconsistent
37. Resentment
Ans: anger
38. Obdurate
ans: adamant
39. Obscure
ans: unknown
40. Reluctant
Ans: averse
41. Revelation
Ans: disclosure
42. ostracise
Ans: Banish
43. Appalled
Ans: alarmed
44. Imbecility
Ans: stupidity,
45. Collusion
Ans: A secret agreement
46. Hesitant
Ans: Undecided
47. Deceptive
Ans: misleading
48. Palpable
ans: obvious
49. Laid-back
Ans: easy-going
50. Sauntering
Ans: strolling
51. Pompous
ans: grandiose
Passage 1:
Ono day we were becalmed among a group of small islands...
52. The Captain sent the boat to the shore to:
Ans: fetch some water
53. The savage brandished their spears in order to
Ans: frighten the crew
54. The inhabitants of the islands were
ans: primitive tribes.
Passage II:
Nelson Mandela was appointed..
55. The purpose of Mandela's talk was to help people
Ans: b. Oppose oppression
56. It is clear from the passage that the black Africans
Ans: has an unfovourable government
Passage III
One day an army won a land battle against the enemy.
57. The commander went round the camp at midnight because
he
ans: wished to check if his soldiers has obeyed his order
58. The commander entered his son's tent because
Ans: had to punish any soldier who disobeyed his order.
59. The son was writing a letter because her
ans: was eager to tell his mother about his own deeds
Passage IV
60.
61.
62
63.
64.
Passage V
On day a tea contractor , Mr. Sharma...
65. when did Mr. Sharma's friend go to see what was wrong
Ans: D. When he heard something unusual
66. When Mr. Sharma saw the tiger he was
Ans: A. surprised
67. Mr. Sharma stayed on to fight the tigress for
Ans: A. He wanted to try to protect his wife and daughter.
Ordering of sentences:
68. S1 When he joined the college, he was an adolescent
and immature.
Ans: C. RPSQ
69. S1 There is still another important characteristic of living thinsg
Ans: B. RQPS
70. S1 Your resources like money are limited
Ans: C. PRQS
71. S1 In ancient India the city of Ujjain was quite famous
Ans: B. SPRQ
72. One of the odd-looking birds of the ocean is the
penguin
ans: B. QPRS
73. Clothes should fit well.
Ans: d. SQPR
74. Get hold of the catalogues of the colleges in the
United States.
Ans: C. RQPS
75. If we dump sewage into a stream, on a small scale,
the stream dissolves it and purifies it.
Ans: A. QSPR.
76. She was born into a poor family of labourers and died
because poverty could not let her live.
Ans: A. QPRS
77. We were so evenly matched that for a time the end
was difficult to tell.
Ans: D. RSQP
78. William Cowper was born in 1731 at the rectory of
Berkhametead
Ans: D. QPRS
79. Jubo Young, the astronaut, piloted the 75-ton space
shuttle, Columbia.
Ans: D. QSRP
80.Rutherford was the son of a Scot's emigrant to New Zealand
ans: QSPR.
81. Issac possessed a wonderful faculty of acquiring knowledge
by the simplest means.
Ans: C. RQPS
82. Life is a gift of God to man
Ans: b. prqs
83. The Common man has a vote in parliament.
Ans: D. SPRQ
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
84. It is foolish..
Ans: b. QSRP
85. The distressing face is that..
Ans: RQSP
86. I once had
Ans: b. QSRP
87. People know.
Ans: D. QSPR
88. He has hardly...
Ans: QPSR
89. Mr. Sexana was a profound scholar who..
Ans: A. PQRS
90. The government wants that
Ans: c. RQSP
91. The general line about television..
Ans: C. PRQS
92. The second test of good government is that
Ans: C. RPSQ
93. The teacher warned that
Ans: A. PQRS
94. Towards the end of eighteenth century, quite a number of
economists..
Ans: b. RQSP
95. The best way of understanding our won civilization..
Ans: C. PSRQ
96. What greater thing is there..
Ans: D. PRSQ
97. Fame..
Ans: B. SPRQ
98. When he was a child..
Ans: A. QSPR
Spotting Error:
99. a. Nowadays.
1oo. b. Was not upto the mark.
101.C. my old parents returned to India.
102. B. On the reasons for the fall in educational standards
103. b. it is a wonder that people
104. a. It would be much better
105. b. I was the one to whom
Sentence improvement:
1. a. are at cross purposes
2. c. That you are not cheated
3. D. where has he gone. No improvement.
4. c. No sooner did I hear the shot than
5. d. hardly he had entered. No improvement
6. a. shall we.
7. a. What was the matter.
Antonyms.
8. Probity
Ans: dishonesty.
9. Contest
Ans: Accept
10. Sporadic
Ans: Persistent
11. Implication
Ans: Exoneration
12. Apposite
inappropriate
13. Gregarious
Ans: unsociable
14. Chivalry
Ans: discourtesy
15. Dismal
Ans: Bright
16. Sanguine Temper
Ans: Despairing nature
17. Meagre
Ans: Abundant
18. Imperial
Ans: Create
19. Ostensibly
Ans: Vaguely
20. Consolidated
Ans: Broken
21. Chronic
Ans: Temporary
22. Diligent
Ans: Carless
23. Callous
Ans: Generous
24. Vituperative
Ans: CONGRATULATORY
25. Awkward
Ans: Graceful
26. Smug
Ans: Dissatisfied
27. Oppressive
Ans: Gentle
28. Obscure
Ans: clear
29. Clinch
Ans: Lose
30. Enervate
Ans: strengthen
31. To put up with
Ans: to move along with
Synonyms
32. Crass
Ans: coarse
33. Accomplish
Ans: Achieve
34. cursory
Ans: quick
35. Envisaged
Ans: contemplated
36. Fickle
Ans: Inconsistent
37. Resentment
Ans: anger
38. Obdurate
ans: adamant
39. Obscure
ans: unknown
40. Reluctant
Ans: averse
41. Revelation
Ans: disclosure
42. ostracise
Ans: Banish
43. Appalled
Ans: alarmed
44. Imbecility
Ans: stupidity,
45. Collusion
Ans: A secret agreement
46. Hesitant
Ans: Undecided
47. Deceptive
Ans: misleading
48. Palpable
ans: obvious
49. Laid-back
Ans: easy-going
50. Sauntering
Ans: strolling
51. Pompous
ans: grandiose
Passage 1:
Ono day we were becalmed among a group of small islands...
52. The Captain sent the boat to the shore to:
Ans: fetch some water
53. The savage brandished their spears in order to
Ans: frighten the crew
54. The inhabitants of the islands were
ans: primitive tribes.
Passage II:
Nelson Mandela was appointed..
55. The purpose of Mandela's talk was to help people
Ans: b. Oppose oppression
56. It is clear from the passage that the black Africans
Ans: has an unfovourable government
Passage III
One day an army won a land battle against the enemy.
57. The commander went round the camp at midnight because
he
ans: wished to check if his soldiers has obeyed his order
58. The commander entered his son's tent because
Ans: had to punish any soldier who disobeyed his order.
59. The son was writing a letter because her
ans: was eager to tell his mother about his own deeds
Passage IV
60.
61.
62
63.
64.
Passage V
On day a tea contractor , Mr. Sharma...
65. when did Mr. Sharma's friend go to see what was wrong
Ans: D. When he heard something unusual
66. When Mr. Sharma saw the tiger he was
Ans: A. surprised
67. Mr. Sharma stayed on to fight the tigress for
Ans: A. He wanted to try to protect his wife and daughter.
Ordering of sentences:
68. S1 When he joined the college, he was an adolescent
and immature.
Ans: C. RPSQ
69. S1 There is still another important characteristic of living thinsg
Ans: B. RQPS
70. S1 Your resources like money are limited
Ans: C. PRQS
71. S1 In ancient India the city of Ujjain was quite famous
Ans: B. SPRQ
72. One of the odd-looking birds of the ocean is the
penguin
ans: B. QPRS
73. Clothes should fit well.
Ans: d. SQPR
74. Get hold of the catalogues of the colleges in the
United States.
Ans: C. RQPS
75. If we dump sewage into a stream, on a small scale,
the stream dissolves it and purifies it.
Ans: A. QSPR.
76. She was born into a poor family of labourers and died
because poverty could not let her live.
Ans: A. QPRS
77. We were so evenly matched that for a time the end
was difficult to tell.
Ans: D. RSQP
78. William Cowper was born in 1731 at the rectory of
Berkhametead
Ans: D. QPRS
79. Jubo Young, the astronaut, piloted the 75-ton space
shuttle, Columbia.
Ans: D. QSRP
80.Rutherford was the son of a Scot's emigrant to New Zealand
ans: QSPR.
81. Issac possessed a wonderful faculty of acquiring knowledge
by the simplest means.
Ans: C. RQPS
82. Life is a gift of God to man
Ans: b. prqs
83. The Common man has a vote in parliament.
Ans: D. SPRQ
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
84. It is foolish..
Ans: b. QSRP
85. The distressing face is that..
Ans: RQSP
86. I once had
Ans: b. QSRP
87. People know.
Ans: D. QSPR
88. He has hardly...
Ans: QPSR
89. Mr. Sexana was a profound scholar who..
Ans: A. PQRS
90. The government wants that
Ans: c. RQSP
91. The general line about television..
Ans: C. PRQS
92. The second test of good government is that
Ans: C. RPSQ
93. The teacher warned that
Ans: A. PQRS
94. Towards the end of eighteenth century, quite a number of
economists..
Ans: b. RQSP
95. The best way of understanding our won civilization..
Ans: C. PSRQ
96. What greater thing is there..
Ans: D. PRSQ
97. Fame..
Ans: B. SPRQ
98. When he was a child..
Ans: A. QSPR
Spotting Error:
99. a. Nowadays.
1oo. b. Was not upto the mark.
101.C. my old parents returned to India.
102. B. On the reasons for the fall in educational standards
103. b. it is a wonder that people
104. a. It would be much better
105. b. I was the one to whom
LDC AND DATA ENTRY OPERATOR 2009 G.K PAPER
1.the rbi issues currency notes under the
fixed fiduciary system
maximum fiduciary system
fixed minimum reserve system
proportional reserve system
ans. b
2. which day is the international human rights day
dec 10
oct 24
nov 25
none of the above
ans. a
3.the capital of pakistan till 1959 was
lslamabad
karachi
lahore
hyderabad
ans. karachi b
4. silicon valley of india is located in
dehradun
bangalore
hyderabad
srinagar
bangalore b
5. the author of the book india wins freedom
kuldeep nayyar
abul kalam azad
jawahar lal
indira gandhi
abul kalam azad b
6. the implementation of jawahar rojgar yojana rests with
gram panchayats
district collectors
state governments
union government
state governments b
7. what is quorum required for convening the lok sabha
1/6
1/8
1/10
1/5
ans. 1/10
8. in the parliamentary form of government he is the first among equals who is he
president
prime minister
leader of opposition
speaker of lower house
ans. prime minister
9. gandhiji movement of boycotting the foreign goods aimed at
full independence
creating anti british sentiment
promotion of welfare state
promotion of cottage industries
ans. d
10. what is maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of india
58
60
63
there is no maximum age limit
ans. d no age limit
11. the final of the sultan afzal shah hockey tournament 2009 was played between
india and malaysia
india and pak
pak and malaysia
malaysia and japan
ans. india and malaysia
12. the 2011 cricket world cup shall be co-hosted by
india, shri lanka, pak and bangladesh
india, shri lanka and bankladesh
bangladesh, pak, and sri lanka
bangladesh, pak and india
ans. b
13. english is the official language opf which one of the following indian states
nagaland
tripura
assam
manipur
ans. a
14. right to information act was passed in the year
2001
2005
2004
2002
ans b
15. in india fera has been replaced by
FEMA
FETA
FENA
FELA
ans. fema
16. The emerging player of the year 2008 award was given by ICC to which Sri Lankan cricketer?
Ajanta mendis
muttiah murlitharan
kapugedera
mahroof
ans. ajanta mendis
17. the term PC means
private computer
personal computer
professional computer
personal calculator
ans.personal computer b
18. which one of the following indian cricketers has been declared the leading cricketer of 2008 by wisden
dhoni
sehwag
kumble
saurav
ans. b
19. who is the present chief of ISRO
MADHAVAN NAIR
ANIL KAKODKAR
MOHAN S SHETTY
M, ARVINDAM
ans. b
20. who has taken over as chief election commissioner after the retirement of shri goplaswami
vs sampath
sy quraishi
navin chawala
ms gill
ans. c chawala
21. the impaginary lines joining places of same height at equal intervals are
hechures
contours
spot-heights
lsomers
ans. b
22. the author of the book my experiments with truth is
abul kalam azad
govind vallabh pant
m.k gandhi
tara ali beg
ans. c
23. which one of the following business magnates has been adjudged the business person of
year 2008 by the times of india survey
ratan tata
rahul bajaj
aditya birla
laxmi mittal
ans. a
24. the relationship between the value of money and the price level in an ecnomy is
direct
inverse
proportional
stable
ans. b
25. depreciation is equal to
gross nation product-net national product
net national product-gross national product
gross national product-personal income
personal income-personal taxes
ans. a
26. In an economy the sectors are classified into public and private on the basis of
employment conditions
nature of economic activities
ownership of enterprises
use of raw materials
ans. c
27. stagflation is a situation of
stagnation and deflation'
stagnation and recession
stagnation and and inflation
atagnation and recovery
ans. c
28. what is khetri in rajasthan famous for
copper mines
mica mines
bauxite mines
limestone mines
ans.a
29. which one of the following rivers forms an estuary
narmada
kaveri
krishna
mahanadi
ans. a
30. an important river of te indian desert is
luni
narmada
krishna
beas
ans. a
31. the nagarjunasagar dam is constructed on the river
krishna
chambal
kosi
sutlej
ans. a
32. anantapur district in andhra pradesh is famous for
copper
zone
mica
gold
ans d
33. bahadur shah was the
last ruler of the lodis
successor of sher shah suri
last mughal ruler
successor of the maratha ruler shivaji
ans. c
34. mangal pandy fired the first shot of the revolt of 1857 at
barrackpore
meerut
kanpur
jhansi
ans. b
35. the resources which can be used continuosly, year after year are
called
biotic
abiotic
non-renewable
renewable
ans. d
36. the coast that belongs to kerala is known as
konkan coast
malabar coast
coromandel
conara coast
ans. b
37. great stupa at sanchi is in
utttar pradesh
madhya pradesh
arunachal pradesh
andhra pradesh
ans. b
38. what was the age of akbar at the time of his coronation at kalanaur
13
15
18
20
ans. a
39.which one of the following stages of the life of man in aryan society, in ascending order
of age is correct?
ans: grihastha, brahmacharya, vanaprastha, sanyasa
40. who said swaraj is my birthright and i shall have it?
mk gandhi
bg tilak
gk gokhale
br ambedkar
ans. b
41. charack was the famous court physician of
harsha
chandra gupta
ashoka
kanishka
ans. d
42. a person having ab group of blodd can donate blood to a person having
a group
b group
ab group
o group
ans ab group
43. why do birds not have respiratory trouble at the time of flying at high altitude
ans. their lunge are very large
44. after the chauri chaura incident, gandhiji suspended the
ans. non cooperation movement
fixed fiduciary system
maximum fiduciary system
fixed minimum reserve system
proportional reserve system
ans. b
2. which day is the international human rights day
dec 10
oct 24
nov 25
none of the above
ans. a
3.the capital of pakistan till 1959 was
lslamabad
karachi
lahore
hyderabad
ans. karachi b
4. silicon valley of india is located in
dehradun
bangalore
hyderabad
srinagar
bangalore b
5. the author of the book india wins freedom
kuldeep nayyar
abul kalam azad
jawahar lal
indira gandhi
abul kalam azad b
6. the implementation of jawahar rojgar yojana rests with
gram panchayats
district collectors
state governments
union government
state governments b
7. what is quorum required for convening the lok sabha
1/6
1/8
1/10
1/5
ans. 1/10
8. in the parliamentary form of government he is the first among equals who is he
president
prime minister
leader of opposition
speaker of lower house
ans. prime minister
9. gandhiji movement of boycotting the foreign goods aimed at
full independence
creating anti british sentiment
promotion of welfare state
promotion of cottage industries
ans. d
10. what is maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of india
58
60
63
there is no maximum age limit
ans. d no age limit
11. the final of the sultan afzal shah hockey tournament 2009 was played between
india and malaysia
india and pak
pak and malaysia
malaysia and japan
ans. india and malaysia
12. the 2011 cricket world cup shall be co-hosted by
india, shri lanka, pak and bangladesh
india, shri lanka and bankladesh
bangladesh, pak, and sri lanka
bangladesh, pak and india
ans. b
13. english is the official language opf which one of the following indian states
nagaland
tripura
assam
manipur
ans. a
14. right to information act was passed in the year
2001
2005
2004
2002
ans b
15. in india fera has been replaced by
FEMA
FETA
FENA
FELA
ans. fema
16. The emerging player of the year 2008 award was given by ICC to which Sri Lankan cricketer?
Ajanta mendis
muttiah murlitharan
kapugedera
mahroof
ans. ajanta mendis
17. the term PC means
private computer
personal computer
professional computer
personal calculator
ans.personal computer b
18. which one of the following indian cricketers has been declared the leading cricketer of 2008 by wisden
dhoni
sehwag
kumble
saurav
ans. b
19. who is the present chief of ISRO
MADHAVAN NAIR
ANIL KAKODKAR
MOHAN S SHETTY
M, ARVINDAM
ans. b
20. who has taken over as chief election commissioner after the retirement of shri goplaswami
vs sampath
sy quraishi
navin chawala
ms gill
ans. c chawala
21. the impaginary lines joining places of same height at equal intervals are
hechures
contours
spot-heights
lsomers
ans. b
22. the author of the book my experiments with truth is
abul kalam azad
govind vallabh pant
m.k gandhi
tara ali beg
ans. c
23. which one of the following business magnates has been adjudged the business person of
year 2008 by the times of india survey
ratan tata
rahul bajaj
aditya birla
laxmi mittal
ans. a
24. the relationship between the value of money and the price level in an ecnomy is
direct
inverse
proportional
stable
ans. b
25. depreciation is equal to
gross nation product-net national product
net national product-gross national product
gross national product-personal income
personal income-personal taxes
ans. a
26. In an economy the sectors are classified into public and private on the basis of
employment conditions
nature of economic activities
ownership of enterprises
use of raw materials
ans. c
27. stagflation is a situation of
stagnation and deflation'
stagnation and recession
stagnation and and inflation
atagnation and recovery
ans. c
28. what is khetri in rajasthan famous for
copper mines
mica mines
bauxite mines
limestone mines
ans.a
29. which one of the following rivers forms an estuary
narmada
kaveri
krishna
mahanadi
ans. a
30. an important river of te indian desert is
luni
narmada
krishna
beas
ans. a
31. the nagarjunasagar dam is constructed on the river
krishna
chambal
kosi
sutlej
ans. a
32. anantapur district in andhra pradesh is famous for
copper
zone
mica
gold
ans d
33. bahadur shah was the
last ruler of the lodis
successor of sher shah suri
last mughal ruler
successor of the maratha ruler shivaji
ans. c
34. mangal pandy fired the first shot of the revolt of 1857 at
barrackpore
meerut
kanpur
jhansi
ans. b
35. the resources which can be used continuosly, year after year are
called
biotic
abiotic
non-renewable
renewable
ans. d
36. the coast that belongs to kerala is known as
konkan coast
malabar coast
coromandel
conara coast
ans. b
37. great stupa at sanchi is in
utttar pradesh
madhya pradesh
arunachal pradesh
andhra pradesh
ans. b
38. what was the age of akbar at the time of his coronation at kalanaur
13
15
18
20
ans. a
39.which one of the following stages of the life of man in aryan society, in ascending order
of age is correct?
ans: grihastha, brahmacharya, vanaprastha, sanyasa
40. who said swaraj is my birthright and i shall have it?
mk gandhi
bg tilak
gk gokhale
br ambedkar
ans. b
41. charack was the famous court physician of
harsha
chandra gupta
ashoka
kanishka
ans. d
42. a person having ab group of blodd can donate blood to a person having
a group
b group
ab group
o group
ans ab group
43. why do birds not have respiratory trouble at the time of flying at high altitude
ans. their lunge are very large
44. after the chauri chaura incident, gandhiji suspended the
ans. non cooperation movement
Tuesday, September 21, 2010
NOTICE Equalisation of scores in SSC Examinations
NOTICE Equalisation of scores in SSC Examinations Staff Selection Commission has been conducting various examinations in multiple batches because of large number of candidates and difficulties in getting adequate educational institutions for holding the examinations in a single batch. For perhaps the first time in its history, the number of applicants in a single examination exceeded one million when the Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination, 2010 for the recruitment of Lower Division Clerks and Data Entry Operators, elicited response from over 16 lakh candidates, with app. 21% of them applying online. This would require the Examination, rescheduled on 27 & 28.11.2010 (in view of Common Wealth Games), to be held in at least three batches. The Commission, with the help of experts, has striven to construct question papers of comparable difficulty level. While such an exercise is theoretically possible, in practice it is impossible to have two or more question papers of identical difficulty levels. Even if the difficulty levels of question papers vary slightly, candidates taking more difficult papers may be at a disadvantage viz-a-vis others. Therefore, there is a need for equating of the marks in examinations involving multiple batches and question papers. 2. The Commission had examined the views of an Expert Group, constituted by it with the approval of Government of India in 2009, on this issue. The Commission had placed before the Expert Group that the technique to be followed for equating should be transparent, easily comprehensible to the candidates, acceptable to experts and prove itself in Courts of Law if and
when challenged. This was accepted by the Expert Group which further advised the Commission to place a paper on the technique on its website for adequate time, give publicity to such placement through the media, invite comments, observations and suggestions and decide on adopting the technique thereafter. 3. Accordingly, the Commission places this paper inviting views, comments and suggestions from academicians, parents, candidates and also stakeholders on or before 31.10.2010. Such views, comments and suggestions, if any, may be addressed to Smt. Vandana Sethi, Deputy Secretary, Staff Selection Commission, Block-12, CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110 003 (e-mail: vsethi.ssc@gmail.com). The Commission proposes to adopt the Equipercentile Equating Technique for examinations involving multiple batches from Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination, 2010 onwards.
PAPER ON EQUATING TECHNIQUES 1. Introduction: Building Question Papers based on the same test specification either on blueprint or content template will not ensure that these tests are equivalent, specifically based on the difficulty level, content and ability tested. To ensure fairness in the scoring system when candidates are administered different Question Papers of the test, an appropriate statistical procedure is needed to equate the test scores based on the different Question Papers. In other words, Equating is needed. 2. Large-scale testing programs often require multiple Question Papers to maintain test security over time and to enable equivalent tests to be administered without repeating identical items. The outcomes after equating are we’ll get the same scores in tests in which different question papers were administered. 3. Equating is a statistical process that is used to adjust scores on multiple question papers so that scores on the forms can be used interchangeably. It adjusts for differences in difficulty among Question Papers that are built to be similar in difficulty and content. 4. Example: Here is an example of Test of English language in 2 Question Papers (VA1 and VA2) which consists of 50 items each that would assess the usage of articles amongst other things. VA1 1. ___ book that I bought yesterday is interesting. 2. I saw ___ man wearing a red suit.
VA2 1. ___ goat was crossing ___ river. 2. I have been waiting for ___ auto. After evaluating the Answer Sheets the overall performance of the students in two different Question Papers from similar background students is found to be varying with the following mean scores. Mean scores are: VA1 14.5 VA2 12.5 The number of right answers in VA1 is found to be 2 units more than those of VA2. Similar variation in mean scores may be found in the case of all the questions included in the test. Therefore, there could be a need for adjustment of scores of each test so that scores from different question papers can be used interchangeably 5. Process followed in Equating • The purpose of equating should be clear. • The Examination should have multiple question papers on the same subject. • Alternate question papers are set in accordance with items of the same content, difficulty level and ability tested. • Data of responses to items/questions should be collected. • The responses should be in the form of (A, B, ……….., X) or (Yes/No) etc. for objective type tests. • Equating requires that a choice be made about what type of relationships between different question papers is to be estimated. For example, this
may involve decision on whether to use linear/non linear methods of equating. • Descriptive statistics to obtain mean, standard deviation and/or the percentile rank of scores may need to be generated after evaluation of the papers. • A statistical equating method should be carefully selected for adoption. • The results of equating should be evaluated carefully. . 6. Different Methods of Equating a) Median/Mean Equating b) Linear Equating (Based on mean and S.D.) c) Equipercentile Equating d) Equating using Item Response Theory a) Median/Mean Equating Procedure: • In the given example, two question papers of Verbal Ability Test are administered on two similar groups of student(VA1 and VA2) • Mean score of VA1 = 14.5 & Mean score of VA2 = 12.5 • Difference between mean scores = 14.5 – 12.5 = 2 • Mean equating involves the addition of a constant (2 = difference in the mean scores) to all the raw scores on VA2 to find equated scores on VA1 b) Linear equating (Based on Mean and S.D.) This involves equating the two tests using the mean and standard deviation of each question paper. If x represents a score on the VA2 (in the given example) and y represents a score on the reference form (VA1), then x and y are equivalent in a group of examinees if:
Procedure: For adjusting the new scores according to the reference form the formula is: X(VA2) Y(VA1) Mean 12.5 14.5 S.D. 4.5 4 Y adjusted to X: c) Equipercentile Equating The method of equi-percentile equating involves fixing up a common percentile for all forms (it is observed that same test score in each of the question papers gives rise to different percentiles) and then finding the different scores in these forms in terms of number right scores. Thus a score of 17.2 in series -1 score is equivalent to 14.5 in series-2.This in essence is equipercentile equating. Procedure: Given below are two sets of scores, series 1 and series 2, which are multiple question papers of the same test. As far as possible, the no. of examiners in either series should be equal. Their percentile ranks are calculated from the grouped data using SPSS or Excel. ymean(y)xmean(x)SD(y)SD(x)(xmean(x))ySD(y)mean(y)SD(x)1012.5414.512.284.5
series 2 score percentile rank 1 0.00% 2 5.50% 3 11.10% 4 16.60% 5 22.20% 6 27.70% 7 33.30% 8 38.80% 9 44.40% 10 50.00% 11 55.50% 12 61.10% 13 66.60% 14 72.20% 15 77.70% 16 83.30% 17 88.80% 18 94.40% 19 100.00% series 1 score percentile rank 3 0.00% 4 5.20% 5 10.50% 6 15.70% 7 21.00% 8 26.30% 9 31.50% 10 36.80% 11 42.10% 12 47.30% 13 52.60% 14 57.80% 15 63.10% 16 68.40% 17 73.60% 18 78.90% 19 84.20% 20 89.40% 21 94.70% 22 100.00%
The above graph shows both percentile ranks of series 1 and 2 are put together in order to enable the percentile score of one raw mark of series-1 to be slightly different from the raw mark score of series-2. The percentile rank of 17 in series -1 is 88.8% and in series -2 the same score of 17 has a percentile of 93.6%. In the method of equi-percentile equating, a cut-off of a percentile rank to qualify for selection is to be fixed, say 75 percentile and this common 75 percentile has a raw score of 14.5 in series-1 and 15.26 in series-2. Therefore, anyone who gets more than 14.5 in series -1 and 15.26 in series 2 will qualify and the equi-percentile is 75. SSC PROPOSES TO USE THE EQUIPERCENTILE METHOD IN VIEW OF ITS SIMPLICITY
d) Equating using Item Response Theory (IRT) Basic Concepts • Ability (θ): Ability is measured on the scale (-3 to +3) • Item difficulty (b): The item difficulty of an item and the ability of the test taker are on the same scale. it is invariably taken as the middle point of the item characteristic curve where the curve shows a tendency of contra flexure that is bending in the opposite directions (-3 to +3) • Both of these are on the same scale and along the x-axis • Probability of getting the correct answer (0 to 1) on the y-axis • This is a fraction like 0.75which means if a person of particular ability say θ ( any ability between -3 and +3) attempts 100 times the same item 75 times he will get it right and 25 times he will get it wrong. Fred Lord’s Model - ∞ + ∞ -3 + 3 - 4 + 4 α tan α = a Item discrimination Item Difficulty ‘b’ Guessing c Pi (θ) (probability of getting answer right on any item I with ability θ) 0.5 +1.0 1-c
Types of equating in IRT i) Horizontal equating ii) Vertical equating Horizontal equating is equating scales of about the same ability Vertical equating is equating scales across completely different levels of ability THE COMMISSION DOES NOT USE IRT IN ITS EXAMINATIONS.
when challenged. This was accepted by the Expert Group which further advised the Commission to place a paper on the technique on its website for adequate time, give publicity to such placement through the media, invite comments, observations and suggestions and decide on adopting the technique thereafter. 3. Accordingly, the Commission places this paper inviting views, comments and suggestions from academicians, parents, candidates and also stakeholders on or before 31.10.2010. Such views, comments and suggestions, if any, may be addressed to Smt. Vandana Sethi, Deputy Secretary, Staff Selection Commission, Block-12, CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110 003 (e-mail: vsethi.ssc@gmail.com). The Commission proposes to adopt the Equipercentile Equating Technique for examinations involving multiple batches from Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination, 2010 onwards.
PAPER ON EQUATING TECHNIQUES 1. Introduction: Building Question Papers based on the same test specification either on blueprint or content template will not ensure that these tests are equivalent, specifically based on the difficulty level, content and ability tested. To ensure fairness in the scoring system when candidates are administered different Question Papers of the test, an appropriate statistical procedure is needed to equate the test scores based on the different Question Papers. In other words, Equating is needed. 2. Large-scale testing programs often require multiple Question Papers to maintain test security over time and to enable equivalent tests to be administered without repeating identical items. The outcomes after equating are we’ll get the same scores in tests in which different question papers were administered. 3. Equating is a statistical process that is used to adjust scores on multiple question papers so that scores on the forms can be used interchangeably. It adjusts for differences in difficulty among Question Papers that are built to be similar in difficulty and content. 4. Example: Here is an example of Test of English language in 2 Question Papers (VA1 and VA2) which consists of 50 items each that would assess the usage of articles amongst other things. VA1 1. ___ book that I bought yesterday is interesting. 2. I saw ___ man wearing a red suit.
VA2 1. ___ goat was crossing ___ river. 2. I have been waiting for ___ auto. After evaluating the Answer Sheets the overall performance of the students in two different Question Papers from similar background students is found to be varying with the following mean scores. Mean scores are: VA1 14.5 VA2 12.5 The number of right answers in VA1 is found to be 2 units more than those of VA2. Similar variation in mean scores may be found in the case of all the questions included in the test. Therefore, there could be a need for adjustment of scores of each test so that scores from different question papers can be used interchangeably 5. Process followed in Equating • The purpose of equating should be clear. • The Examination should have multiple question papers on the same subject. • Alternate question papers are set in accordance with items of the same content, difficulty level and ability tested. • Data of responses to items/questions should be collected. • The responses should be in the form of (A, B, ……….., X) or (Yes/No) etc. for objective type tests. • Equating requires that a choice be made about what type of relationships between different question papers is to be estimated. For example, this
may involve decision on whether to use linear/non linear methods of equating. • Descriptive statistics to obtain mean, standard deviation and/or the percentile rank of scores may need to be generated after evaluation of the papers. • A statistical equating method should be carefully selected for adoption. • The results of equating should be evaluated carefully. . 6. Different Methods of Equating a) Median/Mean Equating b) Linear Equating (Based on mean and S.D.) c) Equipercentile Equating d) Equating using Item Response Theory a) Median/Mean Equating Procedure: • In the given example, two question papers of Verbal Ability Test are administered on two similar groups of student(VA1 and VA2) • Mean score of VA1 = 14.5 & Mean score of VA2 = 12.5 • Difference between mean scores = 14.5 – 12.5 = 2 • Mean equating involves the addition of a constant (2 = difference in the mean scores) to all the raw scores on VA2 to find equated scores on VA1 b) Linear equating (Based on Mean and S.D.) This involves equating the two tests using the mean and standard deviation of each question paper. If x represents a score on the VA2 (in the given example) and y represents a score on the reference form (VA1), then x and y are equivalent in a group of examinees if:
Procedure: For adjusting the new scores according to the reference form the formula is: X(VA2) Y(VA1) Mean 12.5 14.5 S.D. 4.5 4 Y adjusted to X: c) Equipercentile Equating The method of equi-percentile equating involves fixing up a common percentile for all forms (it is observed that same test score in each of the question papers gives rise to different percentiles) and then finding the different scores in these forms in terms of number right scores. Thus a score of 17.2 in series -1 score is equivalent to 14.5 in series-2.This in essence is equipercentile equating. Procedure: Given below are two sets of scores, series 1 and series 2, which are multiple question papers of the same test. As far as possible, the no. of examiners in either series should be equal. Their percentile ranks are calculated from the grouped data using SPSS or Excel. ymean(y)xmean(x)SD(y)SD(x)(xmean(x))ySD(y)mean(y)SD(x)1012.5414.512.284.5
series 2 score percentile rank 1 0.00% 2 5.50% 3 11.10% 4 16.60% 5 22.20% 6 27.70% 7 33.30% 8 38.80% 9 44.40% 10 50.00% 11 55.50% 12 61.10% 13 66.60% 14 72.20% 15 77.70% 16 83.30% 17 88.80% 18 94.40% 19 100.00% series 1 score percentile rank 3 0.00% 4 5.20% 5 10.50% 6 15.70% 7 21.00% 8 26.30% 9 31.50% 10 36.80% 11 42.10% 12 47.30% 13 52.60% 14 57.80% 15 63.10% 16 68.40% 17 73.60% 18 78.90% 19 84.20% 20 89.40% 21 94.70% 22 100.00%
The above graph shows both percentile ranks of series 1 and 2 are put together in order to enable the percentile score of one raw mark of series-1 to be slightly different from the raw mark score of series-2. The percentile rank of 17 in series -1 is 88.8% and in series -2 the same score of 17 has a percentile of 93.6%. In the method of equi-percentile equating, a cut-off of a percentile rank to qualify for selection is to be fixed, say 75 percentile and this common 75 percentile has a raw score of 14.5 in series-1 and 15.26 in series-2. Therefore, anyone who gets more than 14.5 in series -1 and 15.26 in series 2 will qualify and the equi-percentile is 75. SSC PROPOSES TO USE THE EQUIPERCENTILE METHOD IN VIEW OF ITS SIMPLICITY
d) Equating using Item Response Theory (IRT) Basic Concepts • Ability (θ): Ability is measured on the scale (-3 to +3) • Item difficulty (b): The item difficulty of an item and the ability of the test taker are on the same scale. it is invariably taken as the middle point of the item characteristic curve where the curve shows a tendency of contra flexure that is bending in the opposite directions (-3 to +3) • Both of these are on the same scale and along the x-axis • Probability of getting the correct answer (0 to 1) on the y-axis • This is a fraction like 0.75which means if a person of particular ability say θ ( any ability between -3 and +3) attempts 100 times the same item 75 times he will get it right and 25 times he will get it wrong. Fred Lord’s Model - ∞ + ∞ -3 + 3 - 4 + 4 α tan α = a Item discrimination Item Difficulty ‘b’ Guessing c Pi (θ) (probability of getting answer right on any item I with ability θ) 0.5 +1.0 1-c
Types of equating in IRT i) Horizontal equating ii) Vertical equating Horizontal equating is equating scales of about the same ability Vertical equating is equating scales across completely different levels of ability THE COMMISSION DOES NOT USE IRT IN ITS EXAMINATIONS.
assistant sub inspector exam cutoff marks ssc cisf exam
STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION Recruitment of Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Examination, 2010. List of candidates qualified for appearing in Eligibility Tests, Physical Efficiency(Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Test . The Staff Selection Commission had conducted the Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Examination, 2010 on 29.08.2010 on all India basis. 1. Following is the category-wise summary of 18309 candidates who have, on the basis of their performance in Paper-I of the examination, qualified provisionally for Eligibility Tests, Physical Efficiency (Endurance) Test(PET) and Medical Examination for the post of Assistant Sub-Inspectors in the CISF subject to their fulfilling all the conditions of eligibility. The details of the candidates are as follows :- Cut-off for Male candidates in paper 1 for PET SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL Vacancies 135 67 243 90 455 900 Cut Off Marks 83 92 87 60 103 Candidates available 3007 2036 6749 535 2870 15197 Cut-off for Female candidates in paper 1 for PET SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL Vacancies 15 7 27 10 51 100 Cut Off Marks 66 66 70 55 87 Candidates available 567 300 1305 28 708 2908 2. Some candidates have not coded their gender (Male or Female) on the OMR answer sheets. However, such candidates who have obtained the cut-off marks or above have been considered. Following are the details of such 61 and 143 candidates who have been shortlisted on male and female cut-off respectively. The actual sex code for these candidates shall be verified and accordingly the candidates shall be called for PET examination as male or female candidate. Candidates shortlisted on male cut-off: SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL Cut Off Marks 83 92 87 60 103 Candidates available 12 4 24 8 13 61 Candidates shortlisted on female cut-off: SC ST OBC EXS UR TOTAL Cut Off Marks 66 66 70 55 87 Candidates available 23 21 61 3 35 143 3. Particulars of the candidates including their category/sex status as indicated in the result have been taken from their OMR answer scripts of Paper-I. It is important for such candidates for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per the policy of the Government, to note that if any of them does not actually belong to the category/sex shown against his/her roll number, he/she may not be eligible for appearing in the Eligibility Tests, Physical Efficiency (Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Examination. It is, therefore, in the interest of such candidates to contact the respective Regional Offices of the Commission immediately in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown against their roll numbers in the result. 4. The list herein is PROVISIONAL. The candidates whose roll numbers figure in the list would be called for Eligibility Tests, Physical Efficiency (Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Examination subject to their fulfilling all the eligibility conditions/ requirements as prescribed for the post in the Notice of Examination and also subject to thorough verifications of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, handwritings, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. If on verification from the application form, it is found that any candidate does not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, he/she will not be eligible to appear for the Eligibility Test, etc.
5. Paper-II of only those candidates who fulfil the Physical Standards and Physical Efficiency Test (PET) & medical examination, will be evaluated and candidates qualifying in the written examination (Paper-I+Paper-II) will be called for Personality Test (Interview) in due course. 6. The Physical Efficiency (Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Examination are expected to commence from 01.11.2010. Actual dates of the Test will be intimated to the qualified candidates by the respective Regional Office of the Commission. 7. The list of candidates qualified provisionally is also available on the Commission’s Website : http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. 8. Marks of the non-qualified would be made available on SSC’s website shortly. Marks of the qualified candidates would be made available after declaration of the final result. (Satya Prakash) Under Secretary (C.I) 20.09. 2010
5. Paper-II of only those candidates who fulfil the Physical Standards and Physical Efficiency Test (PET) & medical examination, will be evaluated and candidates qualifying in the written examination (Paper-I+Paper-II) will be called for Personality Test (Interview) in due course. 6. The Physical Efficiency (Endurance) Test (PET) and Medical Examination are expected to commence from 01.11.2010. Actual dates of the Test will be intimated to the qualified candidates by the respective Regional Office of the Commission. 7. The list of candidates qualified provisionally is also available on the Commission’s Website : http://ssc.nic.in and http://sscresults.nic.in. 8. Marks of the non-qualified would be made available on SSC’s website shortly. Marks of the qualified candidates would be made available after declaration of the final result. (Satya Prakash) Under Secretary (C.I) 20.09. 2010
DATA ENTRY OPERATOR 2009 G.K PAPER
1.the rbi issues currency notes under the
fixed fiduciary system
maximum fiduciary system
fixed minimum reserve system
proportional reserve system
2. which day is the international human rights day
dec 10
oct 24
nov 25
none of the above
3.the capital of pakistan till 1959 was
lslamabad
karachi
lahore
hyderabad
4. silicon valley of india is located in
dehradun
bangalore
hyderabad
srinagar
5. the author of the book india wins freedom
kuldeep nayyar
abul kalam azad
jawahar lal
indira gandhi
6. the implementation of jawahar rojgar yojana rests with
gram panchayats
district collectors
state governments
union government
7. what is quorum required for convening the lok sabha
1/6
1/8
1/10
1/5
8. in the parliamentary form of government he is the first among equals who is he
president
prime minister
leader of opposition
speaker of lower house
9. gandhiji movement of boycotting the foreign goods aimed at
full independence
creating anti british sentiment
promotion of welfare state
promotion of cottage industries
10. what is maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of india
58
60
63
there is no maximum age limit
11. the final of the sultan afzal shah hockey tournament 2009 was played between
india and malaysia
india and pak
pak and malaysia
malaysia and japan
12. the 2011 cricket world cup shall be co-hosted by
india, shri lanka, pak and bangladesh
india, shri lanka and bankladesh
bangladesh, pak, and sri lanka
bangladesh, pak and india
13. english is the official language opf which one of the following indian states
nagaland
tripura
assam
manipur
14. right to information act was passed in the year
2001
2005
2004
2002
15. in india fera has been replaced by
FEMA
FETA
FENA
FELA
16. The emerging player of the year 2008 award was given by ICC to which Sri Lankan cricketer?
Ajanta mendis
muttiah murlitharan
kapugedera
mahroof
17. the term PC means
private computer
personal computer
professional computer
personal calculator
18. which one of the following indian cricketers has been declared the leading cricketer of 2008 by wisden
dhoni
sehwag
kumble
saurav
19. who is the present chief of ISRO
MADHAVAN NAIR
ANIL KAKODKAR
MOHAN S SHETTY
M, ARVINDAM
20. who has taken over as chief election commissioner after the retirement of shri goplaswami
vs sampath
sy quraishi
navin chawala
ms gill
fixed fiduciary system
maximum fiduciary system
fixed minimum reserve system
proportional reserve system
2. which day is the international human rights day
dec 10
oct 24
nov 25
none of the above
3.the capital of pakistan till 1959 was
lslamabad
karachi
lahore
hyderabad
4. silicon valley of india is located in
dehradun
bangalore
hyderabad
srinagar
5. the author of the book india wins freedom
kuldeep nayyar
abul kalam azad
jawahar lal
indira gandhi
6. the implementation of jawahar rojgar yojana rests with
gram panchayats
district collectors
state governments
union government
7. what is quorum required for convening the lok sabha
1/6
1/8
1/10
1/5
8. in the parliamentary form of government he is the first among equals who is he
president
prime minister
leader of opposition
speaker of lower house
9. gandhiji movement of boycotting the foreign goods aimed at
full independence
creating anti british sentiment
promotion of welfare state
promotion of cottage industries
10. what is maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of india
58
60
63
there is no maximum age limit
11. the final of the sultan afzal shah hockey tournament 2009 was played between
india and malaysia
india and pak
pak and malaysia
malaysia and japan
12. the 2011 cricket world cup shall be co-hosted by
india, shri lanka, pak and bangladesh
india, shri lanka and bankladesh
bangladesh, pak, and sri lanka
bangladesh, pak and india
13. english is the official language opf which one of the following indian states
nagaland
tripura
assam
manipur
14. right to information act was passed in the year
2001
2005
2004
2002
15. in india fera has been replaced by
FEMA
FETA
FENA
FELA
16. The emerging player of the year 2008 award was given by ICC to which Sri Lankan cricketer?
Ajanta mendis
muttiah murlitharan
kapugedera
mahroof
17. the term PC means
private computer
personal computer
professional computer
personal calculator
18. which one of the following indian cricketers has been declared the leading cricketer of 2008 by wisden
dhoni
sehwag
kumble
saurav
19. who is the present chief of ISRO
MADHAVAN NAIR
ANIL KAKODKAR
MOHAN S SHETTY
M, ARVINDAM
20. who has taken over as chief election commissioner after the retirement of shri goplaswami
vs sampath
sy quraishi
navin chawala
ms gill
Monday, September 20, 2010
NESHWAR GROUP ‘D’ EXAM SOLVED PAPER RRB BHUBANESHWAR GROUP ‘D’ EXAM (Held on 30.09.2007)
RRB BHUBANESHWAR GROUP ‘D’ EXAM SOLVED PAPER
RRB BHUBANESHWAR GROUP ‘D’ EXAM
(Held on 30.09.2007)
1. Recently, the Mittal group acquired the steel company________.
(1) Arcellor
(2) Chorus
(3) Posco
(4) Jindal
2. Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located ?
(1) Paris
(2) Oslo
(3) Rome
(4) Istanbul
3. Which of the following locations is known for missile test?
(1) Chandiput
(2) Pokharan
(3) Shri Harikota
(4) Sunderban
4. When the rate of interest is decreased to 12.5% p.a. from 13% there is a loss of Rs. 104 in the annual income. What is the principal?
(1) Rs. 20800
(2) Rs. 21200
(3) Rs. 22400
(4) Rs. 23200
5. The Kalinga battle was fought near which of the following places ?
(1) Barabati
(2) Balasore
(3) Dhouli (4) Udaygiri
6. Which least number when added to 2000 makes it exactly divisible by 19?
(1) 7
(2) 11
(3) 14
(4) 17
7. Which kind of energy is there in a stretched rubber band?
(1) Kinetic
(2) Magnetic
(3) Potential
(4) Constant
8. Which of the following places is known for path figurine painting ?
(1) Painting
(2) Raghurajpur
(3) Pipili
(4) Jajpur
9. A car covers the 13 rd of its total distance at 60 kmph. next 13 rd at 30kmph and the
remaining distance at 10 kmph, then what is the average speed of the whole journey?
(1) 33 kmph
(2) 25 kmph
(3) 20 kmph
(4) 15 kmph
10. Who is the present captain of Indian National Hockey team?
(1) Dhanraj Pillai
(2) Probodh Tirki
(3) Gaganjit Singh
(4) Dilip Tirki
11. Who built the famous Jagannath temple ?
(1) Ashoka
(2) Kharvel
(3) Jajati Keshari
(4) Chola Gangdev
12. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 6000 for 2 years at the rate of 12% per annum ?
(1) Rs. 1526
(2) Rs. 1772
(3) Rs. 1886
(4) Rs. 2072
13. Indicating towards a picture Rita tells her daughter. ‘He is the only son of my mother’s mother." How is Rita related to that man?
(1) Sister
(2) Nephew / Niece
(3) Aunt / Maternal mother (
4) Mother
14. Hindustan Zinc plant is located at
(1) Engule
(2) Udaipur
(3) Kakinanda (4) Vishakhapatnam
15. Which is the longest river of India ?
(1) Godavari
(2) Krishna
(3) Sindhu
(4) Ganges
16. At which of the following places was located an important village of old Kalinga?
(1) Puri (2) Baripada
(3) Tosali (4) Kyonjhar
17. Who was awarded first with Prime Minister prize for significant work in public administration?
(1) Y.V. Reddy
(2) Bimal Jalan
(3) N. Gopalaswamy
(4) Rajiv Chawla
18. Which part of the body is affected by Pneumonia ?
(1) Brain (
2) Heart
(3) Lungs (4) Kidney
19. The average weight of A,B and C is 70 kg but the average weight of A and B is 90 kg. What is the weight oC?
(1) 30 kg.
(2) 35 kg
(3) 40 kg.
(4) 45 kg.
20. Which river originates from Orissa and merges with Godavari?
(1) Brahmani
(2) Rushikulya
(3) Nagawali
(4) Indravati
21. The Chilka lake is famous for
(1) White Whale
(2) White Shark
(3) White Dolphin
(4) White Prawn
22. Light, radiowaves and X-rays are______ waves.
(1) Electro magnetic
(2) Nuclear
(3) Magnetic resonance
(4) Seismic
23. Which of the following is a red planet ?
(1) Jupiter (2) Mars
(3) Mercury (4) Sun
24. The ratio of A and B is 5:7. The value of A is 185, then B is equal to
(1) 129
(2) 239
(3) 259
(4) 379
25. The headquarters of World Health Organization is located at
(1) Geneva
(2) Paris
(3) Berlin
(4) Washington
26. In Orissa, Mig is built at
(1) Cuttak
(2) Sambalpur
(3) Berhampur
(4) Sunaveda
27. Which of the following is the first college of Orissa?
(1) Orissa Veterinary College
(2) Revanshaw College
(3) Wurla Engineering College
(4) Government Arts College
28. Which of the following is a Hockey player?
(1) Dilip Tirki
(2) V.V.S. Lakshman
(3) W.Bhutia
(4) Pravin Thipse
29. The square root of 24649 is
(1) 127
(2) 137
(3) 157
(4) 247
30. Which of the following is a chief kharif crop in Orissa ?
(1) Jawar
(2) Bajara
(3) Rice
(4) Wheat
31. Eager : interest : : Sharp : ?
(1) Desire
(2) Height
(3) Smile
(4) Intelligence
32. The ratio of 50 ml and 2 litres is
(1) 1 : 20
(2) 1 : 25
(3) 1 : 40
(4) 1 : 80
33. Who wrote ‘My Experiments with Truth’?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Rabindranath Tagore
(3) M.K. Gandhi
(4) Jai Prakash Narayan
34. The deficiency of vitamin ‘C’ causes
(1) Paralysis
(2) Scurvey
(3) T.B.
(4) Jaundice
35. What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?
16 ,21, 7, 13, 18, 6, 19, ?, ?
(1) 22 and 6
(2) 24 and 8
(3) 22 and 8
(4) 24 and 6
36. If one side of a square is decreased by 5% its area decreases by
(1) 6.75%
(2) 9.75%
(3) 12.50%
(4) 25%
37. Which of the following states is the most densely covered by forests ?
(1) Orissa
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Assam
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
38. Who among the following was awarded with Nodel Prize in Physics ?
(1) J.C. Bose
(2) Hargobind Khurana
(3) S. Chandra Shekhar
(4) Amartya Sen
39. The ‘ Gateway of India’ is situated in
(1) Delhi (2) Mumbai
(3) Chennai (4) Kolkata
40. Sultan Azlan Sah Hockey Tournament 2007 was won by
(1) India (2) Pakistan
(3) South Korea (4) Australia
41. Winter crop season is known in India as
(1) Rabi (2) Winter
(3) Kharif (4) Poddu
42. 3 49 1 2 1 of ? 7 10 7 7 + + − =
(1) 15 (2) 12
(3) 13 (4)121
43. Which Indian player has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket ?
(1) B.S. Bedi (2) Kapil Dev
(3) Sri Nath (4) Anil Kumble
44. The population of a city is 70000. it increases at 10% in the first year and at 20% in the following year. What will be the population after 2 years ?
(1) 77000 (2) 84000
(3) 92400 (4) 104000
45. Which river flows in India through Tibbet ?
(1) Ravi (2) Beas
(3) Brahmaputra (4) Ganges
46. The decimal equivalent of 7 gm of a kilogram is
(1) 0.7 (2) 0.07
(3) 0.007 (4) 0.0007
47. Hyderabad was earlier known as
(1) Bhagyanagar (2) Nizamabad
(3) Secunderabad (4) Golconda
48. Kullu Valley is situated in
(1) Punjab (2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Kashmir (4) Uttarakhand
49. Muchkund power project is situated in the state of
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Orissa
(3) Gujarat (4) Karnataka
50. Which mountain range divides India into north and south ?
(1) Nilgiris (2) Satpura
(3) Vidhyas (4) Aravali
51. The telegraphic code was invented by
(1) S.F.B. Morse (2) Arcwright
(3) Thomas Addison (4) G.Marconi
52. In a sum of Rs. 11.70, the coins of one rupee, 50 paise and 5 paise and 5 paise are in the ratio 3: 5 :7. Find the number of 50 paise coins.
(1) 6 (2) 10
(3) 14 (4) 20
53. Which place is famous for Jain caves ?
(1) Eilora (2) Khandgiri
(3) Kapilash (4) Sarnath
54. The first successful synchronous satellite of India is
(1) SLV (2) APPLE
(3) ROHINI (4) INSAT
55. Find the missing number in the following matrix.
| 2 | 5 | ? |
| 10 | 5 | 50 |
| 5 | 4 | 20 |
(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 20 (4) 25
56. Which of the following places is famous for thermal power plant ?
(1) Hirakud (2) Manipal
(3) Polavaram (4) Talcher
57. Indira Gandhi Zoological park is located in
(1) Vishakhapatnam (2) Gyderabad
(3) Puri (4) Bhubaneshwar
58. The universal blood donor is
(1) Group ‘A’ (2) Group ‘B’
(3) Group ‘AB’ (4) Group ‘O’
59. Which state is the biggest producer of cotton ?
(1) Kerala (2) Karnataka
(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Maharashtra
60. The VIBGYOR spectrum is related to
(1) Light (2) Sound
(3) Motion (4) Energy
61. Who invented telephone ?
(1) Graham Bell (2) K.G. Gillete
(3) Wright brothers (4) E. Torricelli
62. A man sells an article for Rs. 3550 and loses 19%. The cost price of the article is
(1) Rs. 4283 (2) Rs. 4350
(3) Rs. 4383 (4) Rs. 4450
63. The largest number which divides 411.752 and 1031 leaving remainder 8 in each case, is
(1) 8 (2) 11
(3) 21 (4) 31
64. The pilotless aircraft developed by DRDO whichis targeted, is
(1) Tejas (2) Vijay
(3) Lakshya (4) Varun
65. The first Indian woman justice of Supreme Court of India is
(1) Kiran Bedi (2) Brinda Karat
(3) Fatima Bibi (4) Mohini Giri
66. The instrument used to measure the intensity of earthquake is
(1) Dynamometer (2) Seismograph
(3) Fathometer (4) Magnetometer
67. The LCM of 2457,,,39612andis
(1) 118 (2) 136
(3) 359 (4) 1403
68. The first train in India was inaugurated in
(1) 1753 (2) 1784
(3) 1853 (4) 1857
69. The calculating machine was invented by
(1) Pascal (2) Bill Gates
(3) Issac Newton (4) Goodyear
70. A man travels for 4 hours. The half of the journey is covered by bus at 40 kmph and the remaining at 30 kmph by scooter. What distance did he cover?
(1) 17.5 km (2) 37.14 km
(3) 137.14 km (4) 117.5 km
71. Who is the chairman of National Human Rights Commission in India?
(1) S.Rajendra Babu (2) V.N. Kaul
(3) U.S. Mishra (4) R.C. Lahouti
72. The urban population is most in
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) West Bengal
(3) Karnataka (4) Maharashtra
73. Who wrote ‘Abhigyan Shakuntalam’?
(1) Charak (2) Harisen
(3) Bann Bhatta (4) Kalidas
74. A man buys 8 mangoes for Rs. 9 and sells them at 9 mangoes for Rs. 8. his gain or loss per cent is
(1) 10.18% loss (2) 10.18% gain
(3) 20.98% loss (4) 20.98% gain
75. Which is understood best for conducting electricity?
(1) Radiators (2) Conductors
(3) Vectors (4) Regulators
76. The other name of evergreen forests is
(1) Deciduous forests (2) Tropical forests
(3) Alpine forests (4) None of these
77. 7, 8, 10, 13, 17, ?
(1) 18 (2) 20
(3) 22 (4) 24
78. Lignite is found in abundance in
(1) Orissa (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Karnataka
79. The western seacoast in India is known as
(1) Coromandal (2) Malabar
(3) Palk Strait (4) Konkan
80. The river called China’s sorrow is
(1) Yang te (2) Hwang Ho
(3) Three Gorges (4) Shinago
81. Fraction 32 is equivalent to what per cent?
(1) 55% (2) 75%
(3) 150% (4) 175%
82. On January 26, 1950, India became
(1) Independent (2) Democratic
(3) Republic (4) Non-aligned
83. A car moves at 120 kmph, the distance covered by it in 15 minutes, is
(1) 20 km (2) 30 km
(3) 40 km (4) 50 km
84. Who invented the cholera vaccine?
(1) Joseph Lister (2) Louis Pasteur
(3) Edward Jenner (4) Roger Beacon
85. The smallest fraction in the following is
(1) 79 (2) 59
(3) 89 (4) 57
86. The two nuclear explosions took place in
(1) Kutch (2) Andaman
(3) Pokharan (4) Sunderban
87. In a group, the grandfather and his wife, father, mother, their three sons and their wives and two daughters of each son are included. The number of women in the group is
(1) 11 (2) 13
(3) 15 (4) 17
88. A cricketer scored at an average of 52 runs in 8 matches. The average of first 5 matches was 50, the average of the last 3 matches is
(1) 51.5 (2) 52.3
(3) 53.5 (4) 55.3
89. The missile fired from ground to air is
(1) Agni (2) Trishul
(3) Naag (4) Prithvi
90. The Railway Coach factory is situated in
(1) Varanast (2) Kapurthala
(3) Chittaranjan (4) Perambur
91. If a bus covers 135 km in 3 hours. The time taken to cover 200 km at the same speed is
(1) 3.22 hrs (2) 3.44 hrs
(3) 4.22 hrs (4) 4.44 hrs
92. The vegetation has life. Who researched on it?
(1) Hargobind Khurana (2) Hippocratus
(3) Edward Jenner (4) J.C. Bose
93. Which is an ice fed river?
(1) Ganges (2) Mahanadi
(3) Tapti (4) Godavari
94. The largest among the following
(1) 719 (2) 1216
(3) 1117 (4) 1318
95. The Runn of Kutch is known for
(1) Lion (2) Tigers
(3) Herbivores (4) Wild ass
96. The first commercial noncivilian aircraft is
(1) Tejas (2) Saras
(3) Indian (4) Volan
97. For contribution in the field of trade. Padma Bhushan, 2007 was awarded to
(1) LN Mittal (2) S.B. Mittal
(3) Ratan Tata (4) Azim Premji
98. The HCF of 12984, and is10864
(1) 182 (2) 380
(3) 3320 (4) 482
99. The first Indian to get Nobel Prize is
(1) Rabindra Nath Tagore (2) C.V. Raman
(3) J.C. Bose (4) Subhash Chandra Bose
100. Which latest satellite of INSAT series was launched in 2007?
(1) INSAT – 2B (2) INSAT-2C
(3) INSAT-3D (4) INSAT-4B
101. If difference between the ages of X and Y is 12 years and the ratio of their ages is 3 : 7, they what is the age of Y ?
(1) 4 years (2) 7 years
(3) 11 years (4) 21 years
102. 6.7 + 9(8-(2.6+1.5) + 12) = ?
(1) 13.6 (2) 31.6
(3) 143.1 (4) 149.8
103. The highest prize in literature of Indian government is
(1) Literature Prize (2) Lalit Kala Puraskar
(3) Dada Saheb Phalke Puraskar (4) Jnanpith Puraskar
104. The area of a circle whose radius is 3.5 cm. is
(1) 12.5 cm2 (2) 22.5 cm2
(2) 28.5 cm2 (4) 38.5 cm2
105. A sum of Rs. 6300 was lent at 5% rate of interest for 9 years. The simple interest
will be
(1) Rs. 1840 (2) Rs. 1942
(3) Rs. 2742 (4) Rs. 2835
106. In the following the Belghar wild- life sanctuary is known for
(1) Crocodile (2) Elephants
(3) Tigers (4) None of these
107. International Gandhi Prize 2006 was given to
(1) Kofi Annan (2) Desmond Tutu
(3) Yohi Sasakava (4) Sunderial Bahuguna
108. The player of tournament of World Cup Cricket 2007 was
(1) Graeme Smith (2) Muttaih Muralitharan
(3) Rahul Dravid (4) Gelnn McGrath
109. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at the rate of 10% p.a. is Rs. 630, the sum is
(1) Rs. 1000 (2) Rs. 2000
(3) Rs. 3000 (4) Rs. 4000
110. The largest gland in human body to secrete bile is
(1) Gall bladder (2) Liver
(3) Skin (4) Pancreas
111. The deepest lake of Asia is
(1) Rengali (2) Pulicut
(3) Chilka (4) Baikal
112. Chalk : Lime : : Coal : ?
(1) Carbon (2) Fire
(3) Oven (4) Chimney
113. Oriss is a chief producer of
(1) Wheat (2) Cotton
(3) Pulse (4) Jute
114. Which of the following is known for Bali journey?
(1) Cuttak (2) Paradip
(3) Gopalpur (4) Jajpur
115. In how many years will the simple interest on Rs. 6900 at the rate of 4% per annum be Rs. 2484?
(1) 4 years (2) 7 years
(3) 9 years (4) 12 years
116. In Forbes list, the richest man in the world is
(1) L.N. Mittal (2) Bill Gates
(3) Queen Elizabeth (4) George Bush
117. Jayadev belonged to
(1) Kakinada (2) Machhalipatnam
(3) Vijaywada (4) Puri
118. The study of heredity is called
(1) Anatomy (2) Cytology
(3) Psychology (4) Genetics
119. The last matches of Afro- Asian cricket championship were held in
(1) India (2) Pakistan
(3) South Africa (4) Kenya
120. Who is the first Indian spaceman?
(1) Homi Bhabha (2) Rakesh Sharma
(3) Kalpana Chawla (4) Sunita Williams
121. Which city hosted the Arab league conference?
(1) Dubai (2) Muscat
(3) Riyadh (4) Doha
122. If STORMY is coded as QVMTKA, then WINTER will be coded as
(1) UGLRCO (2) UKLVCT
(3) XKNVDT (4) XKLCVO
123. Barabat fort is situated at
(1) Cuttak (2) Khurda
(3) Warangal (4) Ahmedabad
124. The Commonwealth Games- 2010 will be held in
(1) Colombo (2) Canberra
(3) New Delhi (4) Dhaka
125. The dimensions of a rectangular hall are 5m x 4m x 3m. A window occupies an area of 4m2 . Without window the area of walls is
(1) 50m2 (2) 54m2
(3) 56m2 (4) 60m2
126. The nature of carbon dioxide is
(1) Inflammable (2) Smellless
(3) Yellowish (4) Sour
127. The largest store of bauxite has been found in the district of
(1) Nellore (2) Engule
(3) Vishakhapattnam (4) Tulcher
128. X starts for his office and walks 500m straight and turns left and walks 300m. he again turns left and walks 500m. he then turns right to walk 900m. How far is he from his office?
(1) 1000 m (2) 1000 m
(3) 1200 m (4) 1300 m
129. Which of the following is a non-metallic element?
(1) Mercury (2) Manganese
(3) Carbon (4) Gold
130. In respect of territorial area, the state of Andhra Pradesh is placed at
(1) Third (2) Fourth
(3) Fifth (4) Sixth
131. The recently discovered earthlike planet has been named ______ by the European scientists.
(1) NW 581C (2) EU 581C
(3) PL 581C (4) GL 581C
132. Karnam Malleswari is related to
(1) Weightlifting (2) Wrestling
(3) Shotput (4) Long jump 1 4
133. 300 men can do a work in 16 days. To do of the work in 15 days the number of men required is
(1) 80 (2) 75
(3) 60 (4) 45
134. The south- west monsoon starts during
(1) May- June (2) June- July
(3) July – August (4) August- September
135. The chairman of the Planning Commission in India is
(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh (2) Arjun Singh
(3) P. Chidambaram (4) Pranab Mukherjee
136. Salarjung museum is located in
(1) Hyderabad (2) Delhi
(3) Kolkata (4) Ahmedabad
137. The chief foodgrain crop of Andhra Pradesh is
(1) Ragi (2) Jowar
(3) Wheat (4) Rice
138. If DEADLY is coded as GHDGOB, then MOTIVE will be coded as
(1) OQVKXG (2) NPUJWF
(3) PRWLYH (4) QSXMZI
139. If A : B = 2 :1 and B :C = 6 : 5, then A : B : C =?
(1) 2 : 6 : 5 (2) 2 : 7 : 5
(3) 4 :10 : 7 (4) 12 : 6 : 5
140. The state with lowest area is
(1) Lakshadwip (2) Pudicherry
(3) Goa (4) Delhi
141. 47 kmph is equivalent to
(1) 10.03 m/s (2) 11.04 m/s
(3) 13.05 m/s (4) 14.06 m/s
142. Rocket is launched from
(1) Balasore (2) Sri Harikota
(3) Trombay (4) Siachen
143. Who is the President of Afghanistan?
(1) Pervez Musharraf (2) Hamid Karzai
(3) M. Ahmedinejad (4) M. Abbaas
144. The first novelist of Orissa is
(1) Faqir Mohan Senapti (2) Gopinath Mohanty
(3) Anant Patnaik (4) Manoj Das
145. A trader marks his goods at 20% higher than the cost price and then allows a discount of 10%. His gain per cent is
(1) 8% (2) 10%
(3) 12% (4) 14%
146. The outermost layer of earth’s atmosphere is
(1) Troposphere (2) Lithosphere
(3) Mesosphere (4) lonosphere
147. X, Y and Z can complete a work in 7, 14 and 28 days respectively. They together can complete the work in
(1) 4 days (2) 8 days
(3) 12 days (4) 16 days
148. A 140m long train is moving at 70 kmph. It will cross a man running at 4 kmph in the same direction of train in
(1) 4.63 seconds (2) 5.63 seconds
(3) 6.63 seconds (4) 7.63 seconds
149. 25m is what per cent of 7.5 km?
(1) 33% (2) 3.3%
(3) 0.33% (4) 0.03%
150. A tap can fill a tank in 8 minutes and an other tap can empty the tank in 16 minutes. If both the taps are opened together, the tank will be filled in
(1) 8 minutes (2) 16 minutes
(3) 20 minutes (4) 24 minutes
ANSWER KEYS 1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1)
26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (3)
31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4)
41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3)
46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (3)
51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1)
56. (4) 57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (1)
61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (4) 64. (3) 65. (3)
66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (2)
76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (2)
81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (2)
86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (4)
91. (4) 92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (4)
96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (3) 99. (1) 100. (4)
101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (4)
106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (2)
111. (4) 112. (1) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3)
116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (4) 119. (4) 120. (2)
121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (1)
126. (4) 127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (3)
131. (4) 132. (1) 133. (1) 134. (1) 135. (1)
136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (1)
141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (2) 144. (2) 145. (1)
146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (4) 149. (3) 150. (1)
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